reduced exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Decreased liver protein synthesis would cause the amount of ________ and ________ in the blood to be decreased.

A. RBCs; WBCs
B. thromboplastin; RBCs
C. albumin; fibrinogen
D. platelets; albumin

A

C. albumin; fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The most common type of anemia is ________.

A. Polycythemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Aplastic anemia

A

C. Iron-deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient demonstrates symptoms of consistent fatigue and lethargy with low blood pressure and elevated heart rate. Which of the following represents a correctly matched disease and cause that might be responsible for his condition?

A. Thrombocytosis; low dietary intakes of iron

B. Leukocytosis; acute bacterial infection

C. Polycythemia; damage to bone marrow

D. Iron-deficiency anemia; low dietary intake of iron

A

D. Iron-deficiency anemia; low dietary intake of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In anemia, 2,3-DPG is ________ and oxygen affinity is ________.

A. increased; decreased
B. decreased; decreased
C. increased; increased
D. decreased; increased

A

A. increased; decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aspirin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing ________.

A. thrombin formation
B. fibrin formation
C. clot retraction
D. platelet plug formation

A

D. platelet plug formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the role of serotonin in blood clotting?

A. Causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to slow loss of blood
B. Causes platelets to become sticky
C. Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
D. Enhances the platelet release reaction

A

A. Causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to slow loss of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The final protein that forms a blood clot is ________.

A. thromboplastin
B. thrombin
C. fibrin
D. plasmin

A

C. fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ____ of the heart are involved with ____.

A. Left side; circulating blood high in carbon dioxide and low in oxygen
B. Atria; receiving deoxygenated blood
C. Atria, ejecting blood from the heart
D. Ventricles; moving blood into major arteries

A

D. Ventricles; moving blood into major arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Left side heart failure may be caused by ________.

A. myocardial infarction
B. aortic valve stenosis
C. incompetent aortic and mitral valves
D. All of the choices are correct.

A

D. All of the choices are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Imagine a patient with a stiff, non-compliant left ventricle is prescribed a medication that acts as an agonist to norepinephrine. The medication would be effective because ________.

A. blood pressure would increase, moving blood through the circulatory system more rapidly

B. cardiac output would increase, forcing the ventricle to become more compliant

C. heart rate would increase, compensating for the reduced stroke volume

D. heart rate would decrease, reducing the workload on the heart

A

C. heart rate would increase, compensating for the reduced stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the ________.
A. cardiac output
B. end-diastolic volume
C. stroke volume

A

C. stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ejection fraction for an individual whose stroke volume is 45 ml of blood would be ________. This would ________ meet the body’s demand for blood flow.
A. 10%; inadequately
B. 75%; adequately
C. 40%; inadequately
D. 60%; adequately

A

C. 40%; inadequately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, ventricular pressure is ________.

A. Increasing
B.Unchanged
C. decreasing

A

A. Increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation ________.
A. atrial pressure is less than ventricular pressure
B. ventricular pressure is increasing
C. the atrioventricular valves are open
D. left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure

A

A. atrial pressure is less than ventricular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Myocardial cells exhibit a plateau phase instead of quickly repolarizing. This is due to ________.

A. inward diffusion of calcium through slow Ca2+channels

B. inward diffusion of potassium through voltage-gated K+ channels

C. inward diffusion of sodium through fast Na+channels

D.outward pumping of sodium by the Na+/K+ pump

A

A. inward diffusion of calcium through slow Ca2+channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The S-T segment of an ECG represents ________.

A. the plateau phase of the myocardial action potential

B. atrial depolarization

C. ventricular depolarization

D. passage of the electrical impulse to the atrioventricular node

A

A. the plateau phase of the myocardial action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Norepinephrine is released from ________ neurons, causing heart rate to ________.

A. sympathetic; decrease

B. sympathetic; increase

C. parasympathetic; decrease

D. parasympathetic; increase

A

B. sympathetic; increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will ___________.

A.Increase the rate of depolarization in the ventricles
B.Increase conduction rate between the SA and AV nodes
C.Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
D. All of the choices are correct

A

D. All of the choices are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Increased sympathetic stimulation will cause ________.

A. vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
B. decreased blood volume
C. increased GFR
D. increased urine production

A

A. vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stroke volume is directly proportional to ________.

A. total peripheral resistance
B. contractility
C. preload
D. Both preload and contractility are correct.

A

D. Both preload and contractility are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Imagine a patient with a stiff, non-compliant left ventricle is prescribed a medication that acts as an agonist to norepinephrine. The medication would be effective because ________.

A. blood pressure would increase, moving blood through the circulatory system more rapidly
B. cardiac output would increase, forcing the ventricle to become more compliant
C. heart rate would increase, compensating for the reduced stroke volume

A

C. heart rate would increase, compensating for the reduced stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stroke volume is inversely proportional to ________.
A. preload
B. contractility
C. Both preload and contractility are correct.
D. total peripheral resistance

A

D. total peripheral resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stroke volume is a direct result of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. Cardiac contractility
B.End-diastolic volume
C.Total peripheral resistance
D. Emotional stress

A

D. Emotional stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cardiac output is equal to _____.

A. Stroke volume + cardiac rate
B. Stroke volume x cardiac rate
C. Stroke volume / cardiac rate
D. Stroke volume - cardiac rate

A

B. Stroke volume x cardiac rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cardiac output would be increased by ________.

A. parasympathetic agonists
B. positive chronotropic agents
C. sympathetic antagonists
D. negative inotropic agents

A

B. positive chronotropic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cardiovascular changes resulting from moderate exercise include ________.

A. increased total peripheral resistance
B. decreased stroke volume
C. increased cardiac output
D. increased visceral blood flow

A

C. increased cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hydrostatic pressure is ____ and colloid osmotic pressure is ____ at the arterial end of a capillary.

A. Lower; lower
B. Higher; lower
C. Higher; higher

A

B. Higher; lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The ________ is equal to the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the capillaries minus the hydrostatic pressure of tissue interstitial fluid outside the capillaries.

A. net filtration pressure
B. blood pressure
C. osmotic pressure

A

A. net filtration pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the main force that causes fluids to enter the venous end of a capillary?

A. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillary
B. Colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary (blood plasma)
C. Hydrostatic force in the interstitial fluid
D. Colloid osmotic pressure in the interstitial fluid

A

B. Colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary (blood plasma)

30
Q

Glomerular filtration would be decreased by ________.

A. increased mean arterial pressure

B. increased glomerular filtrate protein concentration

C. increased plasma protein concentration

D. decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

A

D. decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

31
Q

The conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II occurs primarily in the ________.

A. liver
B. kidneys
C. adrenal cortex
D. Lungs

A

D. Lungs

32
Q

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like captopril block the formation of angiotensin II, thus reducing ________.

A. renal excretion
B. renal reabsorption
C. vasoconstriction
D. vasodilation

A

C. vasoconstriction

33
Q

A decrease in total peripheral resistance would cause blood flow to ________.

A.decrease
B.remain unchanged
C.increase

A

C.increase

34
Q

Increased baroreceptor response will lead to which of the following homeostatic responses?

A.Increased epinephrine release

B.Decreased total peripheral resistance

C. Decreased acetylcholine release

D. Increased ADH and aldosterone release

A

B. Decreased total peripheral resistance

35
Q

Net filtration would be decreased by ________.

A.liver damage
B.increased cellular metabolism
C.hypotension
D.increased hepatic protein synthesis

A

C.hypotension

36
Q

Hypotension would induce ________ afferent arterioles.

A. vasodilation of
B. no change in
C. vasoconstriction of

A

A. vasodilation of

37
Q

A failure of blood pressure to increase upon standing is known as ____.

A. Postural tachycardia
B. Postural hypotension
C. Postural atherosclerosis
D. Postural bradycardia

A

B. Postural hypotension

38
Q

Ventilation would be decreased by decreasing the activity of ____.

A. Type II alveolar cells
B. Type I alveolar cells
C. Alveolar macrophages
D. None of the choices are correct

A

A. Type II alveolar cells

39
Q

Fluid secretion by lung cells is due to ________ alveolar cells.

A. active transport of Cl- out of
B. passive transport of HCO3- out of
C. active transport of Na+ out of
D. active transport of Na+ into

A

A. active transport of Cl- out of

40
Q

Quiet inspiration will ________ thoracic and lung volume and ________ intrapulmonary pressure.

A. increase; increase
B. increase; decrease
C. decrease; decrease
D. decrease; increase

A

B. increase; decrease

41
Q

Quiet expiration is caused by ________.

A.contraction of the internal intercostals
B.contraction of the scalenes
C.contraction of the external intercostals
D.lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure

A

D.lung recoil and increased intrapulmonary pressure

42
Q

Identify the true statement regarding gas concentrations in the pulmonary system.

A.Blood in the pulmonary veins is low in oxygen.

B.Blood in the pulmonary veins is high in carbon dioxide.

C.The oxygen concentration of inspired air is higher than that of alveolar air.

D.All of the choices are correct.

A

C.The oxygen concentration of inspired air is higher than that of alveolar air.

43
Q

Why would an individual with atopic allergic asthma experience difficulty breathing?

A. Mast cells, which stimulate vasodilation of the airways, are less active in persons with allergies

B. IgE antibodies bind to the inhaled antigens, causing an inflammatory reaction that decreases gas exchange

C. Leukotrienes cause constriction of the bronchioles, producing airway obstruction

A

C. Leukotrienes cause constriction of the bronchioles, producing airway obstruction

44
Q

Which of the following is an inflammatory cell associated with COPD but NOT asthma?

A. Eosinophils
B. Mast cells
C. Helper T cells
D. Cytotoxic T cells

A

D. Cytotoxic T cells

45
Q

Blood flow is greatest at the ________ of the lungs and perfusion is greatest at the ________ of the lungs.

A. apex; base
B. base; apex
C. apex; apex
D. base; base

A

D. base; base

46
Q

When alveolar ventilation increases, the perfusion of pulmonary arterioles will ________.

A. remain unchanged
B. decrease
C. Increase

A

C. Increase

47
Q

The ventilation/perfusion ratio is ________ at the apex of the lungs.

A. The same as the base
B. Highest
C. Lowest

A

B. Highest

48
Q

Pulmonary arterioles ____ and system arterioles ____ when PO2 is low.

A. Dilate; dilate
B. Dilate; constrict
C. Constrict; dilate
D. Constrict; constrict

A

C. Constrict; dilate

49
Q

Evaluate the pulmonary pressures provided, and determine what portion of the respiratory cycle is represented.
Transpulmonary pressure = 6 mmHg
Intrapleural pressure = 667 mmHg
Atmospheric pressure = 670 mmHg
Intrapulmonary pressure = 673 mmHg

A. Normal expiration
B. Lung volume is unchanged
C. Normal inspiration
D. Thoracic volume increase with lung collapse

A

A. Normal expiration

50
Q

The guarding reflex allows the urinary bladder to fill by ________.

A. inhibiting parasympathetic stimulation of the detrusor muscle
B. stimulating sympathetic nerves to the internal urethral sphincter to contract
C. responding to stretch receptors in the bladder wall
D. All of the choices are correct

A

D. All of the choices are correct

51
Q

people with diabetes mellitus have glycosuria because ________.

A. the total renal blood flow is low
B. the plasma glucose concentration is greater than the renal plasma threshold
C. they have inadequate amounts of ADH
D. None of the choices are correct.

A

B. the plasma glucose concentration is greater than the renal plasma threshold

52
Q

People with diabetes mellitus have polyuria because they ________.

A. have inadequate amounts of ADH
B. have greater oncotic pressure in the kidney tubules
C. drink a lot of water
D. have inadequate amounts of aldosterone

A

B. have greater oncotic pressure in the kidney tubules

53
Q

Through renal autoregulation, an increase in blood pressure will cause the afferent arteriole to ________ and therefore the GFR will ________.

A. constrict; not change
B. constrict; decrease
C. dilate; decrease
D. dilate; not change

A

A. constrict; not change

54
Q

Na+ reabsorption is a(n) ________ process, while Cl- reabsorption is a(n) ________ process.

A. passive; active
B. active; active
C. active; passive
D. passive; passive

A

A. passive; active

55
Q

Inhibition of the functions of the descending limb of the nephron loop would stimulate ________.

A. decreased Na+ reabsorption

B. decreased water reabsorption

C. increased Na+ reabsorption

D. increased water reabsorption

A

B. decreased water reabsorption

56
Q

The ________ limb of the nephron loop is impermeable to salt.

A. ascending
B. descending
C. both limbs
D. neither limb

A

B. descending

57
Q

Inhibition of the functions of the descending limb of the nephron loop would stimulate ________.

A. decreased Na+ reabsorption

B. decreased water reabsorption

C. increased Na+ reabsorption

D. increased water reabsorption

A

D. increased water reabsorption

58
Q

Depletion of extracellular K+ may induce ________.

A. metabolic acidosis
B. metabolic alkalosis
C. hyperventilation
D. None of the choices are correct.

A

B. metabolic alkalosis

59
Q

The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen ________.

A. decreases as the height above sea level increases
B. is greater than the affinity for carbon monoxide
C. is increased in methemoglobin
D. is increased in response to metabolic alkalosis

A

D. is increased in response to metabolic alkalosis

60
Q

Metabolic alkalosis ________.

A.is induced by hypoventilation

B.may be caused by excessive vomiting

C.occurs when arterial pH is less than 7.4

D.occurs when the partial pressure of oxygen is decreased

A

B.may be caused by excessive vomiting

61
Q

Aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex is stimulated by a(n) ________ in blood Na+ or a(n) ________ in blood K+.

A. decrease; decrease
B. increase; increase
C. increase; decrease
D. decrease; increase

A

D. decrease; increase

62
Q

Interstitial fluid is derived from ________.

A. formed elements
B. cells
C. lymph
D. plasma

A

D. plasma

63
Q

Which of the following is a nonsalt molecule that contributes to the hypertonicity of the interstitial fluid of the renal tubules?

A. Creatinine
B. Protein
C. Xenobiotic molecule
D. Urea

A

D. Urea

64
Q

Neurohypophyseal secretion of ________ stimulates formation of concentrated urine.

A. aldosterone
B. antidiuretic hormone
C. angiotensin I
D. Renin

A

B. antidiuretic hormone

65
Q

The presence of both type-B antibodies and type-B antigens are to agglutination as ________ is to ________.

A. vascular damage; hemostasis
B. hemostasis; clotting
C. coagulation; hemophilia
D. fibrin; fibrinogen

A

A. vascular damage; hemostasis

66
Q

Both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways activate factors that ________.

A. convert prothrombin to thrombin
B. convert fibrinogen to fibrin
C. convert plasminogen to plasmin
D. None of the choices are correct

A

A. convert prothrombin to thrombin

67
Q

Vitamin K is needed for ________.

A. directly stabilizing the fibrin polymer
B. directly activating fibrinogen
C. proper clotting factor function
D. activating antithrombin III

A

C. proper clotting factor function

68
Q

Heart murmurs may be caused by ________. This causes valves to be less compliant, creating difficulty for blood to move from one chamber to another.

A. regurgitation
B. septal defects
C. fibrillation
D. stenosis

A

D. stenosis

69
Q

The pulmonary semilunar valve is to the right ventricle as the ________ is to the ________.

A. right atrioventricular valve; left ventricle
B. aortic valve; aorta
C. tricuspid valve; right atrium
D. mitral valve; pulmonary vein

A

C. tricuspid valve; right atrium

70
Q

What structures keep the AV valves from everting under high ventricular pressure?

A. Semilunar valves
B. Papillary muscles and chordae tendineae
C. Interventricular and interatrial septa
D. Annuli fibrosis

A

B. Papillary muscles and chordae tendineae

71
Q

Norepinephrine and epinephrine open ________ channels inducing a faster diastolic depolarization.

A.HCN
B.fast Ca2+
C.fast Na+
D.voltage-gated Ca2+

A

A.HCN

72
Q

Due to the action of aldosterone, water is reabsorbed because ________.
A. aldosterone opens aquaporins
B. sodium is reabsorbed into peritubular blood
C. potassium is reabsorbed into peritubular blood
D. sodium is excreted in the urine

A

B. sodium is reabsorbed into peritubular blood