Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GEAS > REM A LVL 3 > Flashcards

REM A LVL 3 Flashcards

1
Q

It explains combustion as a result of
loss of a substance.

A. Reduction
B. Phlogiston
C. Roasting
D. Roasting

A

B. Phlogiston

The phlogiston theory is a superseded
scientific theory that postulated the
existence of a fire-like element called
phlogiston contained within
combustible bodies and released during
combustion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What refers to the amount of heat
released by one mole of a substance
when it changes from liquid to solid?

A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat of fission
C. Molar heat of solidification
D. Molar heat of fusion

A

D. Molar heat of fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What refers to the amount of heat
required by one mole of a substance to
change from liquid to gas?

A. Molar heat of vaporization
B. Molar heat fusion
C. Molar heat of fission
D. Molar heat of solidification

A

A. Molar heat of vaporization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The best arrangement of a given
number of shared and unshared
electrons is the one that minimizes the repulsion among them?. This is known as

A. molecular polarity theory
B. valence bond theory
C. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

A

C. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the distance between the nuclei
of two bonded atoms called?

A. Atomic distance
B. Molecular length
C. Bond length
D. Atomic radius

A

C. Bond length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What principle states that no two
electrons in the same atom can have
the same set of four quantum numbers?

A. Kinetic molecular theory
B. Pauli exclusion principle
C. Autbau principle
D. Uncertainty principle

A

B. Pauli exclusion principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What principle states that the electrons
fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting
with the lowest orbital then proceeding
to the one with higher energy?

A. Uncertainty principle
B. Kinetic molecular theory
C. Aufbau principle
D. Pauli exclusion principle

A

C. Aufbau principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is an example of
Bottom Up approach?

A. Etching
B. Milling
C. Attrition
D. Colloidal dispersion

A

D. Colloidal dispersion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

__states that in the addition of
polar reagents to alkenes, the positive
portion of the reagents adds to the
carbon atom in the double bond that
already has the most hydrogen atoms.

A. Le Chatelier’s principle
B. Lock-and-key theory
C. Markovnikou’s rule

A

C. Markovnikou’s rule

Markovnikov’s rule states that in an
addition reaction of a protic acid HX
(hydrogen chloride, hydrogen bromide,
or hydrogen iodide) to an alkene or
alkyne, the hydrogen atom of HX
becomes bonded to the carbon atom
that had the greatest number of
hydrogen atoms in the starting alkene or
alkyne.

Le Chatelier’s principle (also known as
“Chatelier’s principle” or “The
Equilibrium Law”) states that when a
system experiences a disturbance (such
as concentration, temperature, or
pressure changes), it will respond to
restore a new equilibrium state.

Pauli’s Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have identical values for all four of their quantum numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is tiny cylinders only a few
nanometers in diameter that are
constructed of rolled sheets of a
graphite-like array of atoms. Carbon and
boron nitride are the most extensively
studied.

A. Nanotubes
B. Quantum Dots
C. Nanocrystal
D. Nanosheets

A

A. Nanotubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What refers to the forces of attraction
that exist between molecules in a
compound?

A. Induction forces
B. Interaction forces
C. Dispersion forces
D. Intermolecular forces

A

D. Intermolecular forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The four types of Artificial
nanomaterials are_
A. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers
B. Carbon-based, metallic, composites and
ceramics
C. Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites
and ceramics

A

A. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Particles of ZrO2, Y202 and Nano
whiskers have been produced by

A. Sol-gel
B. CVC
C. Plasma spraying
D. Laser pyrolysis

A

B. CVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In this approach, porous membranes of
polymers such as polycarbonates or
ceramics such as alumina are prepared,then placed into a solution of a salt. The metal cation of the salt is reduced
electrochemically and the metal plates
onto the insides of the pores in the
membranes. The membrane in then
removed or dissolved away, leaving the
nanotubes.

A. Vapor-phase synthesis
B. Molecular beam epitaxy
C. Molecular self-assembly

A

A. Vapor-phase synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are chlorofluorocarbons so
damaging to the ozone layer when they
are such stable molecules?

A. They contain a double bond that ozone
readily attacks, resulting in the destruction
of the ozone.
B. The radiation in the stratosphere
dissociates them producing chlorine
atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.
C. They are greenhouse gases that raise the
temperature above the dissociation
temperature of ozone.
D. They are very light molecules that rapidly
diffuse into the upper atmosphere and
block the radiation that causes formation
of ozone

A

B. The radiation in the stratosphere
dissociates them producing chlorine
atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does ozone not form in high
concentrations in the atmosphere above
50 km?

A. Light of the required wavelength is not
available at those altitudes.
B. Insufficient molecules exist for removal
of excess energy from ozone upon its
formation.
C. Atomic oxygen concentration is too low at
high altitudes.
D. Insufficient oxygen is available.

A

B. Insufficient molecules exist for removal
of excess energy from ozone upon its
formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A diatomic quantum mechanical rotator in the L = 1 quantum state has energy E.The same rotator in the L = 2 quantum
state will have energy

A. 2E.
B. 3E.
C. 6E.

A

B. 3E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why does the upper atmosphere contain only very little dissociated nitrogen?

A. most of the nitrogen is in the troposphere
and not in the upper atmosphere
B. the bond energy of nitrogen is very high
and it does not absorb radiation very
efficiently
C. nitrogen atoms are extremely reactive and
so react with other substances
immediately upon their formation
D. the dissociated nitrogen very rapidly
diffuses out of the atmosphere and into
space

A

B. the bond energy of nitrogen is very high
and it does not absorb radiation very
efficiently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The primary detrimental effect of the
presence of large amounts of
biodegradable organic materials in
water is

A. it causes death of bottom dwelling
organisms because it agglutinates and settles to the bottom, poisoning bottom dwelling organisms
B. it causes oxygen depletion in the water
C. it rises to the surface and absorbs
wavelengths needed by aquatic plants
D. it decomposes endothermically causing the temperature of the water to decrease
below the limits within which most aquatic
organisms can live

A

B. it causes oxygen depletion in the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In its lowest quantum state, the energy
of a diatomic harmonic oscillator is

A. (1/4)hf.
B. (3/2)hf.
C. (1/2)hf.

A

C. (1/2)hf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

One of having the same elastic
properties in all directions at any one
point of the body

A. Isotropic
B. Anisotropic
C. Monotropic

A

A. Isotropic

Isotropic materials have identical
material properties in all directions at
every given point. This means that when a specific load is applied at any point in the x, y or z-axis, isotropic materials will exhibit the same strength, stress, strain,young’s modulus and hardness.

Anisotropic materials, also known as
“triclinic” materials, are direction-
dependent mediums that are made up of unsymmetrical crystalline structures.In other words, the mechanical
properties of anisotropic materials
depend on the orientation of the
material’s body.

Orthotropic materials are a subset of anisotropic materials; their properties depend on the direction in which they are measured. Orthotropic materials have three planes/axes of symmetry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The overall shape of a molecule is
described by which two properties?

A. Bond distance and bond angle
B. Bond angle and bond size
C. Bond radius and bond angle

A

A. Bond distance and bond angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The property of some crystals of
absorbing light difference extents,
thereby giving to the crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as

A. diastrophism
B. chromaticity
C. Dichroism

A

C. Dichroism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In screw dislocation, the Burger’s vector
lies _to the dislocation line.

A. Parallel
B. At an angle
C. Sideways
D. Perpendicular

A

A. Parallel

The Burger’s vector in screw dislocation lies parallel to the dislocation line along the axis of a line of atoms in the same plane. On the other hand, it lies at an angle for edge dislocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Material that does not possess any kind
of elastic symmetry

A. Isotropic
B. Monotropic
C. Orthotropic
D. Anisotropic

A

D. Anisotropic

Isotropic materials have identical
material properties in all directions at
every given point. This means that when a specific load is applied at any point in the x, y or z-axis, isotropic materials will exhibit the same strength, stress, strain,young’s modulus and hardness.

Anisotropic materials, also known as
“triclinic” materials, are direction-
dependent mediums that are made up of unsymmetrical crystalline structures.In other words, the mechanical
properties of anisotropic materials
depend on the orientation of the
material’s body.

Orthotropic materials are a subset of anisotropic materials; their properties depend on the direction in which they are measured. Orthotropic materials have three planes/axes of symmetry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Some polymetric materials such as
epoxies are formed by strong primary
chemical bonds called_.

A. Metallic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Cross linking

A

C. Cross linking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the result of full annealing of
hypoeutectoid steels?

A. Coarse pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Cementite

A

A. Coarse pearlite

Hypoeutectoid steels are heated above
the A3 line and then cooled in the
furnace. Then it removed from the
furnace and then cooled at room
temperature. This results in coarse
pearlite with excess ferrite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which steels are generally used for making connecting rods and gear shafts?

A. High carbon steels
B. Stainless steels
C. Medium carbon steels
D. Low carbon steels

A

C. Medium carbon steels

Connecting rods and gear shafts are
commonly made using medium carbon
steels containing 0.35% to 0.45%
carbon. They possess a tensile strength of 750 N/mm2. This gives the required strength and hardness to the parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Some structural members subjected to
long time sustained loads deform
progressively with time especially at
elevated temperatures. What is such a
phenomenon called?

A. Fatigue
B. Creep relaxation
C. Creep

A

C. Creep

Creep is the deformation progressively
with time. It comes when the body is
subjected to long time load. After the
instant deflection due to load the
deformation occurs slowly with time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a structural member supported
horizontally and carries transverse
loading?

A. Beam
B. Column
C. Arch

A

A. Beam

A beam is a horizontal structural
element which withstands vertical
loads. Its mode of deflection is primarily
by bending.

Column is a vertical structural member
that carries loads mainly in
compression. Columns are frequently used to support beams or arches on which the upper parts of walls or ceilings rest.

A shaft is a rotating machine element,usually circular in cross section, which is used to transmit power from one part to another, or from a machine which
produces power to a machine which
absorbs power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What mechanical property of a material
which is a time-dependent permanent
strain under stress?

A. Elasticity
B. Rupture
C. Elongation
D. Creep

A

D. Creep

Creep (sometimes called cold flow) is
the tendency of a solid material to move slowly or deform permanently under the influence of persistent mechanical stresses. Creep is a mechanical property of a material which is a time- dependent permanent strain under
stress.

Elongation is a measure of deformation that occurs before a material eventually breaks when subjected to a tensile load.

Elasticity is the ability of a body to resist a distorting influence and to return to its original size and shape when that
influence or force is removed.

Rupture is the sudden and complete
failure of a material under stress.

32
Q

What dimensional property refers to the
direction of a predominating surface
pattern?

A. Out of flat
B. Camber
C. Roughness
D. Lay

A

D. Lay

33
Q

Which of the following polymer additive
is used to remove parts from molds?

A. Reinforcements
B. Lubricants
C. Plasticizers
D. Stabilizers

A

B. Lubricants

Lubricants are used to remove parts
from molds, make surfaces slippery,
and prevent them from sticking to each
other. They are also known as slip
agents. Common lubricant additives are
silicone, waxes, fatty acid amides,
glycerides, petrolatum etc.

34
Q

Which of the following is true for the
resultant polymer product formed, when
molecules of pthalic acid react with
molecules of glycerol?

A. None of these choices
B. Cross-link polymer
C. Linear polymer
D. Branch polymer

A

B. Cross-link polymer

35
Q

Which of the following have a greater
impact on longitudinal strength of
reinforced composites?

A. Fiber strength
B. Fiber length
C. Fiber diameter
D. Fiber orientation

A

A. Fiber strength

36
Q

What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?

A. Metal lattices
B. Metalloids
C. Metal Matrix composites

A

C. Metal Matrix composites

37
Q

Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?

A. Orthotropic material: different properties in
three perpendicular directions
B. Strain hardening material: stiffening effect
felt at some stage
C. Visco-elastic: small plastic zone
D. Isotropic material: same physical property
in all directions at a point

A

C. Visco-elastic: small plastic zone

Visco-elastic material exhibit a mixture
of creep and elastic after effects at
room temperature. Thus their behavior
is time dependent. Materials with
different properties in different
directions are called anisotropic.
Orthotropic material is a special case of an anisotropic material in three mutually perpendicular directions. However,
these are symmetric about any axis.

38
Q

What effect do thermal variations in
volume have on a body?

A. Cracking
B. Contraction
C. Phase transformation

A

A. Cracking

Cracking is the effect of thermal variation in the volume of a body.Expansion, contraction, and phase transformation are the ways in which these volume changes occur, i.e. they are causes, and not effects.

39
Q

Which of the following is a
characteristic of asbestos minerals?

A. Poor bonding
B. Heat resistance
C. Reacts with acids

A

B. Heat resistance

40
Q

Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes,Gunn diodes and injection lasers?

A. Silicon Carbide
B. Gallian Phosphide
C. Gallium Arsenide
D. Selenium

A

C. Gallium Arsenide

41
Q

When a body is resistant to heat, it is
called

A. Thermotropic
B. Thermoscopic
C. Thermoduric

A

C. Thermoduric

42
Q

If in a population, natality is balanced by
mortality, then there will be

A. Increase in population growth
B. Over population
C. Decrease in population growth
D. Zero population growth

A

D. Zero population growth

43
Q

The species restricted to be present in
one region are called

A. Endangered species
B. Edge species
C. Endemic species

A

C. Endemic species

44
Q

Which of the ecological pyramid is
always upright

A. Pyramid of numbers
B. Pyramid of biomass
C. Pyramid of energy

A

C. Pyramid of energy

45
Q

Which of the following can act as a
pioneer species in a xerach succession

A. Animals
B. Lichens
C. Humans
D. Herbs

A

B. Lichens

46
Q

Which are the two forces balanced by
the geostrophic wind?

A. Coriolis effect and pressure gradient
force
B. Frictional force and pressure gradient
force
C. Coriolis force and centrifugal force
D. Pressure gradient force and centrifugal
force

A

A. Coriolis effect and pressure gradient
force

Geostrophic winds are those winds
which blow parallel to isobars when the
both the Coriolis force and pressure
gradient force are balanced.

47
Q

The stability of the stratosphere is due
to which of the following reasons?

A. Absorption of solar energy by ozone
layer
B. Pressure is minimal
C. Strong wind currents

A

A. Absorption of solar energy by ozone
layer

The ozone layer in the stratosphere
absorbs radiations (mainly UV) coming from the sun. This energy is the key to stratospheric stability.

48
Q

In which zone, decomposition of the
dead organism takes place?

A. Benthic zone
B. Littoral zone
C. Euphotic zone

A

A. Benthic zone

In Benthic zone, the dead organism
settled down where their decomposition
takes place by the bacteria.

49
Q

Which of the following statement is
wrong regarding permanent hardness?

A. It is due to the presence of sulfates,
chlorides and nitrates of calcium and
magnesium
B. It requires special methods of water
softening to get removed
C. It is also called carbonate hardness
D. It cannot be removed by boiling

A

C. It is also called carbonate hardness

Permanent hardness is called non-
carbonate hardness whereas temporary
hardness is called carbonate hardness.

50
Q

Which is not a feature of heliophyte
among the following?

A. Stem with long internodes
B. Vigorous fruiting and flowering
C. Numerous rootlets
D. Long lateral roots

A

A. Stem with long internodes

Heliophytes are heat resistant plants They are adapted to an environment with high levels of insolation. Coarse,small leaves with hairy and waxy
protection against excessive solar
radiation and water loss are unique to
the plant. The leaves have a lot of
double palisade layers in their structure.

51
Q

Which of the following gases vary
significantly over time and place at the
atmospheric boundary level?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water vapour
C. Oxygen
D. Ozone

A

B. Water vapour

Water vapour varies based on time and place at the atmospheric boundary level due to the continuous action of evaporation and condensation near water bodies.

52
Q

What is E-waste?

A. All the files which are not used on
computers or all over the internet are
known as E-waste.
B. All junk electronics, television sets,computers, monitors refrigerators,chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste
C. None of these choices

A

B. All junk electronics, television sets,computers, monitors refrigerators,chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste

All junk electronics, television sets,computers, monitors refrigerators,chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste.

53
Q

Greenhouse gases which is present in
very high quantity is

A. Ethane
B. Propane
C. Carbon dioxide

A

C. Carbon dioxide

54
Q

What is Photochemical smog?

A. Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic
compounds
B. Photochemical Smog is a harmful mixture
of smoke formed by incomplete
combustion of organic material
C. Photochemical Smog is liquid particles
and droplets formed by the condensation
of vapors

A

A. Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic
compounds

Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic
compounds.

55
Q

Which of the following is a source for
boron air pollution?

A. Rockets and jets
B. Soap industries
C. Automobiles

A

A. Rockets and jets

Borane is mixed with petroleum and
used as a fuel in rockets and jets which when combusted releases boron which causes air pollution.

56
Q

Gas molecules that absorb thermal infrared radiation and are present in large quantity to change the climate system are known as:

A. Greenhouse gases
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
D. Ozone gases

A

A. Greenhouse gases

57
Q

In disaster management to eliminate or reduce the probability of occurrence of a disaster or reduce the unavoidable
effects of the disaster is known as ___

A. Post-disaster stage
B. Emergency stage
C. Preparedness
D. Mitigation

A

D. Mitigation

In disaster management eliminating or reducing the probability of occurrence of a disaster or reducing the unavoidable effects of the disaster is
known as mitigation.

58
Q

Which of the following method is used
to control photochemical smog?

A. Incineration
B. Adsorption
C. All of these choices

A

C. All of these choices

Incineration, Absorption, Adsorption,and Condensation are the following method which is used to control photochemical smog.

59
Q

What does the method of “enhanced
weathering” infer?

A. None of these choices
B. It is a method of cloud seeding that is
done to reduce the contribution of clouds
to greenhouse effect
C. It is a method used to spray sulphate
aerosols to reduce the greenhouse effect

A

A. None of these choices

Enhanced weathering is a form of geoengineering where minerals are broken down to help remove CO2 from air.

60
Q

CPCB stands for

A. Control pollution control board
B. Control pollution central board
C. Central pollution control board

A

C. Central pollution control board

The Central Pollution Control Board(CPCB) was established in 1974. It provides technical services to the ministry of environment and forests. It
promotes the cleanliness of streams
and wells in different areas of the states
to prevent and control water pollution.

61
Q

What is the principle behind which
opacity monitors/transmissometers
work?

A. Change in capacitance for various
gaseous media, between two stationary
plates
B. Scattering of light transmitted through
a gas stream
C. Pressure exerted by a fixed volume of gas
enclosed in a container of specific
dimension

A

B. Scattering of light transmitted through
a gas stream

62
Q

In which process, excess lime is
converted into bicarbonate?

A. Liming
B. Re-carbonation
C. Super-chlorination
D. Chlorination

A

D. Chlorination

By Re-carbonation of water softened by
excess lime treatment, excess lime is
converted into bicarbonate.

63
Q

The depth of Euphotic zone is measured by

A. Calorimeter
B. Turbidity meter
C. Radar
D. Secchi disk

A

D. Secchi disk

The depth of Euphotic zone is measured by Secchi disk where it is put in the lake and the depth at which the disk
becomes invisible is taken as the depth
of Euphotic zone.

64
Q

Flocculation of iron from water by the
addition of lime is an example of which
of the following process?

A. Chemical coagulation
B. lon exchange
C. Chemical precipitation

A

C. Chemical precipitation

Chemical precipitation removes the
dissolved substance from water
through ion transfer where precipitation
of dissolved impurities takes place.

65
Q

In-site in-stack analysers are used for measuring concentrations of which of the following gases?

A. All of these choices
B. Nitrogen monoxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Ammonia

A

A. All of these choices

In-site in-stack analysers work on the
principle of second derivative
spectroscopy to measure
concentrations of ammonia, sulphur
dioxide and nitrogen monoxide.

66
Q

What is the indicator used in EDTA
method?

A. Potassium chloride
B. Potassium dichromate
C. Erio chrome, black T

A

C. Erio chrome, black T

Hardness is determined by using
Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid using Erio chrome, black T as indicator at a pH between 8.5 and 11.

67
Q

A formal organization of producers
within industry forming a perfect
collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel
B. Competitors
C. Corporation

A

A. Cartel

68
Q

What is the reason behind making a
provision for depreciation in accounts?

A. To purchase new assets
B. To show the current value of assets
C. To show current liabilities
D. To charge the cost of assets against
profits

A

D. To charge the cost of assets against
profits

69
Q

In a for-profit company, which of the
following statements could be true?

A. Profit reserves at the end of the year
will be greater than the profits returned
at the beginning of the year.
B. Profits kept at the end of the year will be
greater than shareholders’ shares.
C. Operating income will be less than annual
income.

A

A. Profit reserves at the end of the year
will be greater than the profits returned
at the beginning of the year.

70
Q

Which of the following techniques is not
commonly used in decisions under
certainty?

A. Profitability index (PI).
B. Internal rate of return (IRR).
C. Payback period.
D. Net present value (NPV).

A

C. Payback period.

The payback period is a technique
commonly used in decisions under
uncertainty or risk. It calculates the time
required for the cash inflows to equal
the initial investment. In decisions under
certainty, where future outcomes are
known, more comprehensive techniques like IRR, NPV, and Pl are commonly used to evaluate investment alternatives.

71
Q

In a decision under certainty, the net present value (NPV) of an investment project is calculated as the:

A. Ratio of the internal rate of return (IRR) to
the cost of capital.
B. Present value of cash inflows minus
the present value of cash outflows.
C. Difference between the initial investment
and the salvage value.

A

B. Present value of cash inflows minus
the present value of cash outflows.

In a decision under certainty, the net
present value (NPV) of an investment
project is determined by calculating the present value of expected cash inflows and subtracting the present value of
expected cash outflows. The NPV
represents the value added to the firm’s
wealth by the investment project.

72
Q

Which decision-making technique
involves ranking projects based on their
benefits and dividing them by their
respective costs to prioritize the most beneficial projects within a given budget constraint

A. Benefit-Cost Ratio
B. Net Present Value (NPV)
C. Payback Period Analysis
D. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

A

C. Payback Period Analysis

73
Q

In engineering economics, which
concept refers to the maximum amount one is willing to pay to obtain an asset or to undertake a project?

A. Marginal Cost
B. Break-Even Point
C. Willingness-to-Pay (WTP)

A

C. Willingness-to-Pay (WTP)

74
Q

In engineering economics, which
decision-making technique considers multiple objectives and uncertainties to generate a range of possible outcomes using a probabilistic approach?

A. Regression Analysis
B. Sensitivity Analysis
C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Regression Analysis

A

C. Decision Tree Analysis

75
Q

Which of the following is a measure of the dispersion of probability distribution,representing the average deviation of possible outcomes from the expected value?

A. Coefficient of Variation
B. Payback Period Analysis
C. Sensitivity Analysis

A

A. Coefficient of Variation

76
Q

Which method of evaluating investment decisions recognizes the time value of money by discounting all future cash flows to their present value?

A. Payback Period Analysis
B. Net Present Value (NPV)
C. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

A

B. Net Present Value (NPV)

77
Q

Which decision-making criterion uses a
cost-benefit analysis to evaluate
different alternatives by comparing the present value of benefits to the present value of costs?

A. Benefit-Cost Ratio
B. Sensitivity Analysis
C. Regression Analysis

A

A. Benefit-Cost Ratio

GEAS (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions