Renal AI Flashcards
1
Q
What is nephrotic syndrome?
A
Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by excessive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia.
2
Q
True or False: Nephrotic syndrome can lead to an increased risk of infection.
A
True
3
Q
Fill in the blank: The primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome is __________.
A
edema
4
Q
What is the primary cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A
Minimal change disease
5
Q
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome? A) Proteinuria B) Hypertension C) Edema D) Hyperlipidemia
A
B) Hypertension
6
Q
What laboratory finding is most indicative of nephrotic syndrome?
A
Significant proteinuria (greater than 3.5 grams per day)
7
Q
True or False: Nephrotic syndrome can result from diabetic nephropathy.
A
True
8
Q
What type of diet is often recommended for patients with nephrotic syndrome?
A
A low-sodium and moderate-protein diet
9
Q
Fill in the blank: The condition characterized by the presence of high lipid levels in the blood due to nephrotic syndrome is called __________.
A
hyperlipidemia
10
Q
What is the role of corticosteroids in the treatment of nephrotic syndrome?
A
Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and proteinuria, especially in cases like minimal change disease.
11
Q
What is Henoch-Schönlein purpura commonly known as?
A
IgA vasculitis
12
Q
True or False: Henoch-Schönlein purpura primarily affects adults.
A
False
13
Q
Fill in the blank: Henoch-Schönlein purpura is characterized by a purplish rash, abdominal pain, joint pain, and __________.
A
kidney involvement
14
Q
Which immunoglobulin is primarily associated with Henoch-Schönlein purpura?
A
IgA
15
Q
What is the typical age range for the onset of Henoch-Schönlein purpura?
A
Children aged 2 to 11 years
16
Q
What is the primary cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
A
Acute tubular necrosis is primarily caused by ischemia or nephrotoxins.
17
Q
True or False: Acute tubular necrosis can be classified into prerenal and postrenal causes.
A
False: Acute tubular necrosis is primarily classified as intrinsic renal failure.
18
Q
Fill in the blank: The most common nephrotoxin that leads to acute tubular necrosis is __________.
A
contrast dye
19
Q
Which of the following is a symptom of acute tubular necrosis? A) Hematuria B) Oliguria C) Hypertension
A
B) Oliguria
20
Q
What laboratory test is commonly used to diagnose acute tubular necrosis?
A
Serum creatinine levels are commonly used to diagnose acute tubular necrosis.
21
Q
What is nephritic syndrome?
A
Nephritic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema.
22
Q
True or False: Nephritic syndrome is primarily caused by a decrease in glomerular filtration rate.
A
True
23
Q
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of nephritic syndrome? a) Hematuria b) Edema c) Hypercalcemia
A
c) Hypercalcemia
24
Q
Fill in the blank: Nephritic syndrome often presents with _______ and _______ in the urine.
A
blood, protein
25
Name one common cause of nephritic syndrome.
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
26
What laboratory finding is typically elevated in nephritic syndrome?
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
27
True or False: Nephritic syndrome can lead to chronic kidney disease if untreated.
True
28
What is the primary treatment goal for nephritic syndrome?
To manage symptoms and prevent progression of kidney damage.
29
Which demographic is most commonly affected by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, a type of nephritic syndrome?
Children
30
Multiple choice: Which of the following is a potential complication of nephritic syndrome? a) Acute kidney injury b) Diabetes mellitus c) Hypertension
a) Acute kidney injury
31
What is the primary cause of Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS)?
The primary cause of HUS is infection with certain strains of Escherichia coli, particularly Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC).
32
True or False: Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome primarily affects the liver.
False: HUS primarily affects the kidneys.
33
Fill in the blank: The classic triad of symptoms in Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome includes ______, ______, and ______.
hemolytic anemia, acute renal failure, and thrombocytopenia.
34
Which of the following is NOT a common complication of Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome? A) Hypertension B) Neurological issues C) Liver failure
C) Liver failure
35
What is the typical treatment approach for Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome?
The typical treatment includes supportive care, such as hydration, management of electrolyte imbalances, and in severe cases, dialysis.
36
What is Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)?
PKD is a genetic disorder characterized by the development of numerous cysts in the kidneys.
37
True or False: PKD can only be inherited from one parent.
False: PKD can be inherited in an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive manner.
38
Fill in the blank: The most common form of PKD is _____ PKD.
autosomal dominant
39
Which of the following is a common symptom of PKD? A) High blood pressure B) Skin rash C) Frequent headaches
A) High blood pressure
40
What are potential complications of Polycystic Kidney Disease?
Potential complications include kidney failure, high blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and liver cysts.
41
What is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults?
Renal cell carcinoma
42
True or False: Renal cell carcinoma is often asymptomatic in its early stages.
True
43
Fill in the blank: The classic triad of symptoms for renal cell carcinoma includes hematuria, flank pain, and __________.
palpable abdominal mass
44
Which imaging technique is commonly used to diagnose renal cell carcinoma?
CT scan
45
What genetic syndrome is associated with an increased risk of renal cell carcinoma?
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
46
What is Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)?
FSGS is a disease that affects the kidney's filtering units, known as glomeruli, leading to scarring and loss of kidney function.
47
True or False: FSGS can be primary or secondary to other conditions.
True
48
Fill in the blank: The primary cause of FSGS is often _______.
idiopathic
49
Which of the following is a common symptom of FSGS? A) Hypertension B) Increased urination C) Proteinuria D) All of the above
D) All of the above
50
What is the primary treatment approach for FSGS?
The primary treatment approach includes the use of corticosteroids and immunosuppressive therapy.
51
What is the primary pathological feature of Membranous glomerulonephropathy?
The presence of subepithelial immune complex deposits along the glomerular basement membrane.
52
True or False: Membranous glomerulonephropathy is primarily associated with nephritic syndrome.
False; it is primarily associated with nephrotic syndrome.
53
Fill in the blank: Membranous glomerulonephropathy can be secondary to infections, drugs, and ______.
malignancies.
54
Which age group is most commonly affected by Membranous glomerulonephropathy?
Adults, typically between the ages of 30 and 60.
55
What is a common clinical manifestation of Membranous glomerulonephropathy?
Proteinuria, often leading to edema and hypoalbuminemia.
56
What is Goodpasture's syndrome?
Goodpasture's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the presence of antibodies against collagen in the lungs and kidneys.
57
True or False: Goodpasture's syndrome primarily affects the liver.
False
58
Fill in the blank: The main symptoms of Goodpasture's syndrome include ______ and ______.
hemoptysis and renal failure
59
Which type of antibodies are associated with Goodpasture's syndrome?
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
60
What is the typical treatment approach for Goodpasture's syndrome?
Treatment typically involves immunosuppressive therapy and plasmapheresis.
61
What is Post streph glomerulonephritis?
A kidney condition that occurs after infection with certain strains of streptococcus bacteria, leading to inflammation of the glomeruli.
62
True or False: Post streph glomerulonephritis can occur after any type of streptococcal infection.
False: It typically follows specific strains, particularly those causing pharyngitis or skin infections.
63
Fill in the blank: The main symptoms of Post streph glomerulonephritis include ______, ______, and ______.
hematuria, edema, hypertension
64
Which laboratory finding is commonly associated with Post streph glomerulonephritis?
Presence of red blood cells and casts in the urine.
65
What is the typical age group affected by Post streph glomerulonephritis?
It most commonly affects children aged 2 to 12 years.
66
What is IgA glomerulonephritis?
IgA glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease characterized by the deposition of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the glomeruli, leading to inflammation and damage.
67
True or False: IgA glomerulonephritis is the most common form of primary glomerulonephritis worldwide.
True
68
Fill in the blank: The primary symptom of IgA glomerulonephritis often includes ____ in the urine.
hematuria
69
What is a common complication of IgA glomerulonephritis?
Chronic kidney disease
70
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common trigger for IgA glomerulonephritis? A) Allergic reaction B) Infection C) Autoimmune disease D) All of the above
D) All of the above
71
What is the primary characteristic of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?
It is characterized by the proliferation of glomerular mesangial cells and thickening of the glomerular capillary walls.
72
True or False: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is commonly associated with infections such as hepatitis.
True
73
Fill in the blank: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is classified into ____ types based on its underlying causes.
three
74
Which type of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is associated with the presence of cryoglobulinemia?
Type I
75
What is a common clinical manifestation of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?
Nephrotic syndrome
76
What is haemodialysis?
Haemodialysis is a medical procedure that uses a machine to filter waste and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly.
77
True or False: Peritoneal dialysis uses the lining of the abdomen to filter waste from the blood.
True
78
Fill in the blank: In haemodialysis, blood is taken from the body, filtered through a machine, and returned to the body through a ______.
dialysis machine
79
What is the main purpose of dialysis?
The main purpose of dialysis is to remove waste products and excess fluid from the body when the kidneys can no longer perform this function.
80
Which type of dialysis is typically performed at home by the patient?
Peritoneal dialysis
81
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common complication of haemodialysis? A) Infection B) Hypertension C) Anemia D) All of the above
D) All of the above
82
What is the role of dialysate in peritoneal dialysis?
Dialysate is a special fluid used in peritoneal dialysis to absorb waste products and excess fluids from the blood through the peritoneal membrane.
83
True or False: Haemodialysis sessions typically last 2-4 hours and are usually done three times a week.
True
84
What are the two main types of dialysis?
The two main types of dialysis are haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
85
Short Answer: Name one advantage of peritoneal dialysis over haemodialysis.
One advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that it can be performed at home, allowing for greater flexibility and independence.
86
What is an arteriovenous fistula?
An arteriovenous fistula is an abnormal connection between an artery and a vein.
87
True or False: Arteriovenous fistulas are commonly used for hemodialysis access.
True
88
Fill in the blank: The primary purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is to provide _______ access for dialysis.
vascular
89
What is one major complication associated with arteriovenous fistulas?
Thrombosis
90
Which of the following is a symptom of an arteriovenous fistula complication? A) Swelling B) Fever C) Both A and B
C) Both A and B
91
Short answer: What is the term for the abnormal enlargement of a vein due to increased blood flow from an arteriovenous fistula?
Aneurysm
92
True or False: Infection is a potential complication of arteriovenous fistulas.
True
93
What is the primary diagnostic tool used to assess complications of an arteriovenous fistula?
Ultrasound
94
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a complication of arteriovenous fistula? A) Stenosis B) Heart failure C) Hematoma
B) Heart failure
95
Fill in the blank: The creation of an arteriovenous fistula typically takes _______ weeks to mature.
6 to 8
96
What does AKI stand for?
Acute Kidney Injury
97
True or False: Prerenal causes of AKI are due to problems within the kidney itself.
False
98
Fill in the blank: One common prerenal cause of AKI is _____ due to decreased blood flow.
hypovolemia
99
Which of the following is NOT a postrenal cause of AKI? a) Kidney stones b) Urinary tract obstruction c) Severe dehydration
c) Severe dehydration
100
Name one intrinsic renal cause of AKI.
Acute tubular necrosis
101
What are the three main phases of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
The three main phases of AKI are initiation, maintenance, and recovery.
102
True or False: The maintenance phase of AKI is characterized by stable kidney function.
True
103
Fill in the blank: The ______ phase of AKI is when there is a rapid decline in kidney function.
initiation
104
During which phase of AKI does the kidney begin to regain its function?
recovery
105
Multiple Choice: Which phase of AKI is often the longest duration? A) Initiation B) Maintenance C) Recovery
B) Maintenance
106
What is the definition of nephrotoxic drugs?
Nephrotoxic drugs are substances that can cause damage to the kidneys.
107
True or False: All antibiotics are nephrotoxic.
False
108
Fill in the blank: The most common class of nephrotoxic drugs includes ______.
aminoglycosides
109
Which of the following drugs is known to be nephrotoxic? A) Acetaminophen B) Gentamicin C) Ibuprofen
B) Gentamicin
110
Name one mechanism by which nephrotoxic drugs can cause kidney damage.
One mechanism is the induction of oxidative stress in renal cells.
111
What does RIFLE stand for in the context of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
RIFLE stands for Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss, and End-stage kidney disease.
112
True or False: The RIFLE criteria are used to classify the severity of acute kidney injury.
True.
113
Fill in the blank: The RIFLE criteria categorize AKI into _______ stages.
five.
114
Which stage of the RIFLE criteria indicates the most severe level of kidney injury?
Failure.
115
What is the primary parameter used in the RIFLE criteria to assess kidney function?
Serum creatinine levels and urine output.
116
What does KDIGO stand for?
Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes
117
True or False: The KDIGO criteria for AKI includes three stages based on serum creatinine levels.
True
118
Fill in the blank: Stage 1 AKI is defined as an increase in serum creatinine of _____ to _____ mg/dL.
0.3 to 1.5
119
Which of the following is NOT a criterion for diagnosing AKI according to KDIGO? A) Increase in serum creatinine B) Decrease in urine output C) Increase in blood pressure
C) Increase in blood pressure
120
What is the minimum duration of oliguria required to classify AKI according to KDIGO?
12 hours
