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F24 > Renal AI > Flashcards

Renal AI Flashcards

1
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A

Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by excessive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia.

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2
Q

True or False: Nephrotic syndrome can lead to an increased risk of infection.

A

True

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3
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome is __________.

A

edema

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4
Q

What is the primary cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

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5
Q

Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome? A) Proteinuria B) Hypertension C) Edema D) Hyperlipidemia

A

B) Hypertension

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6
Q

What laboratory finding is most indicative of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Significant proteinuria (greater than 3.5 grams per day)

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7
Q

True or False: Nephrotic syndrome can result from diabetic nephropathy.

A

True

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8
Q

What type of diet is often recommended for patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A

A low-sodium and moderate-protein diet

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: The condition characterized by the presence of high lipid levels in the blood due to nephrotic syndrome is called __________.

A

hyperlipidemia

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10
Q

What is the role of corticosteroids in the treatment of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and proteinuria, especially in cases like minimal change disease.

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11
Q

What is Henoch-Schönlein purpura commonly known as?

A

IgA vasculitis

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12
Q

True or False: Henoch-Schönlein purpura primarily affects adults.

A

False

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: Henoch-Schönlein purpura is characterized by a purplish rash, abdominal pain, joint pain, and __________.

A

kidney involvement

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14
Q

Which immunoglobulin is primarily associated with Henoch-Schönlein purpura?

A

IgA

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15
Q

What is the typical age range for the onset of Henoch-Schönlein purpura?

A

Children aged 2 to 11 years

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16
Q

What is the primary cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

Acute tubular necrosis is primarily caused by ischemia or nephrotoxins.

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17
Q

True or False: Acute tubular necrosis can be classified into prerenal and postrenal causes.

A

False: Acute tubular necrosis is primarily classified as intrinsic renal failure.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common nephrotoxin that leads to acute tubular necrosis is __________.

A

contrast dye

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19
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of acute tubular necrosis? A) Hematuria B) Oliguria C) Hypertension

A

B) Oliguria

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20
Q

What laboratory test is commonly used to diagnose acute tubular necrosis?

A

Serum creatinine levels are commonly used to diagnose acute tubular necrosis.

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21
Q

What is nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema.

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22
Q

True or False: Nephritic syndrome is primarily caused by a decrease in glomerular filtration rate.

A

True

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of nephritic syndrome? a) Hematuria b) Edema c) Hypercalcemia

A

c) Hypercalcemia

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24
Q

Fill in the blank: Nephritic syndrome often presents with _______ and _______ in the urine.

A

blood, protein

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25
Q

Name one common cause of nephritic syndrome.

A

Post-infectious glomerulonephritis

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26
Q

What laboratory finding is typically elevated in nephritic syndrome?

A

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

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27
Q

True or False: Nephritic syndrome can lead to chronic kidney disease if untreated.

A

True

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28
Q

What is the primary treatment goal for nephritic syndrome?

A

To manage symptoms and prevent progression of kidney damage.

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29
Q

Which demographic is most commonly affected by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, a type of nephritic syndrome?

A

Children

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30
Q

Multiple choice: Which of the following is a potential complication of nephritic syndrome? a) Acute kidney injury b) Diabetes mellitus c) Hypertension

A

a) Acute kidney injury

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31
Q

What is the primary cause of Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS)?

A

The primary cause of HUS is infection with certain strains of Escherichia coli, particularly Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC).

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32
Q

True or False: Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome primarily affects the liver.

A

False: HUS primarily affects the kidneys.

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33
Q

Fill in the blank: The classic triad of symptoms in Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome includes ______, ______, and ______.

A

hemolytic anemia, acute renal failure, and thrombocytopenia.

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34
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common complication of Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome? A) Hypertension B) Neurological issues C) Liver failure

A

C) Liver failure

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35
Q

What is the typical treatment approach for Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome?

A

The typical treatment includes supportive care, such as hydration, management of electrolyte imbalances, and in severe cases, dialysis.

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36
Q

What is Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)?

A

PKD is a genetic disorder characterized by the development of numerous cysts in the kidneys.

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37
Q

True or False: PKD can only be inherited from one parent.

A

False: PKD can be inherited in an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive manner.

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38
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common form of PKD is _____ PKD.

A

autosomal dominant

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39
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of PKD? A) High blood pressure B) Skin rash C) Frequent headaches

A

A) High blood pressure

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40
Q

What are potential complications of Polycystic Kidney Disease?

A

Potential complications include kidney failure, high blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and liver cysts.

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41
Q

What is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

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42
Q

True or False: Renal cell carcinoma is often asymptomatic in its early stages.

A

True

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43
Q

Fill in the blank: The classic triad of symptoms for renal cell carcinoma includes hematuria, flank pain, and __________.

A

palpable abdominal mass

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44
Q

Which imaging technique is commonly used to diagnose renal cell carcinoma?

A

CT scan

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45
Q

What genetic syndrome is associated with an increased risk of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

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46
Q

What is Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)?

A

FSGS is a disease that affects the kidney’s filtering units, known as glomeruli, leading to scarring and loss of kidney function.

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47
Q

True or False: FSGS can be primary or secondary to other conditions.

A

True

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48
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary cause of FSGS is often _______.

A

idiopathic

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49
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of FSGS? A) Hypertension B) Increased urination C) Proteinuria D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

50
Q

What is the primary treatment approach for FSGS?

A

The primary treatment approach includes the use of corticosteroids and immunosuppressive therapy.

51
Q

What is the primary pathological feature of Membranous glomerulonephropathy?

A

The presence of subepithelial immune complex deposits along the glomerular basement membrane.

52
Q

True or False: Membranous glomerulonephropathy is primarily associated with nephritic syndrome.

A

False; it is primarily associated with nephrotic syndrome.

53
Q

Fill in the blank: Membranous glomerulonephropathy can be secondary to infections, drugs, and ______.

A

malignancies.

54
Q

Which age group is most commonly affected by Membranous glomerulonephropathy?

A

Adults, typically between the ages of 30 and 60.

55
Q

What is a common clinical manifestation of Membranous glomerulonephropathy?

A

Proteinuria, often leading to edema and hypoalbuminemia.

56
Q

What is Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the presence of antibodies against collagen in the lungs and kidneys.

57
Q

True or False: Goodpasture’s syndrome primarily affects the liver.

A

False

58
Q

Fill in the blank: The main symptoms of Goodpasture’s syndrome include ______ and ______.

A

hemoptysis and renal failure

59
Q

Which type of antibodies are associated with Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

60
Q

What is the typical treatment approach for Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Treatment typically involves immunosuppressive therapy and plasmapheresis.

61
Q

What is Post streph glomerulonephritis?

A

A kidney condition that occurs after infection with certain strains of streptococcus bacteria, leading to inflammation of the glomeruli.

62
Q

True or False: Post streph glomerulonephritis can occur after any type of streptococcal infection.

A

False: It typically follows specific strains, particularly those causing pharyngitis or skin infections.

63
Q

Fill in the blank: The main symptoms of Post streph glomerulonephritis include ______, ______, and ______.

A

hematuria, edema, hypertension

64
Q

Which laboratory finding is commonly associated with Post streph glomerulonephritis?

A

Presence of red blood cells and casts in the urine.

65
Q

What is the typical age group affected by Post streph glomerulonephritis?

A

It most commonly affects children aged 2 to 12 years.

66
Q

What is IgA glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease characterized by the deposition of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the glomeruli, leading to inflammation and damage.

67
Q

True or False: IgA glomerulonephritis is the most common form of primary glomerulonephritis worldwide.

A

True

68
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary symptom of IgA glomerulonephritis often includes ____ in the urine.

A

hematuria

69
Q

What is a common complication of IgA glomerulonephritis?

A

Chronic kidney disease

70
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common trigger for IgA glomerulonephritis? A) Allergic reaction B) Infection C) Autoimmune disease D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

71
Q

What is the primary characteristic of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

It is characterized by the proliferation of glomerular mesangial cells and thickening of the glomerular capillary walls.

72
Q

True or False: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is commonly associated with infections such as hepatitis.

A

True

73
Q

Fill in the blank: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is classified into ____ types based on its underlying causes.

A

three

74
Q

Which type of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is associated with the presence of cryoglobulinemia?

A

Type I

75
Q

What is a common clinical manifestation of Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

76
Q

What is haemodialysis?

A

Haemodialysis is a medical procedure that uses a machine to filter waste and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly.

77
Q

True or False: Peritoneal dialysis uses the lining of the abdomen to filter waste from the blood.

A

True

78
Q

Fill in the blank: In haemodialysis, blood is taken from the body, filtered through a machine, and returned to the body through a ______.

A

dialysis machine

79
Q

What is the main purpose of dialysis?

A

The main purpose of dialysis is to remove waste products and excess fluid from the body when the kidneys can no longer perform this function.

80
Q

Which type of dialysis is typically performed at home by the patient?

A

Peritoneal dialysis

81
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common complication of haemodialysis? A) Infection B) Hypertension C) Anemia D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

82
Q

What is the role of dialysate in peritoneal dialysis?

A

Dialysate is a special fluid used in peritoneal dialysis to absorb waste products and excess fluids from the blood through the peritoneal membrane.

83
Q

True or False: Haemodialysis sessions typically last 2-4 hours and are usually done three times a week.

A

True

84
Q

What are the two main types of dialysis?

A

The two main types of dialysis are haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.

85
Q

Short Answer: Name one advantage of peritoneal dialysis over haemodialysis.

A

One advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that it can be performed at home, allowing for greater flexibility and independence.

86
Q

What is an arteriovenous fistula?

A

An arteriovenous fistula is an abnormal connection between an artery and a vein.

87
Q

True or False: Arteriovenous fistulas are commonly used for hemodialysis access.

A

True

88
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is to provide _______ access for dialysis.

A

vascular

89
Q

What is one major complication associated with arteriovenous fistulas?

A

Thrombosis

90
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of an arteriovenous fistula complication? A) Swelling B) Fever C) Both A and B

A

C) Both A and B

91
Q

Short answer: What is the term for the abnormal enlargement of a vein due to increased blood flow from an arteriovenous fistula?

A

Aneurysm

92
Q

True or False: Infection is a potential complication of arteriovenous fistulas.

A

True

93
Q

What is the primary diagnostic tool used to assess complications of an arteriovenous fistula?

A

Ultrasound

94
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a complication of arteriovenous fistula? A) Stenosis B) Heart failure C) Hematoma

A

B) Heart failure

95
Q

Fill in the blank: The creation of an arteriovenous fistula typically takes _______ weeks to mature.

A

6 to 8

96
Q

What does AKI stand for?

A

Acute Kidney Injury

97
Q

True or False: Prerenal causes of AKI are due to problems within the kidney itself.

A

False

98
Q

Fill in the blank: One common prerenal cause of AKI is _____ due to decreased blood flow.

A

hypovolemia

99
Q

Which of the following is NOT a postrenal cause of AKI? a) Kidney stones b) Urinary tract obstruction c) Severe dehydration

A

c) Severe dehydration

100
Q

Name one intrinsic renal cause of AKI.

A

Acute tubular necrosis

101
Q

What are the three main phases of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

The three main phases of AKI are initiation, maintenance, and recovery.

102
Q

True or False: The maintenance phase of AKI is characterized by stable kidney function.

A

True

103
Q

Fill in the blank: The ______ phase of AKI is when there is a rapid decline in kidney function.

A

initiation

104
Q

During which phase of AKI does the kidney begin to regain its function?

A

recovery

105
Q

Multiple Choice: Which phase of AKI is often the longest duration? A) Initiation B) Maintenance C) Recovery

A

B) Maintenance

106
Q

What is the definition of nephrotoxic drugs?

A

Nephrotoxic drugs are substances that can cause damage to the kidneys.

107
Q

True or False: All antibiotics are nephrotoxic.

A

False

108
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common class of nephrotoxic drugs includes ______.

A

aminoglycosides

109
Q

Which of the following drugs is known to be nephrotoxic? A) Acetaminophen B) Gentamicin C) Ibuprofen

A

B) Gentamicin

110
Q

Name one mechanism by which nephrotoxic drugs can cause kidney damage.

A

One mechanism is the induction of oxidative stress in renal cells.

111
Q

What does RIFLE stand for in the context of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

RIFLE stands for Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss, and End-stage kidney disease.

112
Q

True or False: The RIFLE criteria are used to classify the severity of acute kidney injury.

A

True.

113
Q

Fill in the blank: The RIFLE criteria categorize AKI into _______ stages.

A

five.

114
Q

Which stage of the RIFLE criteria indicates the most severe level of kidney injury?

A

Failure.

115
Q

What is the primary parameter used in the RIFLE criteria to assess kidney function?

A

Serum creatinine levels and urine output.

116
Q

What does KDIGO stand for?

A

Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes

117
Q

True or False: The KDIGO criteria for AKI includes three stages based on serum creatinine levels.

A

True

118
Q

Fill in the blank: Stage 1 AKI is defined as an increase in serum creatinine of _____ to _____ mg/dL.

A

0.3 to 1.5

119
Q

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for diagnosing AKI according to KDIGO? A) Increase in serum creatinine B) Decrease in urine output C) Increase in blood pressure

A

C) Increase in blood pressure

120
Q

What is the minimum duration of oliguria required to classify AKI according to KDIGO?

A

12 hours

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