Renal Flashcards

1
Q

In renal transplant which HLA antigen is most important to match

A

DR > B > A

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2
Q

Worldwide most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Chronic Hep Be

Chronic hepatitis C in Europe)

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3
Q

Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hep b or c, alcohol, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, male sex, aflatoxin, diabetes/metabolic syndrome,

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4
Q

8 year old child presents with swelling around eyes and limbs, tiredness and weight gain. GP does urine dip. What is most likely underlying diagnosis

A

Minimal change disease (triad of proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema).. most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. Mostly idiopathic

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5
Q

Alports syndrome is caused by a defect in….

A

Type IV collagen

4lports

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6
Q

Alports syndrome is what inheritance

A

X linked dominant in ,85%. Rarely autosomal recessive

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7
Q

Classic presentation of nephritic syndrome

A

Hypertension and haematuria with AKI.

e.g. rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis,IgA nephropathy (after URTI), Alports

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8
Q

AKI -distinguish between pre renal uraemia and acute tubular necrosis

A

Prerenal uraemia - kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume… So low urinary sodium (<20)
Fractional sodium excretion <1%

In prerenal, anything related to excretion is low (urine sodium, low fractional sodium and urea excretion,) any real is high (urine: creat , urine plasma osmo)

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9
Q

Features of leptospirosis

A

Rat urine…Sewage workers, farmers, vets, abattoir,

Fever, renal failure, jaundice, subconjunctival haemorrhage

Treat with high dose benzylpenicillin

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10
Q

Isolated hyperbilirubinaemia with and without bilirubinuria

A

Gilbert’s if no bilirubinuria
Rotor or dublin-Johnson syndromes if there is bilirubinuria… Because it’s conjugated.

All autosomal recessive

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11
Q

Renal tubular acidosis 1 Vs 2 Vs 3 anion gap

A

Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap

… Low bicarb causes hypochloraemia

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12
Q

Complications of RTA 1

A

Hypokalemia, nephrocalcinosis and renal stones

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13
Q

Complications of RTA2

A

Hypokalemia, osteomalacia

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14
Q

Complications of RTA4

A

HYPERkalaemia

(Caused by hypoaldosteronism) so loop diuretics etc

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15
Q

Complications of RTA4

A

HYPERkalaemia

(Caused by hypoaldosteronism) so loop diuretics etc

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16
Q

What causes increased risk of DVT in CKD

A

Acquired antithrombin III deficiency… Small protein so easily lost throuhh the nephron

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17
Q

hypertension, kidney injury, proteinuria and haematuria point towards a nephritic picture of kidney insult. In SLE what is most common histological pattern seen?

A

most common histological pattern seen in lupus nephritis is diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

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18
Q

55yr old with persistent proteinuria, BG of multiple myeloma

Renal biopsy shows Congo red stain shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light

A

Amyloidosis biopsy findings - Congo red stain shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light

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19
Q

Starry sky microscopy renal biopsy

A

Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

Also starry sky microscopy in Burkitt’s lymphoma

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20
Q

Nephrotoxicity due to contrast can be prevented by…

A

IV NaCl 1ml/kg/hr for 12 hr pre and post

Occurs 2-5 days after administration

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21
Q

Food to avoid in CKD because of hyperkalemia

A

Banana oranges kiwi avocado spinach tomato

🍌 🍊 πŸ₯ πŸ₯‘ πŸ…

22
Q

minimal change glomerulonephritis is made. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to reduce proteinuria?

A

Prednisolone

majority of cases (80%) are steroid-responsive

23
Q

Female 55, smoker, poorly controlled hypertension.. develops flash pulmonary oedema. What do you expect renal USS to show?

A

Asymmetric kidneys -fibromuscular dysplasia

The most common cause for renal vasc disease after renal artery stenosis 2nd atherosclerosis (90%)

24
Q

Man with hypertension and smoker who develops flash pulmonary oedema after starting on ACEi

A

Renal artery stenosis (fibromuscular dysplasia is 90% women)

25
Q

causes of renal papillary necrosis mnemonic

A
POSTCARDS: 
Pyelonephritis,
Obstruction of the urogenital tract, 
Sickle cell disease, 
TB, 
Cirrhosis of the liver, 
Analgesia/alcohol abuse, 
Renal vein thrombosis, 
Diabetes mellitus, 
Systemic vasculitis.
26
Q

what type of renal stones does Proteus mirabilis infection precipitate

A

struvite kidney stones

27
Q

When does contrast induced nephropathy occur?

A

2-5 days after administration

Give 0.9% sodium chlorideat a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post-

28
Q

Most common renal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome

A

horseshoe kidney

29
Q

Patient with CKD on haemodialysis..what are they most likely to die from?

A

Ischaemic heart disease account for 50% of the mortality in patients receiving dialysis

30
Q

what are the features of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) ?

A

Englarged kidneys so well-circ palpable mass in left and right flank
Renal stones, recurrent UTIs, Hypertension

symps may include constant abdominal pain and early satiety

Most common (70%) extra-renal manifestation of hepatic cysts (can cause hepatomegaly)

31
Q

What is the most common extra-renal manifestation of auto dom polycystic kidney disease ADPKD?

A

70% have hepatic cysts, which can cause hepatomegaly

32
Q

Incidence of contrast induced nephropathy without any risk factors Vs renal function impairment

A

7% generally
25% if impaired
60% Cr>400
100% t2dm and Cr>400

33
Q

Patient newly taking lithium, protein: creatinine ratio 450, albumin 22 (low). Most likely nephropathy

A

Minimal changes is most likely lithium-induced nephropathy

Also most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

34
Q

Which nephropathy is associated with malignancy of bronchus or bowel

A

Membraneous

35
Q

How long does it take for an AV fistula to be functional

A

6 to 8 weeks post-surgery to allow full maturation to take place, where the fistula can withstand a dialysis flow rate of 500ml/min

36
Q

Young boy, 2 days post lrti gets haematuria. Diagnosis and renal biopsy?

A

IgA nephropathy

histology:mesangial hypercellularity, positive immunofluorescence for IgA & C3

Post strep is 1-2 weeks not days and less likely to have macro haematuria

37
Q

Young patient, AKI after ACEi starting

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

38
Q

renal angiomyolipomas (haemorrhagic) are strongly linked to…

A

1/10 have TS

Most patients with TS have it bilat

39
Q

Patient presents with 4/7 bloody diarrhoea, AKI and platelets 91. No neuro signs Organism?

A

E coli is the classic cause of HUS

Neuro signs would point towards ttp

40
Q

Which are nephritic and which are nephrotic

A

nephRItic - Rapidly progressive, IgA

Proliferative are mixed

The rest are nephrotic

41
Q

Which glomerulonephritis is most assx with goodpastures

A

Rapidly progressive (think like pulmonary haemorrhages)

Crescentic histology

42
Q

Prognosis of Minimal Change disease

A

Likely full recover but 2/3 have later relapses

43
Q

Diffuse macpap rash, Sterile pyuria, white cell casts, eosinophilia

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

Commonly secondary to abx

44
Q

Glomerulonephritis with Spike and dome appearance on electron microscope and anti phospholipase A2 antibodies

A

Membraneous glomerulonephritis

45
Q

anti phospholipase A2 antibodies , facial swelling, proteinuria

A

Membraneous glomerulonephritis

46
Q

Which glomerulonephritis is assx with post strep

A

Diffuse proliferative (same as SLE)

47
Q

What is thin basement membrane disease

A

Inherited collagen type 4 defect.
Up to 5% of population
Persistent microscopic haematuria with all other normal results

48
Q

Sudden deterioration in renal function in patient with nephrotic syndrome

A

Renal vein thrombosis. Especially occurs in membraneous glom

Predisposed to thrombotic events due to loss of antithrombin iii

49
Q

eGFR variables

A

Creatinine
Age
Gender
Ethnicity

May be affected by pregnancy, muscle mass, red meat but they’re not included

50
Q

Most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis

A

Staph epidermis (coag neg)

Can also be staph A

51
Q

What are the 4 stages of diabetic nephropathy

A

1 hyperfiltration
2 silent/latent
3 microalbuminaemia
4 proteinuria

52
Q

What cancer is someone who is on long-term immunosuppressants for organ transplant at risk of

A

Skin cancer, particularly Squamous cell carcinoma