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0
Q

Define poly and oligohydramnios

A

Poly > 1.5-2 L

Oli < 0.5 L

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1
Q

Post operative fever

A 
Wind
Water
Walking
Wound
Wonder drug / what did we do
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3
Q

Criteria for PCOS

A

2 of 3

Oligomenorea
Androgen symptoms
Polycystic ovary

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4
Q

Dermacentor

A

Rockymountain

Franciesella - cysteine for growth

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5
Q

Colchine

A

Inhibits microtubules

Tx of gout

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6
Q

Flutamide

A

Antagonist of androgen receptors

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7
Q

Craniopharyngioma signs?

A

Bitemporal heminaopia

increased appetite

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8
Q

Activation of pineal gland

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleas&raquo_space; NE release&raquo_space; pineal gland

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9
Q

Complement factor most important for clearing deposition

A

C3b

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10
Q

Nucleus accumbuns

A

GABA

Reward w/ septal nuclei

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11
Q

Most common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

Goup B Strep

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12
Q

How to determine significance with relative risk?

A

RR = 1 must be outside CI

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13
Q

Asynchronous secretory endometrium

A

Secretory endometrium with mismatch of 2 or more days b/t glands and stroma

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14
Q

Anovulatory endometrium

A

Proliferative endometrium with stromal breakdown

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15
Q

Artificial increase in survival when using a more sensitive test

A

Lead-time bias

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16
Q

Elastase is made from what cells?

A

Neutrophils and Macrophages

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17
Q

Ketakonaxoles SEs

A

Liver dysfunction

Gynecomastia

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18
Q

Zileuton SEs

A

Liver dysfunction

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19
Q

Tx cryptococcosis

A

Amphotericin B

Flucytosine

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20
Q

Circular DNA viruses

A

Papilloma
Papyloma
Hepadna

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21
Q

Anencephaly RFs

A

DM1

Folate def

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22
Q

Hypothalamus part responding to osmolality

A

Organum vasculosum lamina terminals

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23
Q

DDVAP

A

desmopressin acetate

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24
Q

Tx for bedwetting

A

DDVAP (1st line)

Imiprimine (2nd line)

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25
Q

Rate limiting step of gluconeogenesis

A

Conversion to OAA

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26
Q

Baby problems w/ uncontrolled maternal diabetes

A

Caudal regression

Anencephaly

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27
Q

Most useful for assessing severity of mitral stenosis?

A

A2 to opening snap time

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28
Q

Most commonly seen manifestation of CMV in immunocompromised?

A

Mononucleosis

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29
Q

Before starting a patient on ACEi what should be considered?

A
  1. Thiazide diuretics (could lead to severe first dose hypotension)
  2. Pregnancy
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30
Q

Mast cell stabilizing drugs

A

Cromolyn

Nedocromil

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31
Q

What substance inhibits lipoid acid?

A

Arsenic

Antidote&raquo_space; Dimercaprol, succimer (arsenic, gold, mercury)

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32
Q

Arsenic antidote?

A

Dimercaprol

Succimer

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33
Q

Non-benzo drugs

A

Zolpidem (Ambien)

Zaleplon

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34
Q

Non-benzo drugs MOA

A

BZ1 subtype of GABA receptor

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35
Q

Holiday heart syndrome

A

Binge drinking&raquo_space; Acute spontaneous aFib

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36
Q

Loop diuretics act via?

A
  1. inhibiting Na/Cl/K pump

2. stimulate release of prostaglandins

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37
Q

Stop codons

A

UAA
UGA
UAG

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38
Q

Vibrio parahymolyticus

A

Saltwater seafood poisoning

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39
Q

Serotonin OD Antidote

A

Cyproheptadine

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40
Q

Liver angiosarcoma

A

CD31

PECAM 1

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41
Q

Phenolpam

A

D1 agonist

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42
Q

Nesiritide

A

BMP agonist

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43
Q

mRNA is read in what direction

A

5 -> 3

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44
Q

Acyl site of tRNA structure

A

3’ OH - CCA

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45
Q

Specific HIV protease inhibitors SEs

A

Indinavir (thrombocytopenia, hematuria)

Ritonivir (cyp450 inhibitor)

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46
Q

How to distinguish E. coli from Klebsiella

A

E coli is indole positive

E coli is pink on McConkey agar and green metallic on eosin methylene blue agar

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47
Q

Tripanosoma cruzi Tx

A

Nifurtimox

Benzinidazole

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48
Q

Membranous nephropathy antibody

A

Phospholipase a2

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49
Q

Polymyositus vs Dermatomyositis

A

Poly - symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, CD 8, shoulder involvement, Endomysial inflammation

Derm - includes shawl and face rash, mechanics hands, CD 4, Perimyseial inflammation, increased risk of occult.

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50
Q

Francisella tularensis agar

A

Cystein

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51
Q

Bordetella agar

A

Bordet-gengou
Potato agar
Regan-lowe
Calcium alginate swab

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52
Q

Difference between Tamoxifen and Raloxifen

A

Tamoxifen&raquo_space; agonist of endometrium

Raloxifen&raquo_space; antagonist of endometrium

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53
Q

What is the difference in serum tests between trisomy 13 & 18?

A

Trisomy 13 (patau)&raquo_space; no serum studies constistent except for lowered estriol

Trisomy 18 (edwards)&raquo_space; lowered everything

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54
Q

A seminoma is just like what female tumor?

A

Dysgerminoma

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55
Q

Expected triple screen in down’s

A

AFP goes down. Estriol may be down. bHCG may be elevated.

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56
Q

Hypotension and ambiguous genitelia

A

21alpha hydroxylase deficiency

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57
Q

Elementary bodies vs?

A

chlamydia&raquo_space;> extracellular bodies

Intracellular&raquo_space;> intracellular

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58
Q

Mumps will inflame what part of the reproductive tract of males?

A

Epididymus

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59
Q

Structures derived from mullerian ducts in male

A

appendix teste

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60
Q

What is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the US?

A

chalmydia

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61
Q

Bosentan

A

Used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension. Competitively antagonizes endothelin-1 receptors.

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62
Q

Expectorant - thins respiratory secretions but does not suppress cough reflex

A

Guanfenesin

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63
Q

Sumitriptan has a negative reaction with?

A

SSRis&raquo_space; seratonin syndrome

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64
Q

Adrenoleukidystrophy

A

X-linked
Very long chain fatty acids&raquo_space; peroxisome dysfunction
» coma, andrenal crisis

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65
Q

Eyes toward lesion

A

Frontal eye field

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66
Q

Eyes away lesion

A

Paramedian pontine reticular formation

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67
Q

Gerstmann syndrome

A

Dominant parietal
Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, left-right disorientation

Angular gyrus

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68
Q

Reticular activating system

A

Midbrain&raquo_space;> reduced level of wakefulness (e.g. coma)

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69
Q

Loa loa tx

A

diethylcarbamazine

Wuchereria bancrofti

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70
Q

Most cestodes and trematodes tx. Except?

A

Praziquantel

Echinococcus & CNS tenia solium (albendazole)

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71
Q

HLA

A 
A3 - hemochromatosis
DR2 - MS, hay fever, SLE, goodpasture
DR3 - DM1, SLE, graves
DR4 - rheumatoid, DM1
DR5 - pernicious, hashimoto
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72
Q

Prophylaxis PCP with sulfa allergy

A

Pentamidine

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73
Q

Hematogenous spreading cancers

A 
Hepatoma
Sarcoma
HCC
RCC
Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
Embryonal carcionoma
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74
Q

Timeline for postpartum blues

A

< 10 days, peaking at 4 days.

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75
Q

Spasticity in MS tx

A

baclofen

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76
Q

Graves disease targets what receptor?

A

Thyrotropin releasing receptors (stimulates)

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77
Q

Leiomyoma tx

A

leuprolide

Gnrh analogue

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78
Q

Factors inhibiting lung development

A

Insulin

C-section

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79
Q

Equation for physiological dead space

A

Vd = Vt x (PaCO2 - PECO2) / PaCO2

Vd = anatomic dead space of conducting airways plus functional dead space in alveoli

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80
Q

What region of the airways the largest contributor to functional dead space in the lungs

A

Apex of healthy lungs

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81
Q

Equation of alveolar ventilation (VA)

A

VA = (Vt - Vd) x RR

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82
Q

Most common sinus infection in kids

A

Ethmoid

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83
Q

FRC

A

Functional Residual Capacity

RV + ERV

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84
Q

Histological findings for asthma

A

Cushman spirals (epi cells)

Charcot leyden crystals (eosinophils debri)

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85
Q

Timeline of ARDS

A

Alveolar damage&raquo_space; increased alveolar capillary permeability&raquo_space; protein rich leakage into alveoli and pulmonary edema (normal PCWP).

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86
Q

What causes the initial damage in ARDS

A
  • neutrophilic substances
  • activation of coagulation cascade
  • Oxygen derived free radicals
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87
Q

Primary pulmonary hypertension caused by

A

BMPR2

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88
Q

Ketamine SE

A

Increased cerebral blood flow

Inhibits NMDAr

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89
Q

Lung cancers not linked with smoking

A

Carcinoid

Adenocarcinoma

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90
Q

Conn syndrome

A

Aldoesterone secreting adenoma

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91
Q

NF1

A

Neurofibromatosis
Cafe au lait
Optic gliomas
Pheocromacytoma

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92
Q

Nortriptyline MOA

A

Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

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93
Q

cAMP

A

FLAT ChAMP

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
CRH
hCG
ADH (v2 receptor)
MSH
PTH
Calcitonin
GHRH
Glucagon
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94
Q

CRH stimulates

A

ACTH
MSH
Beta endorphin

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95
Q

Prolactin is stimulated by

A

TRH

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96
Q

GH is inhibited by

A

Glucose

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97
Q

Pyloric stenosis is more common in? When / how does it present

A

First born males

2-6 weeks with projectile vomiting

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98
Q

What side of the hepatocytes faces the bile canuliculi

A

apical

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99
Q

Most common hernia to cause ischemia of the bowel

A

femoral hernia

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100
Q

How is folate absorbed. What inhibits this process?

A

intestinal conjugase binds and allows absorption. Phenytoin.

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101
Q

What is bile salts conjugated to make them water soluble

A

Glycine

Tyrosine

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102
Q

What is the common precursor for ACTH and MSH

A

Palm C

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103
Q

What is lichen planus on the buchal mucosa called

A

Wickem striae

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104
Q

Causes of esophogitis and type of lesions

A

HSV - punched out lesions
CMV - linear lesions
Candidiasis

Eosinophilic esophogitis - unresponsive to GERD treatment

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105
Q

Which blood group is associated more with h pylori

A

blood type O

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106
Q

Angiodysplasia

A

tortuous dilation of vessels&raquo_space; hematochezia

older patient

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107
Q

Most common cause of ileus

A

post surgical

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108
Q

What can cause rectal prolapse in children

A

whooping cough
Entrobius vermicularis
CF

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109
Q

What part involves HNPCC vs FAP

A

ascending colon

descending colon

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110
Q

Total copper levels in wilson’s

A

down

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111
Q

Microbiotic to kill gut microbes for ammonia treatment

A

rifaximin

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112
Q

Copper tx

A

penicillamine

Trientine

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113
Q

What virus can cause cholististis w/o obstruction

A

CMV

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114
Q

Pancreatitis causes

A

I GET SMASHED

Idiopathic
Gallstones
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune / Alcohol

Hyperlipidemia
ERCP
Drugs

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115
Q

Chronic pancreatitis amylase and lipase levels

A

normal or down

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116
Q

Dissociation example

A

Husband dies and then months later wife feel bad.

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117
Q

Consent for minors exceptions

A 
Emergencies
Contraceptions
STD management
Medical care during pregnancy
Drug addiction management
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118
Q

Exceptions to confidentiality

A

Notifiable diseases (stds, tb, hep food poisoning)
Harm to other / self
Impaired driver

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119
Q

What is a common histologic finding in rheumatic heart disease. What is this finding?

A

Aschoff bodies.

Non-caseating granulomas

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120
Q

What is the molecule that goes down in hemolysis

A

haptoglobin (binds hemoglobin)

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121
Q

Platelets life span

A

8-10 days

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122
Q

Length of bento time

Triazolam
Diazapam
Flurazepam
Lorazepam
Chlordiazepoxide
A 
Short
Long 
Long 
Intermediate
Long
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123
Q

Filtration fraction equation

A

FF = GFR / RPF

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124
Q

What is the most common defect in CF? What is actually wrong?

A

delatF508&raquo_space;> defect in postranslational processing

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125
Q

When would they use a crossover study?

A

When it would be unethical to not give the other group a treatment.

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126
Q

Which cells do CMV vs EBV infect?

A

CMV&raquo_space; monocytes

EBV&raquo_space; b-cells

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127
Q

In a very severe mitral stenosis the A2 - Opening snap becomes

A

shorter

128
Q

Pulmonary dypsnea regulated by what receptors

A

J receptors

129
Q

Ejection fraction equation

A

SV / EDV

130
Q

Bupropion is contraindicated

A

Bulletins due to decrease seizure threshold

131
Q

In ARDS what is the PCWP

A

Normal

132
Q

Timeline for pathological grief

A

Over 6 months

133
Q

How long does PTSD last

A

Over 1 month

134
Q

Defining characteristic of a personality disorder

A

Person is not aware of it

135
Q

Orphan annie eyes

A

Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

136
Q

How to calculate the expected birth date

A

Plus 1 year
Minus 3 months
Plus 7 days

137
Q

Adrenal cortex derived from

A

Mesoderm

138
Q

What is aplasia? How is this different than agenesis?

A

Aplasia&raquo_space;> no organ but primordial tissue

Agenesis&raquo_space;> no organ, no primordial tissue

139
Q

Teratogen causing bone defects

A

Warfarrin

140
Q

Teratogen causing absence of digits

A

Alkylating agents

141
Q

Kid is born with skin missing on top of head. What drug caused this? What are its other SEs

A

Methimazole

Skin rash
Aplastic anemia
Hepatotoxicity (propylthiouraci)

142
Q

Phenytoin and Carbemazopine SEs

A 
Fingernail hypoplasia
Neural tube
Craniofacial
Microcephaly (phenytoin)
Distal tip hypoplasia (phenytoin)
143
Q

Methimazole SEs

A

Aplasia cutis congenita

144
Q

Rubella SEs

A

Blueberry rash
PDA
Sensorineural defects (hearing loss)
Cataracts

145
Q

Diestylstilestrol SEs… 2 defects

A

Limb malformations

Mullerian tube defects

146
Q

Xray congenital defects

A

Microencepholopathy

Mental retardation

147
Q

What week does the allantois form

A

3rd week

148
Q

Normal menstrual cycle

A

21 - 35 weeks

149
Q

What causes constriction of the spiral arteries

A

F2alpha prostaglandin

150
Q

Mittelschmerz is what… Why?

A

Pain associated with ovulation. Blood irritating the peritoneum.

151
Q

What type of metabolic disturbance (pH) can you get with pregnancy?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

152
Q

Drug to slow contractions

A

Terbutaline (beta 2 agonist)

153
Q

Cutoff for mifopristone

A

30-35 days

154
Q

3 functions of iodine peroxidase

A

1) oxidation I-&raquo_space; I2
2) organification combining I2 and TG&raquo_space; MIT/ DIT
3) Iodination combining MIT / DIT&raquo_space; T3/T4

155
Q

Low uptake of radio nucleotide iodine

A

thyroiditis

iodine exogenous

156
Q

Endocrine tumor where old woman with dysphonia and dysphagia dies 1 month after diagnosis

A

Anaplastic

157
Q

Potassium levels in primary vs secondary hypo adrenal cortical insufficiency

A

high in primary

normal in secondary

158
Q

What is the treatment order for pheochromocytoma

A

1) alpha antagonist - phenoxybenzamine
2) beta blocker - carvedilol
3) surgery

159
Q

Causes of nephrogenic DI

A

1) lithium
2) demeclocycline
3) hypercalcemia

160
Q

Treatment for SIADH

A

Water restriction

Conivaptan / tolvaptan / demeclocycline (ADH antagonist)

161
Q

Diabetes drug that can cause an URTI like symptom

A

DPP4 drugs

162
Q

Most common used drugs for HTN in pregnancy

A

Labetalol (usually for mild HTN)
Methyldopa
Hydralazine

163
Q

Symogi syndrome vs Dawn phenonomenon

A

1) too much insulin at night&raquo_space; high stress&raquo_space; hyperglycemia in morning (think you didn’t take enough insulin)
2) not enough insulin&raquo_space; rebound hyperglycemia

164
Q

Ephephrine high dose affects what receptors? low dose?

A

High - a1 > B = vasoconstriction

Low - B1 and B2 > a = vasodilation

165
Q

Phenylephrine MOA

A

a1 agonist

166
Q

Uses for magnesium? Tx for OD?

A

severe asthma , eclampsia, torsades

Calcium gluconate

167
Q

Dantrolene CU. What distinguishes the two

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome (extreme muscle rigidity)

Serotonin syndrome (GI)

168
Q

Leuprolide alternative

A

Goserolin

169
Q

Cardio malformation of turners

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

Preductal coarctation

170
Q

Estrogen, Testosterone, LH levels in androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

All high

171
Q

Tumor marker of dysgerminoma in females and males

A

females - LDH

males - bHCG

172
Q

Diffuse large B cel tumor metastasizes where? Translocation

A

Testes.

14;18

173
Q

Blue domed on breast histology

A

Fibrocystic change of breast

174
Q

Most breast cancers are due to?

A

Idiopathic

10-15% (BRCA1, BRCA2)

175
Q

Keloids are due to an excess of which collagen

A

Type III

176
Q

Most dangerous side effect of Amphoterecin B

A

Nephrotoxicity&raquo_space;

hypokalemia
T wave flattening
ST segment depression

177
Q

Hurthle cells are present in what cancers?

A
  • Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

178
Q

What subunit determines specificity of hormones and what is shared

A 
Alpha = similar shared 
Beta = specificity
179
Q

What causes the LH surge?

A

High levels of estrogen

180
Q

Where does aortic dissection hit during trauma

A

Around the ligament arteriosum

181
Q

Thymidine dimers is associated with? What repair mechanism?

A

Xeroderma pigmetosum

Endonucleases

182
Q

Greatest risk factor for successful suicide?

A

Access to firearm

183
Q

Hairline in turner’s

A

low hairline

184
Q

Urea follows what?

A

Water in the kidneys

185
Q

Loss to follow up is what type of bias

A

Selection bias

186
Q

Young girl, never menstruated, palpable mass in front of rectum

A

Imperforate

187
Q

Schiver duval

A

Yolk sac tumor

188
Q

Granulosa tumors on histology

A

Call exner bodies

189
Q

What type of receptor and signaling is the insulin receptor

A

Intrinsic tyrosine kinase

MAP kinase

190
Q

What hormones use the receptor tyrosine kinase

A

Prolactin
Interleukins
Growth hormones

191
Q

IP3 using hormones

A

GOAT HAG

GnRH
Oxytocin
ADH (V1)
TRH
Histamine (h1)
Angiotesnin II
Gastrin
192
Q

Non ergots MOA & examples

A

Dopamine agnoists

Pramiprexole
Ropinirole

193
Q

What metabolic disorder could you get with high levels of GH

A

diabetes via insulin resistance

194
Q

What up regulates desmolase? inhibits?

A

ACTH > agonist

Ketocanozole > antagonist

195
Q

What are 17keto steroids?

A

DHEA

Androstenodione

196
Q

What are the cortisol levels like in alpha-21 hydroxylase def, alpha-11 hydroxylase, 17… ACTH?

A

Low cortisol

High ACTH&raquo_space; pituitary adenoma

197
Q

What is cortisol’s MOA intracellularly? What sympathetic action does it stimulate? How?

A

inhibits Nf-kappa-beta

Upregulates SAM to creat more Epinephrine while also increased peripheral sensitivity.

198
Q

What else is produced in the zona fasciculata

A

mineral corticoids

199
Q

How many ways to get increased endogenous cortisol?

A

1) increased acth from pituitary
2) increased acth ectopically
3) adrenal cortical hyperplasia

200
Q

Nelson’s syndrome

A

Bilateral adrenolectomy&raquo_space; leading to skin pigmentation

201
Q

Causes of adrenal insufficiency (addison)

A

1) used to be TB
2) autoimmune
3) mets from lung cancer

202
Q

Hyperthyroidism will result in what for lipid levels? Why?

A

Low levels due to increased LDL expression via thyroid stimulation.

203
Q

MALToma is also known as what?

A

Marginal b cell

204
Q

What are some foods that can act as goitrogens?

A

Cabbage

Cassava (latin american potato?)

205
Q

Biggest risk factors for thyroid cancer

A

Young, male, nodule

206
Q

Most common cause of a thyroid adenoma

A

Mutation in the TSH receptor

207
Q

What type of thyroid cancer will you get with radiation?

A

Papillary

208
Q

Vaptans MOA. What is another drug that works on the same mechanism

A

V2 inhibitors

Demoxycyclonine

209
Q

Growth hormone CU

A

Turner’s

210
Q

Most common complete mole genotype? Partial?

A

46 XX both from dad

96 xxx, xxxy

211
Q

In a quad screen what is elevated?

A

bHcG

Inhibin

212
Q

Causes of empty sella syndrome?

A

idiopathic

Common in obese

213
Q

What is a complication of taking too much of the endometrium out?

A

Asherman syndrome

214
Q

Serous cyst adenoma looks like what on histology?

A

ciliated fallopian tube

215
Q

Name two conditions that can result in thymic aplasia

A

Digeorge

SCID

216
Q

Elastin associated congenital disorder

A

Marfan (fibrilin 1)

217
Q

Conditions related to pulsus peridoxis

A 
Cor pulmonale
Chronic pericarditis
Acute Tamponade
Severe obstructive lung disease
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
218
Q

In a patient presenting with sudden onset of mania after treatment with a psych drug&raquo_space;> what drug should be considered

A

Antidepresents

219
Q

Arachidonic acid product that increases uterine tone

A

PGE2

PGF2alpha

220
Q

Arachidonic acid product that decreases bronchial tone

A

PGI2

221
Q

Arachidonic acid that decreases platelet aggregation

A

PGI2

222
Q

Arachidonic acid product that decreases uterine tone

A

Prostocylcin2

PGI2

223
Q

Arachidonic acid product that decreases vascular tone

A

PGI2

224
Q

Things that elevate ESR

A 
Most anemias
Infections
Inflammation
Cancer
Pregnancy
Autoimmune disorders
225
Q

Things that lower ESR

A

Sickle cell
Polycythemia (dilute aggregation factors)
CHF

226
Q

How does polycythemia affect ESR? Why?

A

Lowers

Dilutes aggregation factors

227
Q

What cytokine is important for maintaining granulomas? What other cytokine is important in this process but not in maintaining granulomas?

A

TNFalpha

Interferon gamma&raquo_space;> activates macrophages

228
Q

Most abundant amino acids in elastin? Composition that is different than collagen?

A

Proline
Glycine
Non-hydroxylated

229
Q

What amino acids are modified in the golgi apparatus?

A

Serine
Theroinine
Asparagine

230
Q

Job Syndrome is also known as? What are its characteristics? What transcription factors / cells are affected?

A

Hyper IgE syndrome
Defective Th17 due to STAT3 mutation&raquo_space; impaired neutrophil recruitment
FATED

Coarse facies
Cold staph abscesses
Retained primary teeth
Increased IgE
Der problems (eczema)
231
Q

Histological characteristics of an ependyoma?

A

Perivasucular rosettes

Blepharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies)

232
Q

What is the order of electrophoresis of hemoglobin pathologies in sickle?

A

Hemo A > Hemo S > Hemo C

233
Q

How to treat huntingtons disease

A

Haloperidol / olanzapine

Tetrabenazine (inhibits dopamine release)

234
Q

Treatment for MPTP exposure. How will it present?

A

Parkinson’s like behavior due to dopamine destruction.

Selegiline

235
Q

Ataxia talengiectasia Vs friedrich ataxia

A

FA&raquo_space; gaa, cardiomyopathy, iron problems

AT&raquo_space; increased lymphoma/leukemia, atm gene, DNA repair problems

236
Q

Complement for neutrophil chemotaxis

A

C5a

237
Q

Superficial slowly adapting fibers? Rapid?

A

Slow&raquo_space; merkel

Fast&raquo_space; me issuers

238
Q

Deep layer slowly adapting fiber. Rapid

A

Slow&raquo_space; ruffini

Rapid&raquo_space; pacinian

239
Q

Xeroderma pigmetosum due to what non functional enzyme? What molecular misdunction is HNPCC due to?

A

Endonuclease

3->5 exonuclease&raquo_space;> mismatch

240
Q

Antipsychotics SEs

A

Thioridazine&raquo_space; retinal deposits
Chlorpromazine&raquo_space; corneal deposits
Ziprasidone&raquo_space; prolonged QT
olanzapine&raquo_space; weight gain

241
Q

Congenital heart deformation associated with berry aneurysms?

A

Coarctation

242
Q

Opioid cough suppressing commonly use with the expectorant guafenesin

A

Dextromethorphan

243
Q

Opioid used in the treatment of diarrhea

A

Loperamide

244
Q

Opioid receptor antagonist

A

Naloxone

Naltrexone

245
Q

Nonaddictive week opioid agonist

A

Tramadol

246
Q

Partial opioid agonist that causes less respiratory depression

A

Butophanol

247
Q

AAs w/ 3 titratable protons

A 
Histidine
Argininine
Lysine
Aspartate
Glutamate
Cysteine
Tyrosine
248
Q

What type of ASD in down’s syndrome

A

Ostium primum type

249
Q

Recombinant form of BNP

A

Nesiritide

250
Q

Nesiritide effects

A

Dialates arteries & veins via cGMP

251
Q

Tachyplexus

Permissive

A
  • Drug response w/ repeated administration

- Alows another substance to achieve full response

252
Q

Bilateral postauricular lymphadonopathy

A

Rubella

253
Q

What does rabies bind to to enter neuron

A

Nicotonic acetylcholine receptor

254
Q

Hematuria in children? What strains? Structure?

A

Adeno virus
11 / 12 serotype B
Non-enveoloped, dsDNA, linear, Icosahedral

255
Q

Prophylactic tx of N. meningitis

A

Rifampin

256
Q

TPA antidote

A

Amincaproic acid

257
Q

Curves of venous pulse

A

a, c, v

258
Q

Diphenoxylate MOA & CU

A

Mu agonist

Decrease gut motility&raquo_space; diarrhea treatment

259
Q

What distinguishes HUS vs TTP clinically

A

TTP (neurological)

HUS (renal)

260
Q

What else is microsomal monooxygenase called?

A

CYP450

261
Q

What is a southwestern blot?

A

DNA binding proteins

262
Q

What is mycelia acid structurally described as?

A

long, branched lipids

263
Q

What section of lungs will degrade with chronic rejection?

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans

Bronchioles

264
Q

Bluish neoplasm under fingernails ddx?

A

Glomangioma&raquo_space; vessels responsible for shunting blood away

Melanomas

265
Q

Manifestations of hence schonlen purpura

A 
Abdo pain
Joint pain 
ower extremity from skin
Palpable purpura 
Hematuria
266
Q

Cytokines most responsible for vessel growth

A

VEGF

FGF

267
Q

Another name for IGF-1

A

Somatomedin C

268
Q

Isolated left sided vocal cord problems

A

Compression of recurrent largyneal by L atrium&raquo_space; other syndrome

269
Q

Tumor markers

A

CEA - colorectal, pancreatic
CA 19-9 - pancreatic
CA 125 - ovarian cancer

270
Q

Description of partial mole.

Which has increased risk of malignancy.

A

Grossly enlarged villi
XXX or XXY
Full

271
Q

Homeobox codes for?

A

Transcription factor

272
Q

Erythema grangrinosum description

Organism

A

Haloed redness with ulcerated necrosis in center

Pseudomonas

273
Q

Lyme disease tx

A

Doxy or penecillin

274
Q

Rifampin MOA

A

inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

275
Q

Burger vs buerger disease

A

Burger&raquo_space; iga nephropathy

Buerger&raquo_space; vasculities

276
Q

Bacteria invading schwann cells

A

Mycobacterium leprae

277
Q

Metabolism of ethylene glycol to what?

A

Oxalate crystals

278
Q

ESR what increases it?

Decreases?

A

h

279
Q

What enzyme removes RNA primers? What is special about its exonuclease?

A

DNA polymerase I

5 to 3’ exonuclease

280
Q

Atypical depression characteristics

A

Mood reactivity
Rejection sensitivty
Increased sleep & appetite

281
Q

With respect to inhaled anesthetics… the smaller amount needed to sat blood means what in terms of its onset?

A

Rapid

282
Q

What type of inheritance for red ragged fibers

A

Mitochondrial

283
Q

Hemicholinium MOA

A

Inhibits choline transport into axon

284
Q

Aortic regurg will show what on BP

A

wide pp&raquo_space;> diastolic drops

285
Q

Which murmur radiates to axilla?

A

Mitral regurge

286
Q

Psych questions for reflection? Facilitation?

A

Repeat & Paraphrase

“and then what happened?”

287
Q

Terbinafine MOA?

A

inhibits squalene epoxidase

288
Q

Catalase positive organisms

A 
Staph
Burkhaderin capacia
serratia marescens
Nocardia
Aspergillus
289
Q

Hydrophobic AAs

A 
Valine
Alanine
Isoleucine
Methionine
Phenylalanine
290
Q

NSAID use&raquo_space; kidneys?

What is the stem??

A

Chronic interstitial nephritis

Chronic joint pain&raquo_space; kidneys

291
Q

Nitrate given PO w/ 100% BA

A

Isosorbide mononitrates

292
Q

Unusually w/ SIADH what is seen? What about JVP?

A

normal

293
Q

How is cysteinuria detected? What change in color

A

cyanide - nitroprusside test

red-purple

294
Q

What is another word for precision

A

reliable

295
Q

Gestational diabetes is due to def in what enzyme?

A

glucokinase

296
Q

What is used in an acute gout? Contraindicated

A

Colchicine

297
Q

Fenoldopam MOA? CU?

A

Dopamine 1 receptor agonist

Arteriolar dialation and natriuresis&raquo_space; only IV drug that improves renal perfusion

298
Q

Fenoldopam MOA? CU?

A

Dopamine 1 agonist

Arteriolar dialation

299
Q

Enfuvirtide MOA? What are a class of antiretrovirals that do not need phosphorylation? examples of this class?

A

Gp41 binder

Nevirapibe, efavirenz, delavirdine

300
Q

Autoimmune small cell lung cancer

A

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

Lambert eaton

301
Q

Cholesterol synthesis enzyme? Positive factor? Negative?

A

Hmg coa reductase
Thyroxine, insulin
Cholesterol, glucagon

302
Q

Ketone synthesis enzyme?

A

Hmg coa synthase

303
Q

Ethambutol MOA

A

Inhibits arabinosyl transferase (arabinosyl polymerization to arabinogalactan - constituent of bacterial mycolic cell wall)

304
Q

Tx for anaphylactic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Septic shock

Also what receptors do they act on?

A

Epinephrine
Dobutamine
NE

305
Q

What is the big negative SE of NE?

A

Decreased renal perfusion

306
Q

What biochemical process changes cytosol to Uracil

A

deamination

307
Q

AA necessary for purine synthesis?

A

glycine
aspartate
glutamine

308
Q

Another name for DOPA

A

Dihydroxyphenylalanine

309
Q

Drug that inhibits DOPA carboxylase? What is this enzyme’s substrate and product?

A

Carbidopa

DOPA&raquo_space; dopamine

310
Q

Examples of co-dominant diseases?

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin

Blood groups

311
Q

Another name for 2 hit hypothesis?

A

Loss of heterozygosity

312
Q

What is Mccune albright? What genetic expression pattern is this? Lethal if?

A

Precocious puberty, Single side cafe au last, Polyostatic fibrous dysplasia

Mosaicism

Lethal if the mutation is somatic but survivable if mosaic pattern

313
Q

Mutation at different loci but with same phenotype? Examples?

A

Locus heterogeneity

Albinism, Marfans (men2b, homocystenuria)

314
Q

Phase 1 metabolism biochemical processes? Characteristics of metabolites?

A

hydrolysis, oxidation, reduction
Slightly polar, water soluble, still active
Elderly lose first
Cyp450

315
Q

Phase 2 metabolism biochemical processes? Characteristics of metabolites?

A

methylation, acetylation, glucoronidation sulfation

very polar, inactive, renaly excreted

316
Q

Liber bipsy on a 23 year old woman w/ elevated levels of LFM-1 antibodies

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

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