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GEAS > REM A LVL 1 > Flashcards

REM A LVL 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A ___ ∆H corresponds to an
___ process

A. negative, endothermic
B. positive, exothermic
C. negative, exothermic
D. positive, exothermic

A

C. negative, exothermic

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2
Q

A typical carbon atom has six neutrons and six protons in its nucleus. If one of the protons is taken out of the nucleus somehow but no other aspect of the atom changed, which of the following best describes the new atom?

A. it will be a positive carbon ion
B. it will be an atom of different element
C. it will be different isotope of carbon
D. it will be a negative carbon ion

A

B. it will be an atom of different element

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3
Q

Corrosion of iron is retarded by ___

A. high pH conditions
B. the presence of salts
C. both the presence of salts and high pH
conditions
D. the presence of pH

A

A. high pH conditions

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4
Q

A galvanic cell for which the reactants
are continuously supplied

A. Lead Storage
B. Thermophotovoltaic cell
C. Dry Cell
D. Fuel Cell

A

D. Fuel Cell

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5
Q

In a lead-acid battery, the electrodes are
consumed. In this battery,

A. the anode is Pb02.
B. the anode is PbS04.
C. the cathode is PbSO4
D. the cathode is Pb02.
E. the anode is Pb

A

E. the anode is Pb

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6
Q

The gain of electrons by an element is
called ___

A. fractionation
B. reduction
C. oxidation

A

B. reduction

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7
Q

The energy released by combustion of 1
g of a substance is called the ___
of the substance.

A. fuel value
B. nutritional calorie content
C. heat capacity

A

A. fuel value

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8
Q

“When the elements are arranged in the
order of increasing atomic number,
elements with similar properties appear at periodic intervals.” This statement is known as_

A. The Periodic Law
B. Dalton’s Atomic Theory
C. Law of Definite Proportion
D. Law of Multiple Proportion

A

A. The Periodic Law

Periodic table’s invention is generaly
credited to Russian Chemist Dmitri
Mendeleev. He arranged the elements
by their increasing atomic mass.

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9
Q

When two liquids do not form a solution,
the two liquids are said to be

A. Miscible
B. Immiscible
C. Heterogeneous
D. Miscible

A

B. Immiscible

When two liquids do not form a solution,the two liquids are said to be like oil and water.

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10
Q

Which of the following is an intensive
chemical property of a box of raisins?

A. grams per serving
B. total calories
C. calories per serving
D. grams per serving

A

C. calories per serving

Chemical Properties - are properties that lead to changes in the identity and composition of a substance.
Examples: combustibility, pH, tendency
to rust, reaction with water, etc.

Intensive Properties - are properties that are independent on the size of the sample involved.
Examples: density, freezing point, color,
melting point, reactivity, luster,
malleability, conductivity, etc.

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11
Q

The meteorite ALH84001 contains tiny bubbles of gas trapped in the rock. The chemical composition of the gas in
these bubbles matches the composition
of the Martian atmosphere as
determined by Viking spacecraft in the 1970’s. The meteorite is an example of a/an

A. Binary compound
B. Heterogeneous mixture
C. Element
D. Homogeneous mixture

A

B. Heterogeneous mixture

Heterogeneous Mixture - mixture that
has distinguishable phases.

Homogenous Mixture - mixture that is uniform in appearance and has only one phase.

Compound - pure chemical substance
consisting of two or more different
elements that can be separated into
simpler substances by chemical means.

Element - chemical substance that is
made up of a unique kind of atoms and
hence it cannot be broken down into
simpler substance. In total, 118
elements have been observed, 94 of
which occur naturally on Earth.

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12
Q

In the periodic table, electronegativity

A. increases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right
B. decreases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right
C. decreases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right

A

C. decreases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right

(REM A GEAS LVL 1 TABLE)

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13
Q

Which of the following is an extensive
property of a bubble of air?

A. Density
B. Radius
C. Percent oxygen
D. Temperature

A

B. Radius

Extensive Properties - are properties that depend on the size of the sample involved.
Examples: volume, mass, weight, length,
etc.

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14
Q

It consist of microscopic particles
dispersed in a solvent. Its particles are larger than the size of a molecule but smaller than particles that can be seen with naked eye.

A. Solution
B. Colloid
C. Suspension
D. None of these choices

A

B. Colloid

The Tyndall Effect is the effect of light scattering in colloidal dispersion, while showing no light in a true solution. This effect is used to determine whether a mixture is a true solution or a colloid.

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15
Q

In the periodic table, the atomic radius
of the elements

A. decreases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right
B. increases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right
C. increases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right
D. increases from top to bottom and
increases from left to right

A

C. increases from top to bottom and
decreases from left to right

(REM A GEAS LVL 1 TABLE)

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16
Q

A solid melts gradually between 85°C
and 95°C to give a milky, oily liquid.
When a laser beam shines through the
liquid, the path of the beam is clearly
visible. The milky liquid is likely to be:
A. A compound
B. A heterogeneous mixture
C. Solution
D. Homogeneous mixture

A

B. A heterogeneous mixture

Heterogeneous Mixture - mixture that
has distinguishable phases.

Compound - pure chemical substance
consisting of two or more different
elements that can be separated into
simpler substances by chemical means.

Element - chemical substance that is
made up of a unique kind of atoms and
hence it cannot be broken down into
simpler substance. In total, 118
elements have been observed, 94 of
which occur naturally on Earth.

Solution - a homogenous mixture
composed of only one phase. Solutions
have particle sizes at the molecule or
ion level.

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17
Q

Quantum dots can be used in ___

A. Mechanics
B. Crystallography
C. Optoelectronics

A

C. Optoelectronics

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18
Q

Vesicle is a type of

A. Nanocrystal
B. Supramolecular system
C. Nanoparticle
D. Nanostructure

A

B. Supramolecular system

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19
Q

In this approach, porous membranes of
polymers such as polycarbonates or
ceramics such as alumina are prepared,then placed into a solution of a salt. The metal cation of the salt is reduced
electrochemically and the metal plates
onto the insides of the pores in the
membranes. The membrane in then
removed or dissolved away, leaving the
nanotubes.

A. Vapor-phase synthesis
B. Template synthesis
C. Molecular self-assembly

A

B. Template synthesis

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20
Q

Nano sized polymers built from
branched units are called.

A. Dendrimers
B. Carbon-based materials
C. Composites

A

A. Dendrimers

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21
Q

The four types of Artificial
nanomaterials are_______

A. Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites
and ceramics
B. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers
C. Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites
and dendrimers

A

B. Carbon-based, metallic, composites
and dendrimers

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22
Q

Solution of pure buckminsterfullerene
has a colour of ___

A. Green
B. Pink
C. Purple
D. Yellow

A

C. Purple

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23
Q

The primary detrimental effect of the
presence of large amounts of
biodegradable organic materials in
water is ___

A. it causes oxygen depletion in the water
B. it decomposes endothermically causing the temperature of the water to decrease below the limits within which most aquatic organisms can live
C. it causes death of bottom dwelling
organisms because it agglutinates and settles to the bottom, poisoning bottom dwelling organisms

A

A. it causes oxygen depletion in the water

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24
Q

Ozone is a(n) ___ of oxygen.

A. Isomer
B. resonance structure
C. allotrope
D. isotope

A

C. allotrope

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25
Q

What is/are the product(s) of
photodissociation of molecular oxygen?

A. ozone
B. excited oxygen molecules
C. ozone and atomic oxygen
D. atomic oxygen

A

D. atomic oxygen

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26
Q

In the past, CFCs were not used in ___

A. dry cleaning
B. plastic manufacturing
C. refrigerators
D. spray cans

A

A. dry cleaning

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27
Q

In the world’s oceans, the average
salinity is about _____g/kg.

A. 17
B. 35
C. 0.1
D. 0.03

A

B. 35

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28
Q

Why are chlorofluorocarbons so
damaging to the ozone layer when they
are such stable molecules?

A. They are greenhouse gases that raise the
temperature above the dissociation
temperature of ozone.
B. They are very light molecules that rapidly
diffuse into the upper atmosphere and
block the radiation that causes formation
of ozone
C. The radiation in the stratosphere
dissociates them producing chlorine
atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.

A

C. The radiation in the stratosphere
dissociates them producing chlorine
atoms that catalytically destroy ozone.

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29
Q

If the properties of a body are the same
in all directions, it is called

A. Isotopic
B. Isodynamic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotropic

A

D. Isotropic

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30
Q

How many atom/s is/are there in the
unit cell of a simple cubic?

A. 6
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2

A

C. 1

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31
Q

What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components material do not have by themselves?

A. Mixture
B. Matrix
C. Composite
D. Compound

A

C. Composite

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32
Q

What are considered as the building
blocks for engineering materials?

A. Atoms
B. Elements
C. Matters
D. Compounds

A

A. Atoms

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33
Q

The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called

A. Brittle
B. Hard
C. Isotropic
D. Isogonic

A

C. Isotropic

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34
Q

One of the same elastic properties at all
points in the body

A. heterogeneous material
B. homogenous material
C. multistate material
D. monostate material

A

B. homogenous material

Homogeneous materials are defined as
materials of uniform composition
throughout that cannot be mechanically
disjointed, in principle, into different
materials. Examples of homogeneous
materials are polypropylene, steel,
shampoo, glass cleaner, nylon yarn,
finish, and coating.

Heterogeneous materials are a new
class of structural materials with
remarkable heterogeneity in strength
from one component to another with a variety of shape, form, and morphology at different length scales.

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35
Q

What is the factor of safety?

A. The ratio of stress to strain
B. The ratio of ultimate stress to the
permissible stress
C. The ratio of permissible stress to the
ultimate stress

A

B. The ratio of ultimate stress to the
permissible stress

Factor of safety is the ratio of ultimate
stress to the permissible stress.

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36
Q

What is the most common alloying
ingredient in copper?

A. Aluminum
B. Brass
C. Nickle
D. Zinc

A

D. Zinc

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37
Q

___ occurs due to cyclic application
of a stress. It could be due to vibration
of thermal cycling

A. Flow Stress
B. Structural Stress
C. Pressure Stress
D. Fatigue Stress

A

D. Fatigue Stress

Fatigue limit, endurance limit, and fatigue strength are all expressions used to describe a property of
materials: the amplitude (or range) of cyclic stress that can be applied to the material without causing fatigue failure.

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38
Q

The modulus of elasticity is also known as

A. Yield strength
B. Hooke’s ratio
C. Modulus of rigidity
D. Young’s modulus

A

D. Young’s modulus

Modulus of rigidity
Young’s Modulus or Tensile Modulus
describes the length elasticity of the
material. It is a measure of the amount
of force needed to produce a unit
deformation.

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39
Q

When a material is stretched in one
direction and the other direction tends
to contract, the Poisson’s ratio is

A. Cannot be determined
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Negative

A

C. Positive

Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of transverse
contraction strain to longitudinal
extension strain in the direction of
stretching force. Tensile deformation is
considered positive.

40
Q

The term “bronze” is used to designate
any alloy containing:

A. copper and zinc
B. copper and tin
C. copper and aluminum
D. copper and nickel

A

B. copper and tin

41
Q

Which type of atomic bonding is
predominantly found in ceramics?

A. Metallic bonding.
B. lonic bonding.
C. Van der Waals bonding.
D. Covalent bonding.

A

B. lonic bonding.

Ceramics are often composed of atoms
with large differences in
electronegativity, leading to the transfer of electrons and the formation of ionic bonds. This type of bonding contributes to the high strength and stability of ceramics.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Metallic bonding: Metallic bonding is
more commonly found in metals, where
electrons are delocalized and shared
among atoms in a metallic lattice, which
is different from the structure of
ceramics.

Covalent bonding: While covalent
bonding can exist in ceramics, it is less
common than ionic bonding and is
usually found in specific ceramic
compositions.

42
Q

What is the primary crystalline structure
of ceramics?

A. Tetrahedral structure.
B. Amorphous structure.
C. Hexagonal structure.
D. Cubic structure.

A

D. Cubic structure.

The crystalline structure of ceramics is
often based on a cubic lattice, where the
constituent atoms or ions are arranged
in a repeating three-dimensional
pattern.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Amorphous structure: While some
ceramics can have an amorphous or non-crystalline structure, the majority have a crystalline structure.

Hexagonal structure: Hexagona
structures are more commonly found in
certain metals and minerals, but they
are not the predominant structure of
ceramics.

Tetrahedral structure: A tetrahedral
structure is more characteristic of
certain compounds or materials, such as some polymers or certain minerals,rather than ceramics.

43
Q

What mechanical property of a material
refers to the resistance to plastic
deformation?

A. Ductility
B. Hardness
C. Plasticity

A

B. Hardness

44
Q

The engineering materials known as
plastics are more correctly called

A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Mers
C. Polymers

A

C. Polymers

45
Q

Plastic is a ___ substance.

A. Organic
B. Natural
C. Inorganic
D. Eco friendly

A

A. Organic

46
Q

What is a combination of one or more
metals with a nonmetallic element?

A. Matrix Composite
B. Metalloids
C. Inert
D. Ceramic

A

D. Ceramic

47
Q

What physical property of material
refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogeneous material under steady state conditions per unit area,
unit temperature gradient in a direction
perpendicular to the area?

A. Water absorption
B. Thermal expansion
C. Thermal conductivity

A

C. Thermal conductivity

48
Q

What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?

A. Plastic
B. Polymer
C. Rubber
D. All of these choices

A

A. Plastic

49
Q

Which of the following materials have
very high permeability?

A. Non-magnetic materials
B. Paramagnetic materials
C. Ferromagnetic materials

A

C. Ferromagnetic materials

50
Q

What physical property of a material
that refers to the point at which a
material liquefies on heating or
solidifies on cooling?

A. Curie point
B. Specific heat
C. Refractive index
D. Melting point

A

D. Melting point

51
Q

What physical property of a material
refers to the highest potential difference
that an insulating material of a given
thickness can withstand for a specified
time without occurrence of electrical
breakdown through its bulk?

A. Electric Resistivity
B. Dielectric Strength
C. Conductivity
D. Thermal expansion

A

B. Dielectric Strength

52
Q

Which of the following is non-luminous?

A. Moon
B. Sun
C. Star
D. All of these choices

A

A. Moon

53
Q

Sugar is a form of

A. Fat
B. Water
C. Carbohydrate
D. Protein

A

C. Carbohydrate

54
Q

Into how many types, the water carriage
system is divided?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

A

B. 3

55
Q

The salinization can be defined as

A. Accumulation of salts in animals
B. Accumulation of salts in the soil
C. Accumulation of salts in water
D. Accumulation of salts in the body

A

B. Accumulation of salts in the soil

56
Q

Environment is the life support system
that includes

A. Land
B. Water
C. All of these choices
D. Air

A

C. All of these choices

57
Q

The set of ecosystems is called

A. Biome
B. Hydrosphere
C. None of these choices
D. Atmosphere

A

A. Biome

58
Q

Which of the following statements
define Environmental Engineering?

A. Waste disposal
B. Pollution control of various kinds
C. All of these choices

A

C. All of these choices

59
Q

How much percentage of nitrogen
consist in Earth’s Atmosphere?

A. 25%
B. 78%
C. 92%

A

B. 78%

60
Q

What is hibernation?

A. All of these choices
B. Adaptation of animals to escape from
predators
C. Winter sleep
D. Summer sleep

A

C. Winter sleep

61
Q

Which of the following is the coldest
planet of the solar system?

A. Neptune
B. Jupiter
C. Mercury
D. Venus

A

A. Neptune

62
Q

A herbivore is also known as a

A. Third order consumer
B. Second order consumer.
C. First order consumer

A

C. First order consumer

63
Q

In an ecosystem, bacteria are the

A. Decomposers
B. Secondary consumers
C. Producers

A

A. Decomposers

64
Q

Which of the following is the example of
primary pollutants?

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrocarbons
C. All of these
D. Carbon monoxide

A

C. All of these

65
Q

Which of the following is not influenced
by human activities?

A. Depletion of ground water
B. Increased extinction rate of species
C. None of these choices
D. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands

A

C. None of these choices

66
Q

Which of the following is the disease
caused by bacterial infections?

A. Infectious hepatitis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Poliomyelitis

A

B. Typhoid fever

67
Q

How many types of air pollutants are
there?

A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. None of these choices
D. 6 types

A

A. 2 types

68
Q

Which of the following is/are types of
pollution that affect the environment?

A. Land pollution
B. All of these choices
C. Water pollution
D. Air pollution

A

B. All of these choices

69
Q

Loss of forest has led to

A. Erosion of fertile soil
B. All of these choices
C. Global warming

A

B. All of these choices

70
Q

_____ defines how we should study and
protect the ecosystem, air quality,
integrity, and sustainability of our
resources.

A. Social development
B. Environmental protection
C. Economic development

A

B. Environmental protection

71
Q

What is green energy?

A. It is the energy that is produced to reduce
pollution
B. It is the energy that is produced in such a
way that it reduces coal consumption
C. It is the energy that is produced in such
a way as to minimize its negative
impact on the environment

A

C. It is the energy that is produced in such
a way as to minimize its negative
impact on the environment

72
Q

Which of the following is a type of non-
renewable resource?

A. Nuclear energy
B. Geothermal energy
C. Hydrogen and fuel cells
D. Solar energy

A

A. Nuclear energy

73
Q

Which of the following is energy relies on the nuclear fusion power from the core of the sun?

A. Geothermal energy
B. Hydroelectric energy
C. Hydrogen and fuel cells
D. Solar energy

A

D. Solar energy

74
Q

What would you do to prevent
environmental damage?

A. Control pollution
B. Halt deforestation
C. Plant trees
D. All of these choices

A

D. All of these choices

75
Q

What do you mean by consumerism?

A. None of these choices
B. Consumerism refers to the consumption of
non-renewable resources by the people.
C. Consumerism refers to the
consumption of resources by the
people.
D. Consumerism refers to the consumption of renewable resources by the people.

A

C. Consumerism refers to the
consumption of resources by the
people.

76
Q

____ is the process of overgrowth of
plants and algae in lakes.

A. Reproduction
B. Eutrophication
C. Transpiration
D. Photosynthesis

A

B. Eutrophication

77
Q

Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter material in the treatment of water?

A. Crushed rock
B. Anthracite
C. Sand

A

A. Crushed rock

78
Q

Which process of water treatment is
done to avoid floating debris, branches,trees, or other large particles suspended in water?

A. Secondary sedimentation
B. Screening
C. Primary sedimentation
D. Aeration

A

B. Screening

79
Q

___ these are not strictly renewable
energy resources but are very abundant
in availability and are very low in
pollution.

A. Geothermal energy
B. Hydrogen and fuel cells
C. Hydroelectric energy

A

B. Hydrogen and fuel cells

80
Q

Which of the following is biodegradable
waste?

A. Synthetic fiber
B. Food waste
C. Polythene bags
D. Cans

A

B. Food waste

81
Q

In which type of aerator, the flow of
water is divided into fine streams and
small droplets?

A. Inclined apron aerator
B. Cascade aerator
C. Gravel bed aerator

A

B. Cascade aerator

82
Q

A type of bond where in the security is
in sum’s form of recognized commercial
papers of a well established subsidiary.

A. callable bond
B. collateral bond
C. subsidiary bond

A

B. collateral bond

83
Q

What is the opposite of perfect
competition?

A. Monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopsony

A

A. Monopoly

Monopoly is the opposite of perfect competition. There exists a perfect monopoly if the single vendor can
prevent the entry of all other vendors
into the market. The monopolist is in the
position to set the market price.

84
Q

What is the term for an annuity with a
fixed time span?

A. Annuity certain
B. Annuity due
C. Perpetuity

A

A. Annuity certain

Classification of Annuity Based on Duration

Annuity Certain - an annuity where the
payments are made for a fixed
(deterministic) period of time. If the
length of time is deterministic and
infinite, the annuity is called a
perpetuity.

Contingent Annuity - an annuity in
which the payments extend over indefinite (or indeterminate) length of time.

85
Q

In Engineering Economy, what do you call the method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at periodic intervals of time?

A. Deflation
B. Deflation
C. Annuity
D. Amortization

A

D. Amortization

86
Q

Which of the following is a method of calculating periodic depreciation that involves the determining at regular (as annual) intervals throughout the
expected life of an asset of equal
percentage amounts of a cost balance
which is progressively decreased by
subtraction of each prior increment of depreciation from the original cost of the asset?

A. Sum-of-digits Method
B. Declining Balance
C. Straight-line

A

B. Declining Balance

87
Q

A cost that is incurred because of the use of limited resources, such that the opportunity to use those resources to monetary advantage in an alternative use is foregone.

A. Sunk cost
B. Life cycle cost
C. Opportunity cost

A

C. Opportunity cost

88
Q

The decision-making process under
certainty involves:

A. Gathering information about future
outcomes.
B. Comparing known costs and benefits.
C. Making choices based on intuition.

A

B. Comparing known costs and benefits.

In decisions under certainty, the
decision-maker compares the known
costs and benefits associated with each
alternative. Since all future outcomes
are known, the decision is made by
selecting the alternative that offers the
highest net benefit or utility.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Assessing risks and uncertainties: This
is not necessary in decisions under
certainty, as there are no risks or
uncertainties.

Gathering information about future
outcomes: In decisions under certainty all future outcomes are already known,so there is no need to gather additional information.

Making choices based on intuition:
Decisions under certainty are not based on intuition but on objective analysis of known outcomes.

89
Q

The primary objective in decisions
under certainty is to:

A. Randomly select an alternative.
B. Ignore costs and benefits.
C. Minimize uncertainty.
D. Maximize profit.

A

D. Maximize profit.

In decisions under certainty, the primary
objective is to maximize profit or
achieve the best possible outcome
based on the perfect knowledge of
future outcomes. The decision-maker
can calculate and compare the
expected profits for each alternative.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Minimize uncertainty: Decisions under certainty do not involve uncertainty, as all future outcomes are known.

Randomly select an alternative:
Decisions under certainty are not made
randomly but are based on analyzing
known outcomes.

Ignore costs and benefits: Costs and
benefits are considered in decisions
under certainty, as they are known with
certainty.

90
Q

In decisions under certainty, the
decision-maker:

A. Has perfect knowledge of future
outcomes.
B. Makes decisions without considering
costs.
C. Makes decisions with considering the
costs.

A

A. Has perfect knowledge of future
outcomes.

In decisions under certainty, the
decision-maker has complete and
accurate information about all future
outcomes and associated costs,
benefits, and probabilities. This allows
for a straightforward analysis and
selection of the best alternative.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Faces uncertainty and risk:
This is not true for decisions under certainty.
Uncertainty and risk are present in
decisions under uncertainty or risk.

Makes decisions without considering costs:
Costs are considered in
decisions under certainty, as all future outcomes and their associated costs are known.

Randomly selects a decision alternative: Decisions under certainty
are not made randomly. They are based
on perfect knowledge of future outcomes.

91
Q

Which technique is commonly used in
decisions recognizing risk to assess the potential impact of varying inputs on the decision outcomes?

A. Payback period analysis.
B. Break-even analysis.
C. Decision tree analysis.
D. Sensitivity analysis.

A

D. Sensitivity analysis.

Sensitivity analysis is commonly used in decisions recognizing risk to assess the potential impact of varying inputs or
factors on the decision outcomes. It
helps identify which variables have the
most significant influence on the
outcomes and allows decision-makers to analyze different scenarios and their effects on the decision.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Payback period analysis: Payback period analysis determines the time required to recover the initial investment and is not specific to assessing the impact of varying inputs.

Break-even analysis: Break-even
analysis determines the point at which revenues equal costs and is not specific to assessing the impact of varying
inputs.

92
Q

In decisions recognizing risk, the
decision-maker aims to:

A. Eliminate all uncertainties
B. Quantify and manage the uncertainties.
C. Minimize the potential impact of
uncertainties.
D. Assign probabilities to unknown
outcomes.

A

B. Quantify and manage the uncertainties.

In decisions recognizing risk, the
decision-maker aims to quantify and manage the uncertainties associated with future outcomes. Rather than
eliminating uncertainties, the focus is on understanding the potential impact of uncertainties and making informed decisions based on that understanding

Brief explanations for other choices:

Eliminate all uncertainties: It is not
feasible to eliminate all uncertainties in decisions recognizing risk; the goal is to manage them.

Assign probabilities to unknown outcomes: Assigning probabilities is characteristic of decisions recognizing risk, but it does not eliminate uncertainties.

Minimize the potential impact of uncertainties: Minimizing the potential impact of uncertainties is one aspect of managing uncertainties, but quantifying and analyzing them is also crucial.

93
Q

In decisions admitting uncertainty, the
focus is primarily on:

A. Making decisions based on available
information.
B. Quantifying and analyzing uncertainties
C. Conducting extensive market research.
D. Assigning probabilities to future outcomes.

A

A. Making decisions based on available
information

In decisions admitting uncertainty, the focus is primarily on making decisions based on available information, without attempting to quantify or analyze uncertainties. The decision-maker
acknowledges that some factors or
outcomes are unknown or unpredictable and relies on qualitative assessments or available information to make informed decisions.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Quantifying and analyzing
uncertainties: This is the primary focus
of decisions recognizing risk, not
decisions admitting uncertainty.

Assigning probabilities to future
outcomes: Assigning probabilities is
characteristic of decisions recognizing risk, where quantitative techniques are used to assess uncertainties.

94
Q

Which technique is commonly used in
decisions recognizing risk to model
probabilistic outcomes and assess the
range of possible outcomes?

A. Sensitivity analysis.
B. Break-even analysis.
C. Monte Carlo simulation.

A

C. Monte Carlo simulation.

Monte Carlo simulation is commonly used in decisions recognizing risk to model probabilistic outcomes and
assess the range of possible outcomes It involves generating random samples based on probability distributions for
uncertain variables and simulating the
decision outcomes multiple times to
provide a probabilistic view of the results.

Brief explanations for other choices:

Break-even analysis: Break-even
analysis determines the point at which
revenues equal costs and does not
model probabilistic outcomes.

Sensitivity analysis: Sensitivity analysis assesses the impact of varying inputs on decision outcomes but does not
explicitly model probabilistic outcomes

Decision tree analysis: Decision tree
analysis represents decision
alternatives and potential outcomes but
does not model probabilistic outcomes.

95
Q

What is the primary difference between
decisions recognizing risk and
decisions admitting uncertainty in
Engineering Economics?

A. The level of complexity involved in the
decision-making process.
B. The use of quantitative techniques to
assess uncertainties.
C. The consideration of past historical data.
D. The level of unknown factors in future
outcomes.

A

B. The use of quantitative techniques to
assess uncertainties.

The primary difference between
decisions recognizing risk and
decisions admitting uncertainty is the
use of quantitative techniques to
assess uncertainties. In decisions
recognizing risk, quantitative techniques
such as probability analysis and risk
assessment are utilized to quantify and
analyze the uncertainties associated
with future outcomes. Decisions
admitting uncertainty, on the other hand,do not attempt to assign probabilities or quantify uncertainties.

Brief explanations for other choices:

The level of complexity involved in the decision-making process: The level of complexity can vary in both decisions recognizing risk and decisions admitting uncertainty, but it is not the
primary differentiating factor.

The consideration of past historical data: Past historical data may be considered in both types of decisions,but it is not the primary differentiating factor.

The level of unknown factors in future
outcomes: Both decisions recognize the
presence of unknown factors in future
outcomes; however, the key difference
lies in the quantification and analysis of
uncertainties.

GEAS (14 decks)

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