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RELEARN Flashcards

1
Q

Acute Hep B infection shows what on blood film?

A

Hbsag +ve, Anti-Hbs -ve, Anti-HBc Immunoglobulin +ve

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2
Q

what treatment do you give baby if mum has an acute hep B infection?

A

Hep B vaccine and Hep B immunoglobulins

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3
Q

what is the most common cause of type 2 nec fascitis?

A

group a strep

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4
Q

nec fasciitis symptoms

A

red swollen tender leg, systemic unwellness

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5
Q

most common way to diagnose CJD?

A

tissue biopsy

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6
Q

What Hb is the time for patients with CKD?

A

> 100

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7
Q

if it is just Hb that is low in someone with CKD what do you give?

A

erythropoietin

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8
Q

progressive prolonged PR interval with stable haemodynamics is most likely what?

A

wenchebach mobitz type 1

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9
Q

when are reuloux formation seen?

A

myeloma

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10
Q

when is smudge cells seen?

A

CLL

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11
Q

when is auer rods seen/

A

AML - APML (ACUTE PROMEYLOTIC Leukaemia) can be consistent withAML findings also

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12
Q

mature myeloid cells are seen in what?

A

CML

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13
Q

when is active phase labour?

A

4 cm dilation

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14
Q

what is second stage labour?

A

10cm dilation to delivery

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15
Q

latent phase is what?

A

0-4 cm dilation

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16
Q

third stage?

A

baby delivery ends, placenta delivered

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17
Q

fourth stage?

A

recovery

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18
Q

what is kaposis sarcoma known as what and what tumour marker indicates it?

A

herpese human virus 8 and LANA1

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19
Q

what is kaposis?

A

vascular tumour, purple lesion on leg that goes dark/black

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20
Q

with meningitis iv over50 you give amoxicillin but is it iV or oral?

A

IV

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21
Q

what is the most common form of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary

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22
Q

axilla lump what is the most common cause?

A

breast cancer even if exam shows otherwise

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23
Q

first line investigation for angina??

A

CT angio

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24
Q

periods of bradycardia and tachycardia indicate what

A

sick sinus syndrome

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25
Q

colovesical fistual symptoms and investigation?

A

fecourine and gas in urine accompanied by lower left iliac fossa pain + Cystoscopy

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26
Q

what can cause epiglottis in children related to vaccines?

A

HiB

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27
Q

what is used as treatment for epiglottis caused by HiB

A

IV cef

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28
Q

what biomarker can help detect bacterial sepsis?

A

procalcitonin

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29
Q

what is a significant finding if suspected COPD?

A

Diffusing cap citing of the lungs carbon monoxide (DLCO)

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30
Q

what is usually the culprit for LUTS post prostatectomy?

A

urethral stricture

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31
Q

what are the symptoms of parvovirus?

A

slapped cheek appearance and mild feverish illness that is set limiting

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32
Q

what is increased at birth f you have cystic fibrosis?

A

immunoreactive trypsinogen

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33
Q

what treatment do you give empirically for acute osteomyelitis?

A

IV Flucloxacillin

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34
Q

urinary incontinence, dementia and gait abnormality is a sign of what?

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

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35
Q

how to treat normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

CSF tap

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36
Q

lucid interval following trauma may be a sign of what?

A

impending extradural haemorrhage

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37
Q

one third from the anterior iliac spine and umbilicus on the right is known as what?

A

mcburney points

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38
Q

salmonella significant symptom?

A

rose coloured maule rash on torso that appears 5-10 days later

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39
Q

what is a marker in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

elevated CK

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40
Q

what can cause haemoptysis in people with history fo a TB infection?

A

aspergillomas

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41
Q

acute testicular pain indicates what next step in management?

A

surgicalexploratin

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42
Q

hereditary haemachromatosis is what genetic pattern?

A

autosomal recessive

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43
Q

what drug os first choice for pain in stage 4/5 CKD?

A

alfentanil

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44
Q

what bacteria causes profuse vomiting and non-bloody diarrhoea post diary ingestion?

A

staph auerues

45
Q

what is hirschsprungs disease?

A

lack of ganglions in the lower bowel, causes constipation abdominal bloating liquid diarrhoea on rectal exam - links with downs syndrome

46
Q

optic neuritis key symptoms?

A

red desaturation, painful acute vision loss (often associated with autoimmune disorders and MS)

47
Q

investigation and management for MS?

A

vision field tests + MRI IV methylpred

48
Q

Relative afferent pupillary defect is seen in what people/

A

optic neuritis, MS

49
Q

what test is used to diagnose mumps?

A

salivary IgM

50
Q

starry sky appearance is indicative of what disease?

A

EBV (translocation 8 and 14)

51
Q

what is felts syndrome?

A

triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia

52
Q

skin darkening, hormonal imbalance, tiredness, hilarious and perihilar imbalance are indicative of what?

A

small cell long cancer (acth secreating)

53
Q

acute mania in bipolar is managed with what?

A

risperidone

54
Q

signs of nephritic syndrome?

A

haematuria, HTN and oedema

55
Q

what is tested for in post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis?

A

urine dip, MSU, ACRU&E, ASOT (antistreptolysine titre) and complement …. renal biopsy can be definitive (10 days pen V should be given orally first line)

56
Q

acute urgent surgery, how to manage INR and warfarin?

A

warfarin stopped, IV vit K given and INR reassessed till below 1.5

57
Q

what palliative rug can cause dry mouth?

A

hyoscine hydrobromide

58
Q

valvular conniventes are what?

A

ladder/stacked coin look of the bowels indicative of small bowel obstrutcion

59
Q

tibial fracture i most commonly associated with what?

A

lateral meniscal tear

60
Q

sign of NOF

A

shortened and externally rotated

61
Q

immobile older patient with intracapsular fracture - what do you do/

A

hemiarthroplasty

62
Q

younger pt or mobile pt with intracapsular fracture - what do you do?

A

total hip replacement

63
Q

trochanter fracture is fixed by?

A

dynamic hip screw

64
Q

subtronchanteric fracture is fixed by?

A

intramedullary nail

65
Q

bile duct injury presents like what?

A

fever, peritonitis symptoms and more acutely (days rather than weeks to month)

66
Q

post-cholecystectomy syndrome presents like what?

A

weeks after surgery, ALP raised and GGT raised and absence of fever and high WCC

67
Q

pulmonary fibrosis has what type of FEVC pattern?

A

restrictive >70%, reduced FVC and increased TLCO

68
Q

what is an essential investigation for ruling out different pathologies for a PE

69
Q

JAK V617F mutation is often seen in what?

A

myelofibrosis

70
Q

tear drop poikilocytes are also seen in what?

A

myelofibrosis

71
Q

which antipsychotic can cause myocarditis (sweating dizziness and chest pain)?

72
Q

AAA of 5.5 and clinically stable - what is the next step?

A

seen by vascular surgeon in 2 weeks

73
Q

pain on passive dorsiflexion is indicative of what?

A

acute compartment syndrome

74
Q

what does alendrotnic acid do?

A

reduce the rate of bone turnover and strengthens bone

75
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis

A

staph aureus

76
Q

reduced uptake of iodine is suggestive of what thyroid issue?

A

de quervains thyroditiis

77
Q

when looking at ABG what do we need to interpret first?

78
Q

anion gap calculation?

A

sodium + potassium - bicarb + chloride

80
Q

Calcium Gluconate is used to treat what?

A

Hypocalcaemia

81
Q

Carpopedal spasm and long QT is a sign of what?

A

Acute pancreatitis

82
Q

Digoxin toxicity is treated with what?

A

Digoxin specific antibody

83
Q

What is osmotic diuresis??

A

More proteins and solutes in the renal tubules causing water being kept in the tubules also, leading to hypovolemia in the body and hypernatraemia (secondary to HHS and DKA)

84
Q

Tinnitus can be caused by what medicine?

A

Loop Diuretics

86
Q

What is the initial treatment for sarcoidosis?

A

Prednsiolone

87
Q

What should be prescribed alongside rifampacin, isoniazid, pyridoxine, ethambutol?

A

Vitamin B6

88
Q

What is the most common cause of cushings?

A

Exogenous corticosteroids

89
Q

Large bowel Perf vs peptic ulcer Perf?

A

Perforated peptic ulcer has less systemic symptoms and shows as air under diaphragm whereas large bowel Perf is more generalised Perf and systemic unwellness

91
Q

What does a raised SAAG suggest?

A

Budd-chiari and portal hypertension

92
Q

What does a reduced SAAG suggest?

A

Peritoneal cancers

93
Q

What is a WEBER TYPE B fracture?

A

Ankle fracture at the level of the syndesmosis which can be associated with interosseous ligament damage

94
Q

What is type A and type C webers?

A

A= below
C = above syndesmosis

95
Q

What antiemetic shouldn’t be used in those at risk of urinary problems?

96
Q

Second metatarsal base stress fracture is associated with what?

A

Ballerinas/repetitive movement and especially those with menstrual irregularities

97
Q

What drug can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism ?

A

Amiodarone

98
Q

What are signs of cor pulmonale?

A

Raised JVP, white sputum, hepatomegaly, pitting oedema, cough and background of COPD

99
Q

What investigation helps determine haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII assay

100
Q

What autoantibody causes acquired haemophilia

A

Factor VIII autoantibody

101
Q

What is gold standard for confirming intubation?

A

End tidal CO2

102
Q

What if there is no CO2 present

A

Oesophageal intubation

103
Q

GAD vs adjustment disorder?

A

Adjustment is less severe version

104
Q

What treatment is typically used for wet ARMD

105
Q

What treatment is typically used for dry ARMD

A

Zinc and antioxidant supplements

106
Q

What is congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Cataracts, brain damage and deafness

107
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome is what?

A

Raised potassium phosphate and hypocalcaemia

108
Q

What is TLS first line tx

A

Rasburicase

UKMLA (12 decks)

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