Removal exam Flashcards

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1
Q

The layer just outside the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane

A

peptidoglycan layer

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2
Q

Composed of repeating disaccharides with 4 amino acids in a side chain extending from each disaccharide

A

peptidoglycan layer

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3
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of this linkage

A

transpeptidase

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4
Q

The antibiotic penicillin binds to and inhibits this enzyme. For this reason the enzyme is
also called _________

A

penicillin binding protein

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5
Q

Very thick and has extensive cross-linking of the amino-acid side chains

A

gram-positive cell wall

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6
Q

has S layers, not including the periplasmic space.

A

gram-negative cell envelope

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7
Q

contains a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

A

inner cytoplasmic membrane

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8
Q

filled with a gel that contains proteins and enzymes.

A

periplasmic space

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9
Q

The thin peptidoglycan layer does not contain teichoic acid, although it does have a small helical lipoprotein

A

murein lipoprotein.

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10
Q

,which is a disaccharide with multiple fatty acid tails reaching into the membrane.

A

lipid A

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11
Q

toxic to humans and is known as the gram-negative

endotoxin.

A

lipid A

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12
Q

Embedded in the gram-negative outer membrane, which allow passage of nutrients. These are also unique to gram-negative organism.

A

porin proteins,

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13
Q

spherical

A

Cocci

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14
Q

rods.

A

Bacilli

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15
Q

Short bacilli

A

coccobacilli.

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16
Q

comma-shaped, S-shaped, or spiral-shaped.

A

Spiral forms

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17
Q

lacking a distinct shape (like jello)

A

Pleomorphic

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18
Q

forms strips of cocci

A

Streptococcus

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19
Q

forms clusters of cocci.

A

Staphylococcus

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20
Q

Two of the 4 gram-positive rods produce

A

spores

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21
Q

spheres that protect a dormant bacterium from the

harsh environment

A

spores

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22
Q

which causes syphilis.

A

Treponema pallidum

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23
Q

It is actually a diplococcus (looks like 2 coffee beans kissing):

A

Neisseria

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24
Q

are weakly gram-positive but stain better with a special stain called the acid-fast stain

A

Mycobacteria

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25
Q

have a gram-negative cell wall but are too small to be seen with the light microscope and so must be visualized with a special darkfield microscope

A

Spirochetes

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26
Q

Spirochetes have a gram-negative cell wall but are too small to be seen with the light microscope and so must be visualized with a special __________.

A

darkfield microscope.

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27
Q

do not have a cell wall. They only have a simple cell membrane, so they are neither gram positive nor gram-negative.

A

Mycoplasma

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28
Q

usually consists of a single circle of double-stranded DNA

A

Bacterial DNA

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29
Q

are composed of protein and RNA and are involved in the translation process, during the synthesis of proteins.

A

Ribosomes

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30
Q

have smaller ribosomes (70S) than animals (80S), which are eucaryotes.
Bacterial ribosomes consist of 2 subunits, a large subunit (50S) and a small subunit (30S).

A

procaryotes,

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31
Q

which surprisingly has endotoxin-surprising because ALL other organisms with endotoxin are gram-negative.

A

Listeria

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32
Q

breaks down hydrogen peroxide in the following reaction

A

Catalase

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33
Q

also breaks down hydrogen peroxide

A

Peroxidase

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34
Q

These critters are just like us
in that they use glycolysis, the Krebs TCA cycle, and the
electron transport chain with oxygen as the final electron acceptor. These guys have all the above enzymes.

A

Obligate aerobes

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35
Q

Don’t let this name fool you! These bacteria are aerobic. They use oxygen as an
electron acceptor in their electron transfer chain and have catalase and superoxide dismustase.

A

Facultative anaerobes:

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36
Q

The only difference is that they can grow in the absence of oxygen by using fermentation for energy

A

Facultative anaerobes:

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37
Q

These bacteria use fermentation and have no electron transport system. They can tolerate low amounts of oxygen because they have superoxide dismustase (but they have no catalase).

A

Microaerophilic bacteria (also called aerotolerant anaerobes)

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38
Q

These guys hate oxygen and have no enzymes to defend against it. When you are
working on the hospital ward, you will often draw blood for culture.

A

Obligate anaerobes

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39
Q

Of the organisms that use chemical sources, those that use inorganic sources, such
as ammonium and sulfide, are called a ___________.

A

autotrophs

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40
Q

use organic carbon sources and are called _________

A

heterotrophs.

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41
Q

used by many bacteria for oxygen metabolism.

A

Fermentation (glycolysis)

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42
Q

broken down to pyruvic acid, yielding ATP directly

A

Glucose

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43
Q

There are different pathways for the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate, but the most common

A

Embden Meyerhof pathway

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44
Q

This is the pathway of glycolysis that we have all studied in biochemistry

A

Embden Meyerhof pathway

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45
Q

used with the aerobic and facultative anaerobic organisms.

A

Respiration

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46
Q

are not capable of the metabolic pathways for ATP synthesis and thus must steal ATP from their host.

A

Obligate intracellular organisms

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47
Q

These bacteria live in their host cell and cannot survive without the host.

A

Obligate intracellular organisms

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48
Q

those that can cause disease.

A

Virulent organisms

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49
Q

the degree of organism pathogenicity.

A

virulence of an organism

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50
Q

depends on the presence of certain cell structures and on bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins, all of which are virulence factors.

A

Virulence

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51
Q

are protein filaments that extend like long tails from the cell membranes of certain gram positive and gram-negative bacteria.

A

Flagella

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52
Q

affixed to the bacteria by a basal body.

A

Flagellum

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53
Q

does not have flagella.

A

Shigella

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54
Q

are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like a porcupine.

A

Pili (also called fimbriae)

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55
Q

Pili can serve as adherence factors (in which case they are called _______

A

adhesins

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56
Q

uses its adhesin to bind to ciliated respiratory cells and cause whooping cough.

A

Bordetella pertussis

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57
Q

has pili that allow it to bind to cervical cells and buccal cells to cause gonorrhea

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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58
Q

are protective walls that surround the cell membranes of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

A

Capsules

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59
Q

They are usually composed of simple sugar residues. Bacteria secrete these sugar moieties, which then coat their outer wall.

A

Capsules

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60
Q

unique in that its capsule is made up of amino acid residues.

A

Bacillus anthracis

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61
Q

Because this stain is not taken up by the capsule, the capsule appears as a transparent halo around the cell.

A

India ink stain

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62
Q

This test is used primarily to identify the fungus Cryptococcus.

A

India ink stain

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63
Q

The bacteria are mixed with antibodies that bind to the capsule. When these antibodies bind, the capsule swells with water, and this can be visualized microscopically

A

Quellung reaction

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64
Q

The process of antibodies binding to the capsule

A

opsonization

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65
Q

are formed by only 2 genera of bacteria, both of which are gram-positive

A

Endospores

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66
Q

metabolically dormant forms of bacteria that are resistant to heat (boiling),
cold, drying and chemical agents

A

Endospores

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67
Q

An outer layer called _______.

A

exosporium

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68
Q

Many bacteria are phagocytosed by the host’s macrophages and neutrophils yet survive within these white blood cells unharmed.

A

Facultative Intracellular Organisms

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69
Q

proteins that are released by both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. They may cause many disease manifestations.

A

Exotoxins

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70
Q

produces endotoxin

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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71
Q

exotoxins that act on the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to cause diarrhea. Inhibit NaCl resorption, activate NaCl secretion, or kill intestinal epithelial cells

A

Enterotoxin

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72
Q

Bacteria colonize and bind to the GI tract, continuously releasing their enterotoxins locally.

A

Infectious diarrhea

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73
Q

The diarrhea will continue until the bacteria are destroyed by the immune system or antibiotics (or the patient dies secondary to dehydration)

A

Infectious diarrhea

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74
Q

Bacteria grow in food and release enterotoxin in the food. The enterotoxin is ingested resulting in diarrhea and vomiting for less than 24 hours.

A

Food poisoning

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75
Q

stimulate the release of cytokines and can cause rash, fever, and toxic shock syndrome

A

Pyrogenic exotoxins

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76
Q

allow bacteria to destroy and tunnel through tissues. These include enzymes that destroy DNA, collagen, fibrin, NAD, red blood cells, and white blood cells.

A

Tissue invasive exotoxins

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77
Q

which are the principle virulence factors for many bacteria, can cause disease
unique to the individual bacterium. Often the exact roleof the exotoxin is poorly understood

A

Miscellaneous exotoxins

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78
Q

is a common and deadly response to both gram-negative and gram positive infection

A

Septic shock

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79
Q

the number one cause of death in intensive care units and the 13th
most common cause of death in the U.S.

A

Septic shock

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80
Q

This is simply bacteria in the bloodstream

A

Bacteremia

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81
Q

Sepsis that results in dangerous drops in blood pressure and organ dysfunction

A

Septic shock

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82
Q

endotoxin often triggers the immune response that results in sepsis and shock

A

endotoxic shock

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83
Q

These cells, in response to the stimulus, release a host of proteins that are referred to a _________

A

endogenous mediators

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84
Q

The most famous endogenous mediator of sepsis.

A

tumor necrosis factor (TNF).

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85
Q

TNF is called ________.

A

cachectin

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86
Q

double-stranded DNA molecule that is closed in a giant loop.

A

bacterial chromosome

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87
Q

Transduction occurs when a virus that infects bacteria, called ________, carries a piece of bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another

A

bacteriophage

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88
Q

infecting the bacteria, reproducing, and then lysing and killing the bacteria

A

Virulent phages

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89
Q

have a good temperament and do not immediately lyse the bacteria they infect

A

temperate phages

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90
Q

The integrated temperate phage genome

A

prophage

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91
Q

Bacteria that have a prophage integrated into their chromosome, because at some time the repressed prophage can become activated.

A

lysogenic

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92
Q

the term used to describe the ability of an integrated bacteriophage (prophage) to block a subsequent infection by a similar phage

A

Lysogenic immunity

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93
Q

these phages can carry bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another. This process is called _______.

A

transduction

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94
Q

occurs with phage lambda in Escherichia coli. The site of insertion of the lambda prophage lies between the Escherichia coli gene for biotin synthesis and galactose synthesis.

A

Specialized transduction

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95
Q

the gene for biotin synthesis can now be transferred to another bacteria that does not have that capability. You will frequently hear about this form of gene acquisition; it is called ___________.

A

lysogenic conversion

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96
Q

For conjugation to occur, one bacterium must have a self-transmissible plasmid

A

F plasmid

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97
Q

The self-transmissible plasmid (F plasmid) has a gene that encodes enzymes and proteins that form
the sex penis,

A

sex pilus

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98
Q

the extra-chromosomal F plasmid becomes integrated in the neighboring bacterial chromosome much in the same way as a temperate bacteriophage does. The bacterial cell is then called _________.

A

Hfr cell

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99
Q

High frequency of chromosomal recombinants. This integration can result in two unique mechanisms
of DNA transfer

A

Hfr cell

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100
Q

are both gram-positive spheres (cocci) and are responsible for a wide variety of clinical diseases

A

Streptococci and staphylococci

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101
Q

A second method to differentiate streptococci from staphylococci involves the enzyme

A

catalase

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102
Q

incubated overnight on a blood agar plate. B

A

streptococci

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103
Q

Completely lyse the RBCs, leaving a clear zone of

hemolysis around the colony.

A

Beta-hemolytic streptococci

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104
Q

only partially lyse the RBCs, leaving a greenish discoloration of the culture medium surrounding the
colony.

A

Alpha-hemolytic streptococci

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105
Q

are unable to hemolyze the RBCs, and therefore we should really not use the word “hemolytic” in this situation

A

Gammahemolytic streptococci

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106
Q

Used as a major way of differentiating the many streptococci.

A

Lancefield antigens

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107
Q

These organisms are so-named because they possess the Lancefeld group A antigen and are beta-hemolytic on blood agar.

A

GROUP A BETA-HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI (also called Streptococcus pyogenes)

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108
Q

which (means pus-producing) and cause the diseases “strep throat,” scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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109
Q

used by Rebecca Lancefield to divide streptococci into groups.

A

C carbohydrate

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110
Q

C carbohydrates was used by _______

A

Rebecca Lancefield

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111
Q

This is a major virulence factor for the group A streptococcus.

A

M protein

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112
Q

It inhibits the activation of complement and protects the organism from phagocytosis. However, it is also the weakest point in the organism’s defense, because plasma (B) cells generate antibodies
against the M protein.

A

M protein

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113
Q

The stands for oxygen labile as it is inactivated by oxygen.

A

Streptolysin O

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114
Q

This enzyme destroys red and white blood cells and is the reason for the beta-hemolytic
group A streptococci’s beta-hemolytic ability

A

Streptolysin O

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115
Q

The stands for oxygen stabile. This is also responsible for beta-hemolysis but is not antigenic.

A

Streptolysin S

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116
Q

This is found in only a few strains of betahemolytic group A streptococci, but when these strains invade they can cause scarlet fever.

A

Pyrogenic exotoxin (also called erythrogenic toxin)

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117
Q

activates the proteolytic enzyme plasmin, which breaks up fibrin blood clots

A

streptokinase

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118
Q

This is the classic strep throat with red swollen tonsils and pharynx, a purulent exudate on the tonsils, high temperature, and swollen lymph nodes. It usually lasts 5 days (penicillin therapy speeds recovery)

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

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119
Q

can range from folliculitis (infections of the hair follicles), cellulitis (a deep infection of the skin cells, producing red, swollen skin which is hot to the touch), and impetigo (a vesicular, blistered, eruption, most common in children, that becomes crusty and flaky and is frequently found
around the mouth)

A

Skin infections

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120
Q

(“Flesh-eating Streptococcus”)

A

Necrotizing Fasciitis

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121
Q

This type of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection has actually been around for years but may indeed be on the rise (news coverage certainly is).

A

Necrotizing Fasciitis

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122
Q

gram-negative enterics, or mixed infection with more than one of these bacteria

A

Clostridium species

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123
Q

Certain beta-hemolytic group A streptococci not only cause a sore throat

A

Scarlet fever

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124
Q

Certain beta-hemolytic group A streptococci not only cause a sore throat, but also produce an exotoxin called _________.

A

pyrogenic toxin or erythrogenic toxin

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125
Q

It is now clear that beta-hemolytic group A streptococci can cause toxic shock syndrome like that caused by Staphylococcus aureus

A

Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

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126
Q

With the advent of penicillin, is now uncommon. It usually strikes children 5-15 years of age

A

Rheumatic fever

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127
Q

Rash, because it has a red margin that spreads out from its center.

A

erythema marginatum

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128
Q

Picture John Travolta in the movie Rheumatic Fever, the upcoming sequel to _______.

A

Saturday Night Fever

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129
Q

This is an antibody-mediated inflammatory disease of the glomeruli of the kidney

A

Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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130
Q

causes tea colored urine (hematuria).

A

Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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131
Q

About 25% of women carry these bugs vaginally, and a baby can acquire these bacteria during delivery. These organisms cause neonatal (< 3 months of age) meningitis, pneumonia, and sepsis.

A

GROUP B STREPTOCOCCI

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132
Q

alpha-hemolytic, producing greenish discoloration on blood agar

A

viridans streptococci

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133
Q

Some of the viridans streptococci, especially S. mutans, can bind to teeth and ferment sugar, which produces acid and dental caries ( cavities!!).

A

Dental infections

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134
Q

Dental manipulations send showers of these organisms into the bloodstream. Subsequently, they can implant on the endocardial surface of the heart, most commonly on a previously damaged heart valve (such as from old rheumatic fever, a congenital heart defect, or mitral valve prolapse)

A

Endocarditis

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135
Q

eating heart valves slowly

A

Viridans Streptococcus

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136
Q

There is a subgroup of the viridans streptococci, which are microaerophilic and are part of the normal G.I. tract flora.

A

Streptococcus intermedius group

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137
Q

comprised of Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium

A

enterococci

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138
Q

comprised of many organisms including Streptococcus bovis and Streptococcus equinus)

A

non-enterococci

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139
Q

Traditionally these alpha-hemolytic bacteria have been divided into two subgroups

A

GROUP D STREPTOCOCCI

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140
Q

hardy, growing in 40% bile (but not in 6.5% NaCl). It lives in the G.I. tract, and it causes similar diseases

A

Streptococcus bovis

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141
Q

A very important organism because it is a major cause of bacterial pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media in children. pneumococcus is to parents what group B streptococcus is to
Babies

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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142
Q

When pneumococci on a slide smear are mixed with a small amount of antiserum (serum with antibodies to the capsular antigens) and methylene blue, the capsule will appear to swell

A

Quellung reaction

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143
Q

This technique allows for rapid identification of this organism

A

Quellung reaction

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144
Q

is the most common cause of pneumonia in adults.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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145
Q

occurs suddenly, with shaking chills (rigors), high fevers, chest pain with respirations, and shortness of breath.

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

146
Q

also the most common cause of otitis media (middle ear infection) in children and the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

147
Q

nuchal rigidity (a stiff neck) is usually present in an adult

A

meningitis

148
Q

forever underfoot, crawling all over hospitals and living in the nasopharynx and skin of up to 50% of people.

A

Staphylococci

149
Q

catalase-positive, thus explaining the cats in the group photo.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

150
Q

can be differentiated from the other beta-hemolytic cocci by their elaboration of a golden pigment when cultured on sheep blood agar

A

Staphylococcus aureus

151
Q

All staphylococci have the enzyme catalase

A

Catalase test

152
Q

Staphylococcus aureus and certain streptococci are beta-hemolytic (completely hemolyze
red blood cells on an agar plate), but Staphylococcus aureus can be differentiated from the other beta-hemolytic cocci by their elaboration of a golden pigment on sheep blood agar.

A

Culture

153
Q

This protein has sites that bind the Fc portion of IgG. This may protect the organism from opsonization and phagocytosis

A

Protein A

154
Q

This enzyme can lead to fibrin formation around the bacteria, protecting it from phagocytosis

A

Coagulase

155
Q

Alpha, beta, gamma, and delta. They destroy red blood cells, neutrophils, macrophages, and platelets.

A

Hemolysins

156
Q

They destroy leukocytes (white blood cells).

A

Leukocidins

157
Q

This is a secreted form of betalactamase. It disrupts the beta-lactam portion of the penicillin molecule, thereby inactivating the antibiotic

A

Penicillinase

158
Q

This protein, also called transpeptidase, is necessary for cell wall peptidoglycan formation and is inhibited by penicillin.

A

Novel penicillin binding protein

159
Q

(“Spreading Factor”): This protein breaks down proteoglycans in connective tissue.

A

Hyaluronidase

160
Q

This protein lyses formed fibrin clots (like streptokinase).

A

Staphylokinase

161
Q

This enzyme degrades fats and oils, which often accumulate on the surface of our body. This degradation facilitates Staphylococcus aureus’ colonization of sebaceous glands

A

Lipase

162
Q

destroys tissue proteins

A

Protease

163
Q

A diffusible exotoxin that causes the skin to slough off (scalded skin syndrome).

A

Exfoliatin

164
Q

Exotoxins which cause food poisoning, resulting in vomiting and diarrhea

A

Enterotoxins

165
Q

This exotoxin is analogous to the pyrogenic toxin produced by Lancefield group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, but is far more deadly.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome toxin

166
Q

Staphylococci can grow in food and produce an exotoxin. The victim will then eat the food containing the pre-formed toxin, which then stimulates peristalsis of the intestine with ensuing nausea vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and occasionally fever. The episode lasts 12 to 24 hours.

A

Gastroenteritis

167
Q

This disease is similar in pathogenesis to toxic shock syndrome.

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

168
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is a rare but severe cause of community-acquired bacterial pneumonia.

A

Pneumonia

169
Q

These patients can present with high fever, stiff neck, headache, obtundation, coma, and focal neurologic signs.

A

Meningitis, Cerebritis, Brain Abscess

170
Q

This is a bone infection that usually occurs in boys under 12 years of age.

A

Osteomyelitis

171
Q

This is a violent destructive infection of the heart valves with the sudden onset of high fever (103-105 F°), chills, and myalgias (like a bad flu)

A

Acute Endocarditis

172
Q

Patients complain of an acutely painful red swollen joint with decreased range of motion

A

Septic Arthritis

173
Q

caused by staphylococci or streptococci usually follow a major or minor break in the skin, with scratching of the site spreading the infection

A

Skin infections

174
Q

This contagious infection usually occurs on the face, especially around the mouth. Small
vesicles lead to pustules, which crust over to become honey-colored, wet, and flaky

A

Impetigo

175
Q

This is a deeper infection of the cells. The tissue becomes hot, red, shiny and swollen

A

Cellulitis

176
Q

is a collection of pus.

A

abscess

177
Q

These may bore through to produce multiple contiguous, painful lesions communicating under the skin

A

carbuncles

178
Q

When a sutured post-surgical wound becomes infected, it must be reopened and often
left open to heal by secondary intention (from the bottom of the wound outward).

A

Wound infections

179
Q

can migrate from the skin and colonize central venous catheters resulting in bacteremia, sepsis,
and septic shock

A

Blood and catheter infections: Staphylococcus aureus

180
Q

a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that has acquired multi-drug resistance, even against methicillin and nafcillin.

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

181
Q

is one of the few antibiotics useful in treating infections caused by MRSA, although organisms resistant even to vancomycin have been reported in the U.S. and Japan

A

Vancomycin

182
Q

This organism is part of our normal bacterial flora and is widely found on the body.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

183
Q

is a frequent skin contaminant of blood cultures.

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

184
Q

This organism is a leading cause (second only to E. coli) of urinary tract infections in sexually active young women.

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

185
Q

It is most commonly acquired by females (95%) in the community (NOT in the hospital). This organism
is coagulase-negative.

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

186
Q

causes gastroenteritis (food poisoning).

A

Bacillus cereus

187
Q

causes the disease anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

188
Q

This capsule prevents phagocytosis. causes anthrax, a disease that primarily affects herbivores (cows and sheep)

A

Bacillus anthracis

189
Q

This is the active A subunit of this exotoxin and is a calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase.

A

Edema factor (EF)

190
Q

promotes entry of EF into phagocytic cells (similar to a B subunit of the other A-B toxins,

A

Protective antigen (PA)

191
Q

a zinc metalloprotease that inactivates protein kinase

A

Lethal factor

192
Q

This toxin stimulates the macrophage to release tumor necrosis factor a and interleukin-1

A

Lethal factor

193
Q

encodes three genes necessary for the synthesis of a poly-glutamyl capsule.

A

A second plasmid, pXO2

194
Q

causes food poisoning (nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea).

A

Bacillus cereus

195
Q

similar to the enterotoxin of cholera and the LT from Escherichia coli (causes nausea, abdominal pain and diarrhea, lasting 12-24 hours.

A

A heat-labile toxin

196
Q

produces a clinical syndrome similar to that of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning,
with a short incubation period followed by severe nausea and vomiting, with limited diarrhea.

A

heat-stable toxin

197
Q

also gram-positive spore-forming rods. However, they are anaerobic, and can therefore
be separated from the aerobic spore-forming rods

A

Clostridium

198
Q

produces an extremely lethal neurotoxin that causes a rapidly fatal food poisoning.

A

Clostridium botulinum

199
Q

Eating smoked fish or home-canned vegetables is associated with the transmission of botulism.

A

Adult Botulism

200
Q

spores float in the air and can land on food.

A

Clostridium botulinum

201
Q

occurs when infants ingest food contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores (cases have followed ingestion of fresh honey contaminated with spore)

A

Infant Botulism

202
Q

causes tetanus, a disease that classically follows a puncture wound by a rusty nail but
can follow skin trauma by any object contaminated with spores

A

Clostridium tetani

203
Q

Clostridium tetani releases its exotoxin,

A

tetanospasmin

204
Q

The tetanus toxin ultimately causes a sustained contraction of skeletal muscles

A

tetany

205
Q

Clinically, the patient with tetanus presents with severe muscle spasms, especially in the muscles of the jaw (lockjaw)

A

trismus

206
Q

The affected patient exhibits a grotesque grinning expression,

A

sardonicus

207
Q

Necrotic skin which grows and damages local tissue.

A

Clostridium perfringens

208
Q

Palpation reveals a moist, spongy, crackling consistency to the skin due to pockets of gas;

A

crepitus

209
Q

These anaerobic bacteria release other enzymes that ferment carbohydrates, resulting in gas formation.

A

Clostridial myonecrosis

210
Q

is the pathogen responsible for antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (diarrhea), which can follow the use of broad spectrum antibiotics (such as ampicillin, clindamycin, and the cephalosporins)

A

Clostridium difficile

211
Q

Examination by colonoscopy can reveal red inflamed mucosa and areas of white exudate on the surface of the large intestine

A

pseudomembranes

212
Q

The diphtheria antitoxin only inactivates circulating toxin, which has not yet reached its target tissue, so this must be administered quickly to prevent damage to the heart and nervous system

A

Antitoxin

213
Q

Either antibiotic will kill the bacteria, preventing further exotoxin release and rendering the patient non-contagious

A

Penicillin or erythromycin

214
Q

as infection by Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not always result in immunity to future infection by this organism

A

DPT vaccine

215
Q

a gram positive motile rod, actually has endotoxin!

A

LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES

216
Q

shaped like a kidney bean, and a pair of cocci sticks together with their
concave sides facing each other, almost making the diplococcus look like a small doughnut

A

coccus

217
Q

It’s time to examine the only pathogenic gram-negative

cocci,

A

Neisseria

218
Q

These guys hang out in pairs and are thus

A

diplococci

219
Q

drinks a pot of coffee and becomes very nervous and irritable (central nervous system irritation-meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis

220
Q

who is a pervert (notice how he is displaying the latest center-fold pin-up). He
enjoys hanging out on sexual organs and swimming in “sexual fluids.”

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

221
Q

causes life threatening sepsis

A

meningococcus

222
Q

A polysaccharide capsule surrounds the bacterium and is antiphagocytic, as long as there are no
specific antibodies to coat (opsonize) the bacterium.

A

Capsule

223
Q

The meningococci can release blebs of endotoxin, which causes blood vessel destruction (hemorrhage) and sepsis.

A

Endotoxin (LPS)

224
Q

The blood vessel hemorrhage is seen on the skin as tiny, round, red dots of hemorrhage

A

petechiae

225
Q

This is only found in pathogenic species of Neisseria. This enzyme cleaves IgA (a type of
antibody) in half.

A

IgA1 protease

226
Q

can extract iron from human transferrin via a non-energy requiring mechanism

A

Neisseria meningitidis

227
Q

spreads via respiratory secretions and usually lives asymptomatically in the
nasopharynx

A

Neisseria meningitidis

228
Q

This is septic shock. Bilateral hemorrhage into the adrenal glands occurs, which causes adrenal insufficiency.

A

Fulminant meningococcemia (WaterhouseFriderichsen syndrome)

229
Q

This is the most common form of meningococcal disease, usually striking infants < 1
year of age.

A

Meningitis

230
Q

The classic medium for culturing Neisseria

A

Thayer-Martin VCN media

231
Q

This is chocolate agar with antibiotics, which are included to kill competing bacteria.

A

Thayer-Martin VCN media

232
Q

eliminates fungi

A

nystatin

233
Q

which kills all gram-negative organisms (except Neisseria).

A

colistin (polymyxin)

234
Q

which kills gram-positive organisms.

A

vancomycin

235
Q

required at the first indication of disseminated meningococcemia

A

penicillin G or ceftriaxone

236
Q

Close contacts of an infected patient are treated with

A

rifampin

237
Q

causes the second most commonly transmitted sexual disease

A

NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE

238
Q

A gonococcal infection of the cervix can progress to

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

239
Q

infection of the uterus

A

endometritis

240
Q

infection of fallopian tubes

A

salpingitis

241
Q

infection of ovaries

A

oophoritis

242
Q

most commonly caused by scarring of the fallopian tubes, which occludes the lumen and prevents sperm from reaching the ovulated egg

A

Sterility

243
Q

the most common site for an ectopic pregnancy

A

fallopian tubes

244
Q

The risk of a fetus developing at a site other than the uterus is significantly increased with previous fallopian tube inflammation (salpingitis).

A

Ectopic pregnancy

245
Q

may develop in the fallopian tubes, ovaries, or peritoneum

A

Abscesses

246
Q

Bacteria may spread from ovaries and fallopian tubes to infect the peritoneal fluid .

A

Peritonitis

247
Q

This is an infection by Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the capsule that surrounds the liver

A

Peri-hepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)

248
Q

A patient will complain of right upper quadrant pain and tenderness

A

Peri-hepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)

249
Q

can invade the bloodstream. Manifestations include fever, joint pains, and skin lesions (which usually erupt on the extremities).

A

Gonococcal bacteremia:

250
Q

Acute onset of fever occurs along with pain and swelling of 1 or 2 joints. W

A

Septic arthritis

251
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be transmitted from a pregnant woman to her child during delivery, resulting in __________.

A

ophthalmia neonatorum

252
Q

eye drops, which are effective against both Nisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia, are given to all
newborns

A

erythromycin

253
Q

This organism is part of the normal respiratory flora but can cause otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, and
pneumonia (all respiratory tract illnesses)

A

BRANHAMELLA CATARRHALIS

254
Q

are gram-negative bacteria that are part of the normal intestinal flora or cause gastrointestinal disease.

A

enterics

255
Q

Methylene blue inhibits gram-positive bacteria, and colonies of lactose fermenters become deep purple to black in this medium

A

EMB agar

256
Q

Bile salts in the medium inhibit gram-positive bacteria, and lactose fermenters develop a pink-purple coloration.

A

MacConkey agar

257
Q

A classic method for determining whether water has been contaminated with feces demonstrates some of the practical uses of biochemical reactions and some important properties of Escherichia coli

A

Fecal Contamination of Water

258
Q

You add the river water samples to test tubes containing nutrient broth (like agar)
that contains lactose

A

Presumptive Test

259
Q

Streak EMB agar plates with the water samples, and the Escherichia coli should form colonies with a metallic green sheen

A

Confirmed Test

260
Q

Colonies that were metallic green are placed in the broth again

A

Completed Test

261
Q

This is the most external component of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of gram-negative bacteria.

A

0 antigen

262
Q

This is a capsule that covers the 0 antigen

A

K antigen

263
Q

This antigenic determinant makes up the subunits of the bacterial flagella, so only bacteria
that are motile will possess this antigen. Shigella does not have an H antigen. Salmonella has H antigens that change periodically, protecting it from our antibodies.

A

H antigen

264
Q

Diarrhea is caused by the release of exotoxins

A

enterotoxins in the GI tract

265
Q

The bacteria bind to the intestinal epithelial cells but do not enter the cell

A

No cell invasion

266
Q

The bacteria have virulence factors that allow binding and invasion into cells

A

Invasion of the intestinal epithelial cells

267
Q

Along with abdominal pain and diarrhea containing white and red cells, this deeper invasion results
in systemic symptoms of fever, headache, and white blood cell count elevation

A

Invasion of the lymph nodes and bloodstream

268
Q

normally resides in the colon without causing disease

A

Escherichia coli

269
Q

travelers’ diarrhea

A

Montezuma’s revenge

270
Q

This Escherichia coli causes traveler’s diarrhea

A

Enterotoxig enic Escherichia coli

271
Q

These Escherichia coli also have a pili colonization factor like the ETEC but differ in that they secrete
the powerful Shiga-like toxin ( also called verotoxin) that has the same mechanism of action as the Shigella toxin

A

Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC):

272
Q

with anemia, thrombocytopenia (decrease in platelets), and renal failure (thus uremia), is associated with infection by a strain of EHEC

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

273
Q

This disease is the same as that caused by Shigella

A

Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

274
Q

The acquisition of a pili virulence factor allows Escherichia coli to travel up the urethra and infect the
bladder (cystitis) and sometimes move further up to infect the kidney itself (pyelonephritis).

A

Escherichia coli Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)

275
Q

the second most common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

Escherichia coli meningitis

276
Q

the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis.

A

Escherichia coli sepsis

277
Q

a common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia

A

Escherichia coli Pneumonia

278
Q

This organism is very motile. In fact, when you smear the bacteria on a plate it will grow not as distinct round colonies, but rather as a confluence of colonies as the bacteria rapidly move and cover the plate

A

Proteus mirabilis

279
Q

another common cause of urinary tract infections and hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infections.

A

Proteus

280
Q

This highly motile gram-negative rod is part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract.

A

Enterobacter

281
Q

notable for its production of a bright red pigment.

A

Serratia

282
Q

This is the same toxin as in EHEC and EIEC, and its mechanism is the same

A

Shiga Toxin

283
Q

a non-lactose fermenter, is motile (like a salmon), and produces H2S

A

Salmonella

284
Q

This is a polysaccharide capsule that surrounds the O antigen, thus protecting the bacteria from antibody attack on the O antigen

A

Salmonella’s Vi antigen

285
Q

This illness caused by Salmonella typhi

A

enteric fever

286
Q

caused by Salmonella typhi, depicted by a Salmon with fever (thermometer) and rose spots on its belly

A

Typhoid fever

287
Q

considered appropriate therapy of typhoid fever

A

Ciprofloxacin or ceftriaxone

288
Q

the most common type of Salmonella infection and can be caused by any of hundreds of serotypes of Salmonella enteritidis

A

Salmonella diarrhea

289
Q

This motile gram-negative rod is another cause of acute gastroenteritis

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

290
Q

This organism can secrete an enterotoxin, very similar to the heat-stable enterotoxin of Escherichia coli, that causes diarrhea.

A

Enterotoxin

291
Q

Like Salmonella typhi, this organism possesses virulence factors that allow binding to the intestinal wall and systemic invasion into regional lymph nodes and the bloodstream

A

Invasion

292
Q

can survive and grow in the cold.

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

293
Q

the diarrheal disease caused by Vibrio cholera

A

Cholera

294
Q

curved gram-negative rod with a single polar flagellum.

A

Vibrio cholera

295
Q

The bacteria attach to the epithelial cells and release the cholera toxin, which is called

A

choleragen

296
Q

Physical findings such as diminished pulses, sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor will develop with severe dehydration.

A

Cholera causes death by dehydration

297
Q

This organism is a marine bacterium that causes gastroenteritis after ingestion of uncooked seafood (sushi). This organism is the leading cause of diarrhea in Japan.

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

298
Q

(Camping bacteria in the jejunum with nothing better to do than cause diarrhea.

A

Campylobacter jejuni

299
Q

This organism is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis (inflamed stomach)

A

Helicobacter pylori

300
Q

You are going to hear so much about this bug while working in the hospital that you will wish the Lord had never conjured it up.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

301
Q

It also produces a sweet grape-like scent, so wound dressings and agar plates are often sniffed for organism identification.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

302
Q

carries an extremely high mortality rate

A

Pseudomonas sepsis

303
Q

rapidly becoming an important pathogen, infecting hospitalized patients (burn and cystic fibrosis patients) in a similar manner

A

Pseudomonas cepacia

304
Q

This bacterium is notable for being one of the few gram-negative bacteria that does not contain lipid

A

Bacteroides fragilis

305
Q

This organism produces a black pigment when grown on blood agar.

A

Bacteroides melaninogenicus

306
Q

It lives in the mouth, vagina, and intestine, and is usually involved in necrotizing anaerobic pneumonias caused by aspiration of lots of sputum from the mouth

A

melaninogenicus

307
Q

This bacterium is just like Bacteroides melaninogenicus in that it also causes periodontal disease and aspiration pneumonias.

A

Fusobacterium

308
Q

are gram-positive anaerobes that are part of the normal flora of the mouth, vagina, and intestine

A

Peptostreptococcus (strip or chain of cocci) and Peptococcus (cluster of cocci)

309
Q

means “blood loving.” This organism requires a blood-containing medium for growth

A

Haemophilus

310
Q

This bacterium often attacks the lungs of persons debilitated by a viral influenza infection

A

influenzae

311
Q

an obligate human parasite that is transmitted via the respiratory route

A

Haemophilus influenzae

312
Q

This is the most serious infectioncaused by encapsulated Haemophilus influenzae type b. Prior to the introduction of vaccination of U.S. children in 1991

A

Meningitis

313
Q

Haemophilus influenzae type b can also cause rapid swelling of the epiglottis, obstructing the respiratory tract and esophagus

A

Acute epiglottitis

314
Q

can be used for less serious infections, such as otitis media.

A

Ampicillin or amoxicillin

315
Q

The key to controlling this organism is to stimulate the early generation of protective antibodies in young children

A

Hib capsule vaccine

316
Q

This species is responsible for the sexually transmitted disease chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

317
Q

Treat chancroid

A

erythromycin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

318
Q

This organism causes bacterial vaginitis in conjunction with anaerobic vaginal bacteria

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

319
Q

Women with vaginitis develop burning or pruritis (itching) of the labia, burning on urination (dysuria), and a copious, foul-smelling vaginal discharge that has a fishy odor.

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

320
Q

Treat this infection (Gardnerella vaginalis)

A

metronidazole

321
Q

it was discovered in the early 1900’s by two scientists named Bordet and Gengou. It
seems that Bordet got the better end of the deal.

A

Bordetella

322
Q

means “violent cough.”

A

Pertussis

323
Q

a violently militant critte with a (gram) negative attitude

A

Bordetella pertussis

324
Q

This toxin destroys the ciliated epithelial cells, resulting in impaired clearance of
bacteria, mucus, and inflammatory exudate. This toxin is probably responsible for the violent cough.

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

325
Q

It attaches to ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchi and then releases its damaging exotoxins

A

Filamentous hemagglutinin

326
Q

They are swallowed by host neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes. The internalized adenylate cyclase then synthesizes the messenger cAMP, resulting in impaired chemotaxis and impaired generation of H2O2 and superoxide

A

Extra cytoplasmic adenylate cyclase

327
Q

Like many bacterial exotoxins this toxin has a B subunit that Binds to target cell receptors, “unlocks” the cell, allowing entry of the A subunit

A

Pertussis toxin

328
Q

This stage lasts from 1-2 weeks and is similar to an upper respiratory tract infection, with low-grade fevers, runny nose, sneezing, and mild cough

A

Catarrhal stage

329
Q

The fever subsides and the infected individual develops characteristic bursts of
nonproductive cough.

A

Paroxysmal stage

330
Q

The attacks become less frequent over a month, and the patient is no longer contagious

A

Convalescent stage

331
Q

The swab is then wiped on a special culture medium with potato, blood, and glycerol agar.

A

Bordet-Gengou medium

332
Q

This organism is ubiquitous in natural and manmade water environments

A

Legionella pneumophila

333
Q

an aerobic gram-negative rod that is famous for causing an outbreak of pneumonia at an American Legion convention in Philadelphia in 1976 (thus its name)

A

Legionella pneumophila

334
Q

this organism is a facultative intracellular parasite that settles in the lower respiratory tract and is gobbled up by macrophages

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

335
Q

responsible for diseases ranging from asymptomatic infection and a flulike illness

A

Legionella

336
Q

severe pneumonia

A

Legionnaires’ disease

337
Q

a flulike illness

A

Pontiac fever

338
Q

Like influenza, this disease involves headache, muscle aches, and fatigue, followed
by fever and chills

A

Pontiac fever

339
Q

Patients develop very high fevers and a severe pneumonia.

A

Legionnaires’ disease

340
Q

one of the most common causes of community acquired pneumonia and is estimated to be diagnosed correctly in only 3% of cases.

A

Legionella pneumophila

341
Q

Treat for Legionella pneumophila

A

erythromycin

342
Q

The organism now resides in squirrels and prairie dogs of the southwestern U. S.

A

Yersinia pestis

343
Q

heard of bubonic plague and that rats were somehow involved

A

Yersinia pestis

344
Q

This capsular antigen has antiphagocytic properties.

A

Fraction 1

345
Q

These antigens, which are a protein and lipoprotein respectively, are unique to the
Yersinia genus. Their actions are unknown

A

V and W antigens

346
Q

a gram-negative bacterium with a bipolar staining pattern

A

Yersinia pestis

347
Q

a disease that resembles bubonic plague so closely that it is always included in the differential diagnosis when considering bubonic plague

A

Francisella tularensi

348
Q

This disease is most commonly acquired from handling infected rabbits and from the bites of ticks and deerflies.

A

Francisella tularensi

349
Q

Following the bite of a tick or deerfly, or contact with a wild rabbit, a welldemarcated hole in the skin with a black base develops

A

Ulceroglandular tularemia

350
Q

Aerosolization of bacteria during skinning and evisceration of an infected
rabbit or hematogenous spread from the skin

A

Pneumonic tularemia

351
Q

Humans acquire from direct contact with infected animal meat or aborted placentas, or ingestion of infected milk products

A

Brucella

352
Q

(goats)

A

Brucella melitensis

353
Q

(causes abortions in cows)

A

Brucella abortus

354
Q

(pigs)

A

Brucella suis

355
Q

(dogs)

A

• Brucella canis

356
Q

The slow rise in temperature during the day, declining at night. These symptoms can last from months to years, but fortunately the disease is rarely fatal

A

undulant fever

357
Q

This organism is a gram-negative zoonotic organism

A

Pasteurella multocida

358
Q

This bacterium colonizes the mouths of cats much in the same way that Streptococcus viridans colonizes the human nasopharynx.

A

Pasteurella multocida

359
Q

This bacterium causes the most frequent wound infection following a cat or dog bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

360
Q

extremely tiny. It is classified as gramnegative because it stains red with Gram stain technique and has an inner and outer membrane.

A

Chlamydia