Exam 3 Flashcards by Montserrat Gaitan

Testosterone receptors would be ________ in response to anabolic steroid abuse.

A. Inhibited
B. Primed
C. upregulated
D. downregulated

D. downregulated

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Which of the following explain how physical activity can increase cellular sensitivity to insulin?

A. Pulsatile secretion of insulin during the activity leads to upregulation

B. Continuous production of insulin leads to a priming effect on the cells

C. Desensitization of the glucagon receptors, increases the sensitivity of the cells to insulin

D. Upregulation of GLUT4 receptors

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The molecules secreted by endocrine glands that are inactive until changed by their target cells are ___.

A. Prehormones

B. Prohormones

C. Lipophilic hormones

D. Tissue hormones

A. Prehormones

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When two or more hormones work together to produce a particular result, their effects are ________.

A. Synergistic

B. Permissive

C. Inhibitory

D. Antagonistic

A. Synergistic

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How is most thyroid hormone transported in the plasma?

A. As free T3

B. As T4 bonded to globulin

C. As free T4

D. As T3 bonded to globulin

B. As T4 bonded to globulin

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Steroid hormone receptors may be found ________.

A. Both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus

B. In the nucleus

C. In the cytoplasm

D. On the cell surface

A. Both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus

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Steroid hormone receptors form a(n) ________ on their DNA half-sites.

A. Homodimer

B. Heterodimer

C. Autodimer

D. Pseudodimer

A. Homodimer

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Binding of epinephrine to beta-adrenergic receptors in the plasma membrane will activate the ________ second messenger system.

A. IP3

B. DAG

C. Adenylate cyclase (cAMP)

D. Calcium

C. Adenylate cyclase (cAMP)

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Most target organ control on the anterior pituitary gland is due to ________.

A. Positive feedback effect

B. Negative feedback inhibition

C. Positive feedback inhibition

D. Negative feedback

B. Negative feedback inhibition

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Increased circulating concentrations of testosterone would cause decreased secretion of ________.

A. Growth hormone

B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

C. Luteinizing hormone

D. Adrenocorticotropin

C. Luteinizing hormone

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What is the function of prolactin in females?

A. Stimulates milk production in mammary glands

B. Regulates gonadotropin

C. Regulates water and electrolyte balance in the kidneys

D. All of the above

A. Stimulates milk production in mammary glands

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The ________ has a medulla derived from ectoderm and a cortex derived from mesoderm

A. Pancreas

B. Pituitary gland

C. Adrenal gland

D. Thyroid gland

C. Adrenal gland

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The hypersecretion of corticosteroids results in ________.

A. Diabetes insipidus

B. Cushing’s disease

C. Grave’s disease

D. Addison’s disease

B. Cushing’s disease

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Which of the following is a potent mineralocorticoid that helps increase blood volume and pressure?

A. Antidiuretic hormone

B. Norepinephrine

C. Aldosterone

D. Hydrocortisone

C. Aldosterone

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What is the protein found in the colloid of a thyroid follicle?

A. Thyroglobulin

B. Beta globulin

C. Iodoglobulin

D. Gammaglobulin

A. Thyroglobulin

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What is produced when two diiodotyrosine molecules couple together?

A. Both tetraiodothyronine and thyroxine are correct

B. Thyroxine

C. Tetraiodothyronine

D. Triiodothyronine

A. Both tetraiodothyronine and thyroxine are correct

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Goiters can form due to the presence of autoantibodies that exert TSH-like effects on the thyroid. This is the characteristic finding in ________

A. Cretinism

B. Grave’s disease

C. Myxedema

D. Cushing’s disease

B. Grave’s disease

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Cycles of physiological activity that follow a 24-hour pattern are called ________.

A. Biomimetic rhythms

B. Psychological rhythms

C. Circadian rhythms

D. Cerebral rhythms

C. Circadian rhythms

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Damage or destruction of cells of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland would be demonstrated by ________.

A. Increased blood calcium levels

B. Decreased blood glucose levels

C. Decreased thyroxine levels

D. Decreased blood calcium levels

A. Increased blood calcium levels

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A deficiency of dietary cholesterol would decrease the production of ________.

A. Glucagon

B. Melatonin

C. Estradiol-17b

D. Atrial natriuretic hormone

C. Estradiol-17b

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Molecules that are produced within one tissue but regulate a different tissue of the same organ are called ________ regulators.

A. Exocrine

B. Endocrine

C. Paracrine

D. Autocrine

C. Paracrine

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All of the following are considered nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs EXCEPT ________.

A. Acetaminophen (tylenol)

B. Celecoxib (celebrex)

C. Rofecoxib (vioxx)

D. Aspirin

A. Acetaminophen (tylenol)

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What is the action of the signaling molecules activated by the insulin-tyrosine kinase second messenger system?

A. Insertion of glucose carrier proteins into the plasma membrane

B. Hydrolysis of glycogen and secretion of glucose

C. Transport of insulin into the cell

D. All of the choices are correct.

A. Insertion of glucose carrier proteins into the plasma membrane

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Which hormone would be degraded in the plasma, if traveling free?

A. Prolactin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

B. Aldosterone

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Second messenger systems do NOT include ________.

A. phospholipase C
B. adenylate cyclase
C. tyrosine kinase
D. 9-cis-retinoic acid

D. 9-cis-retinoic acid

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Nuclear receptors that have been identified and their genes cloned, but their hormone ligands are unknown are called ________.

A. unknown ligands
B. orphan receptors
C. transcription factors
D. nongenomic receptors

B. orphan receptors

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What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A. Stimulates retention of water by the kidneys
B. Causes large urine volume
C. Causes a darkening of the skin
D. Stimulates loss of water by the kidneys

A. Stimulates retention of water by the kidneys

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The vascular link between the hypothalamus and the ________ is called the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

A. anterior pituitary
B. posterior pituitary
C. thalamus
D. pineal gland

A. anterior pituitary

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Adrenocorticotropic hormone is synthesized in cells that had been part of the

A. neurohypophysis
B. pars intermedia
C. pars tuberalis
D. pars distalis

B. pars intermedia

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Which of the following is NOT one of the three functional categories of corticosteroids?

A. Mineralocorticoids
B. Sex steroids
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Eiocsanoids

D. Eiocsanoids

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The hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids results in ________.

A. Addison’s disease
B. diabetes insipidus
C. Graves’ disease
D. Cushing’s disease

A. Addison’s disease

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Physiological responses to stress would NOT include ________.

A. increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
B. increased immune response
C. increased secretion of glucocorticoids
D. increased secretion of ACTH

B. increased immune response

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Hypothyroidism in adults causes ________.

A. cretinism
B. Cushing’s disease
C. myxedema
D. Graves’ disease

C. myxedema

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Hypothyroidism could lead to elevated prolactin levels because ________.

A. prolactin stimulates TRH production
B. TRH stimulates prolactin release
C. TRH would cause negative feedback to prolactin
D. low levels of T3 and T4 decrease prolactin

B. TRH stimulates prolactin release

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An individual with bulging eyes may be secreting ________.

A. inadequate cortisol
B. inadequate thyroid hormone
C. excessive thyroid hormone
D. excessive cortisol

C. excessive thyroid hormone

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Control of melatonin secretion from the pineal gland requires ________.

A. sympathetic stimulation from the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus

B. activation of melanopsin from ganglion cells of the retina

C. sunlight or lack of sunlight

D. All of the choices are correct.

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Purported beneficial effects of melatonin include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. treating insomnia

B. preventing oxidative damage to cells

C. limiting the effects of jet lag

D. promoting weight loss

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Stomach irritation by NSAIDs like aspirin is believed to be the result of ________.

A. inhibition of PGI2 and PGE2
B. secretion of PGI2 and PGE2
C. inhibition of thromboxane A2
D. None of the choices are correct.

A. inhibition of PGI2 and PGE2

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An asthma attack would most effectively be treated by ________.

A. COX-3 inhibitors
B. leukotriene inhibitors
C. COX-2 inhibitors
D. oral corticosteroids

B. leukotriene inhibitors

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Hormones that can pass through the plasma membrane are ______ and are called _____

A. Polar; hydrophilic
B. Nonpolar; hydrophilic
C. Polar; hydrophobic
D. Nonpolar; hydrophobic

D. Nonpolar; hydrophobic

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The molecules secreted by endocrine glands that are inactive until changed by their target cells are ________.

A. prehormones
B. prohormones
C. tissue hormones
D. lipophilic hormones

A. prehormones

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Proteins that must bind to a nuclear receptor protein that aids in its activation are called ________.

A. coactivators
B. orphan receptors
C. corepressors
D. homodimers

A. coactivators

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Many growth factors use ________ as a second messenger.

A. tyrosine kinase
B. cyclic AMP
C. calmodulin
D. cyclic GMP

A. tyrosine kinase

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Cellular actions of insulin could be inhibited by____

A. Inhibiting translation

B. Inhibiting receptor phosphorylation

C. Stimulating protein kinase activity

D. Decreasing intracellular calmodulin

B. Inhibiting receptor phosphorylation

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Thyroid hormone receptor proteins are found ________ of their target cells.

A. on the plasma membrane
B. in the cytoplasm
C. in the nucleus
D. All of the choices are correct.

C. in the nucleus

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Mutation of the calmodulin gene would alter the ability of ______ to act as a second messenger.

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. cAMP
D. calcium

D. calcium

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The posterior pituitary gland ________.

A. releases its hormones in response to stimulation by hormones from the hypothalamus

B. releases hypothalamic hormones, but does not produce its own

C. synthesizes oxytocin, which plays a vital role in inducing labor

D. regulates the secretion of hormones produced in the anterior pituitary gland

B. releases hypothalamic hormones, but does not produce its own

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Where is oxytocin produced?

A. Pineal gland
B. Anterior pituitary gland
C. Posterior pituitary gland
D. hypothalamus

D. hypothalamus

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Cortisol secretion would cease if the ________ no longer secreted ACTH.

A. hypothalamus
B. posterior pituitary gland
C. anterior pituitary gland
D. adrenal cortex

C. anterior pituitary gland

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The adrenal cortex is NOT involved in the regulation of______.

A. Ca 2+ balance
B. Reproduction
C. Na + balance
D. Blood glucose

A. Ca 2+ balance

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Which of the following is NOT an action of aldosterone secretion

A. Causes loss of K + in urine

B. An increase in blood volume and pressure

C. Raises blood glucose levels

D. Stimulates kidneys to retain Na +

C. Raises blood glucose levels

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What element is necessary for production of thyroxine

A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Chlorine
D. sodium

B. Iodine

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What is the precursor molecule for the three types of adrenal cortex hormones?

A. Adenosine
B. Cholesterol
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin A

B. Cholesterol

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What are the carrier proteins for glucose diffusion into cells

A. Insulin
B. GLUT2
C. Glucagon
D. GLUT4

D. GLUT4

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The ________ has a medulla derived from ectoderm and a cortex derived from mesoderm.

A. pancreas
B. thyroid gland
C. pituitary gland
D. adrenal gland

D. adrenal gland

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Male secondary Sex characteristics would not develop in boys in which the ____ did not secrete testosterone

A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Interstitial cells
C. Both interstitial and sustentacular cells are
D. Sustentacular cells

B. Interstitial cells

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Glucagon does NOT____.

A. promote lipolysis and ketogenesis

B. stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver

C. promote the movement of glucose out of skeletal muscle cells

D. raises blood glucose levels

C. promote the movement of glucose out of skeletal muscle cells

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Which of the following are derived from the precursor arachidonic acid?

A. Thyroid hormones

B. Glucocorticoids

C. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes

D. Adrenal medulla hormones

C. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes

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The regulators which mediate the function of the cells in which they are synthesized from are called ________.

A. endocrine regulator
B. autocrine regulators
C. exocrine regulators
D. paracrine regulators

B. autocrine regulators

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Which of the following inhibits COX3 in the brain, which results in pain and fever reduction.

A. Acetaminophen (tylenol)

B. Aspirin

C. Ibuprofen (motrin)

D. All of the choices are correct

A. Acetaminophen (tylenol)

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Choose the hormone that is NOT classified as a polypeptide or glycoprotein hormone.

A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Cortisol
C. Glucagon
D. Antidiuretic hormone

B. Cortisol

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Which of the following directly initiates the release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum?

A. G-proteins
B. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
C. Calmodulin
D. Phospholipase C

B. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

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cAMP activates ________, which catalyzes the ________ of other enzymes in the cytoplasm.

A. tyrosine kinase; hydrolysis

B. protein kinase; phosphorylation

C. calcium; phosphorylation

D. calmodulin; hydrolysis

B. protein kinase; phosphorylation

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Second messengers generated by the actions of phospholipase C ________.

A. stimulate gene transcription

B. may activate calmodulin

C. are inhibited by the actions of caffeine

D. are stimulated by phosphodiesterases

B. may activate calmodulin

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Explain the decreased fertility commonly found in males with anabolic steroids use.

A. The adrenal cortex will increase production of endogenous testosterone, therefore decreasing sperm production.

B. Exogenous testosterone will trigger a decrease in GnRH.

C. LH and FSH levels will increase in response to the exogenous testosterone.

D.Positive feedback will occur as a result of exogenous testosterone, leading to reduced sperm production.

B. Exogenous testosterone will trigger a decrease in GnRH.

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Pheochromocytomas would stimulate hypersecretion of ________.

A. aldosterone
B. adrenocorticotropin
C. epinephrine and norepinephrine
D. cortisol

C. epinephrine and norepinephrine

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Small amounts of a polypeptide or glycoprotein hormone may cause ________.

A. upregulation of receptors

B. increased numbers of receptors placed in the plasma membrane

C. the priming effect

D. All of the choices are correct.

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Hormones that enhance the responsiveness of a target organ to a second hormone have ________.

A. permissive effect
B. antagonistic effects
C. synergistic effects
D. complementary effects

A. permissive effect

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In the phospholipase C mechanism, most of the increased intracellular calcium comes from ________.

A. outside the cell

B. the endoplasmic reticulum

C. within the plasma membrane

D. extracellular fluid

B. the endoplasmic reticulum

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Prolonged stress may stimulate ________.

A. increased resistance to disease

B. no apparent physiological changes

C. adrenal gland atrophy

D. symptoms similar to Cushing’s syndrome

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What is the function of prolactin in males?

A. Stimulates growth of sperm cells

B. Stimulates milk production in the mammary glands

C. Regulates water and electrolyte balance in the kidneys

D. None of the choices are correct.

C. Regulates water and electrolyte balance in the kidneys

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Which of the following explains why TSH levels are elevated with hypothyroidism?

A. The anterior pituitary does not receive feedback from the hypothalamus, thus increasing TSH levels.

B. The low level of thyroid hormones inhibits negative feedback to the thyroid gland.

C. The hypothalamus decreases TRH release when thyroid hormone levels are low.

D. There is a positive feedback to the pituitary gland, increasing TSH

B. The low level of thyroid hormones inhibits negative feedback to the thyroid gland.

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What is the function of the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract?

A. Transports releasing hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary

B. Transports nerve impulse from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary

C. Transports hormones and nerve impulses from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary

D. All of the choices are correct.

C. Transports hormones and nerve impulses from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary

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The process of steroid hormones binding to their nuclear receptors at half-sites on DNA to initiate transcription is called ________.

A. synergism
B. antagonism
C. translocation
D. dimerization

D. dimerization

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Which of the following is NOT an action of cortisol secretion?

A. Promotes lipolysis

B. Stimulates gluconeogenesis

C. Lowers blood levels of free fatty acids

D. Inhibits glucose utilization

C. Lowers blood levels of free fatty acids

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A child with ________ would be lethargic, shorter than average, have mental retardation, and a low body temperature.

A. cretinism
B. Addison’s disease
C. Graves’ disease
D. dwarfism

A. cretinism

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What amino acid of the protein colloid in thyroid follicles does iodine bind to?

A. Tyrosine
B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Alanine

A. Tyrosine

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The pancreas secretes hormones involved in the regulation of ________.

A. blood glucose
B. growth and reproduction
C. metabolic rate
D. the stress response

A. blood glucose

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Thyroid hormone receptors form a(n) ________ on their DNA half-sites.

A.homodimer
B.heterodimer
C.autodimer
D.pseudodimer

B.heterodimer

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Regulation of mineral homeostasis would be inhibited due to decreased secretion of ________.

A. Dopamine

B. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

C. Corticotropin-releasing hormone

D. Growth hormone-releasing hormone

C. Corticotropin-releasing hormone

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Aspirin reduces inflammation by ________.

A. inhibiting the COX1 isoenzyme

B. increasing production on PGI2 and PGE2

C. inhibiting the COX3 isoenzyme

D. inhibiting the COX2 isoenzyme

A. inhibiting the COX1 isoenzyme

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Skin wound healing would be slowed due to a lack of ________ growth factors.

A. Endothelin
B. Nerve
C. Platelet
D. Epidermal

D. Epidermal

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What is NOT an effect of taking exogenous glucocorticoids?

A. Osteoporosis

B. Hyperglycemia and decreased glucose tolerance

C. Decreased systemic inflammation

D. Autoimmune reactions

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A tumor of the ________ referred to as a pheochromocytoma.

A.pineal gland
B.thyroid gland
C.adrenal cortex
D.adrenal medulla

D.adrenal medulla

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Which of the following would you expect to see as signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A. Accelerated growth

B. Rapid pulse

C. Increased plasma T4 levels

D. All of the choices are correct

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A(n) ________ is an abnormal growth of the thyroid gland due to an iodine deficiency.

A. goiter
B. tumor
C. abscess
D. Keloid

A. goiter

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Choose the incorrect statement regarding calcitonin.

A. It is made by follicle cells of the thyroid

B. It inhibits loss of calcium by bones

C. It lowers blood calcium levels

D. All of the choices are correct

A. It is made by follicle cells of the thyroid

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The placental hormone with actions similar to both growth hormone and prolactin is ________.

A. placental lactogen

B. chorionic gonadotropin

C. chorionic somatomammotropin

D. placental prolactin

C. chorionic somatomammotropin

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Prostaglandins are eicosanoids derived from the fatty acid ________.

A. Palmitic acid

B. Arachidonic acid

C. Linolenic acid

D. Linoleic acid

B. Arachidonic acid

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Which of the following is NOT an effect of glucagon secretion?

A.Glycogenolysis
B.Ketogenesis
C.Lipolysis
D.Glycogenesis

D. Glycogenesis

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Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is true?

A.Prostaglandin synthesis is blocked by the actions of caffeine.

B.Prostaglandins inhibit inflammation.

C.Prostaglandins may contribute to asthma.

D.Thromboxane A2 induces vasodilation

C.Prostaglandins may contribute to asthma.

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Parathyroid hormone functions include ________.

A. causing the kidneys to reabsorb calcium
B. causing the dissolution of calcium phosphate from bones
C. increasing blood calcium levels
D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

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What hormone(s) is/are released when blood glucose levels decrease?

A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Both glucagon and glucocorticoids are correct.

D. Both glucagon and glucocorticoids are correct.

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Blood vessel diameter is regulated by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. bradykinin
B. nitric oxide
C. endothelin
D. platelet-derived growth factor

D. platelet-derived growth factor

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Water-soluble hormones differ from lipophilic hormones, in that ________.

A. water-soluble hormones never enter the cell
B. water-soluble hormone secretion is always under hypothalamic control
C. lipophilic hormones utilize second messengers to impact protein synthesis within the cell
D. water-soluble hormones require transport proteins to reach their target cells

A. water-soluble hormones never enter the cell

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Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Addison’s disease?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Sodium and potassium imbalances
C. Hypotension
D. Skin discoloration (bronzing)

A. Hyperglycemia

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Release of TSH from the anterior pituitary causes ________.

A. thyroid follicle cells produce MIT and DIT
B. thyroid follicle cells oxidize iodide ions to iodine
C. thyroid follicle cells produce calcitonin
D. thyroid follicle cells take up a small amount of colloid, hydrolyze T3 and T4, and release them into the blood

D. thyroid follicle cells take up a small amount of colloid, hydrolyze T3 and T4, and release them into the blood

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To induce full cellular effects, thyroid hormones also require the actions of ________.

A. melatonin
B. 9-cis-retinoic acid
C. adrenocorticotropin
D. somatomedin

B. 9-cis-retinoic acid

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What hormone stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk-ejection during lactation?

A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Oxytocin
C. Prolactin
D. ADH

B. Oxytocin

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Which of the following would be useful for treating someone with hyperprolactinemia?

A. Dopamine agonist
B. PRL agonist
C. TSH antagonist
D. TRH agonis

A. Dopamine agonist

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Over-secretion of growth hormone in children causes ________.

A. pituitary cachexia
B. myxedema
C. acromegaly
D. gigantism

D. gigantism

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Which of the following is NOT one of the three stages in the response to stress?

A. Stage of resistance
B. Alarm reaction
C. Stage of denial
D. Stage of exhaustion

C. Stage of denial

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Destruction of the pancreatic beta-cells would result in ________.

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Graves’ disease
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Cushing’s disease

A. Diabetes mellitus

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Growth would be inhibited by increasing ________ secretion.

A. prolactin
B. thyroid hormone
C. somatostatin
D. Somatomedi

C. somatostatin

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Thyroid hormones bind to receptors that _______.

A. Regulate gene transcription.

B. Activate tyrosine kinase.

C. Stimulate the production of cyclic AMP.

D. Stimulate production of diacylglycerol.

A. Regulate gene transcription.

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Prostaglandins serve many functions in the body. Choose the scenario that demonstrates proper prostaglandin function.

A. Increased pain at the site of an injury.

B. Increased secretion of gastric juices after a meal.

C. Suppressed swelling at the site of a cut.

D. Increased plasma volume.

A. Increased pain at the site of an injury.

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What controls the release of corticoids from the adrenal cortex?

A. Higher brain centers
B. CRH from the hypothalamus
C. ACTH from the anterior pituitary
D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

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Pineal gland production of melatonin is stimulated by the ________ of the hypothalamus.

A. supraoptic nuclei
B. paraventricular nuclei
C. suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. None of the choices are correct.

C. suprachiasmatic nucleus

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Which of the following molecules is NOT part of the thin filament?

A. Titin
B. Troponin
C. Actin
D. Tropomyosin

A. Titin

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Which of the following does NOT increase the strength of the muscle contraction?

A. thicker muscle fiber

B. high number of fibers stimulated

C. increasing the resting length of the sarcomere

D. increasing frequency of stimulation

C. increasing the resting length of the sarcomere

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What structures carry the action potentials into the interior of the muscle to cause muscle contraction?

A. Terminal cisternae
B. Ryanodine receptors
C. T tubules
D. sarcoplasmic reticula

C. T tubules

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The stretch reflex is enhanced in response to activation of __.

A. alpha motor neurons
B. gamma motor neurons
C. lower motor neurons
D. golgi tendon organ

B. gamma motor neurons

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The specialized region of the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction is called the___.

A. motor end plate
B. syncytium
C. varicosity
D. fascicle

A. motor end plate

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The light band of a skeletal muscle is known as the ___.

A. A band
B. I band
C. H band
D. Z disc

B. I band

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The greater the level of physical training, the higher the proportion of energy derived from the oxidation of ________ during exercise below VO2max.

A. amino acids
B. glucose
C. protein
D. fatty acids

D. fatty acids

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The first 1 to 2 minutes of moderate to heavy exercise relies on ________ for ATP production.

A. anaerobic respiration of amino acids

B. aerobic respiration of glucose

C. anaerobic respiration of glucose

D. aerobic respiration of fatty acids

C. anaerobic respiration of glucose

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The biceps brachii causes flexion of the elbow. The triceps brachii causes extension of the elbow, so it is a/an ___.

A. antagonist
B. levator
C. abductor
D. agonist

A. antagonist

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The ________ molecule is attached to dense bodies in smooth muscle cells.

A. tropomyosin
B. actin
C. myosin
D. troponin

B. actin

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Shaking of limbs at rest that disappears during voluntary movement due to damage to the basal nuclei is called ___.

A. resting tremor
B. chorea
C. spastic paralysis
D. intention tremor

A. resting tremor

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Repaying the oxygen debt requires replacing oxygen that was ___.

A. bound to blood hemoglobin and muscle myoglobin

B. needed to metabolize lactate

C. used for tissue warmup

D. all of the above

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Myosin contains binding sites for ________ and ________.

A. troponin; ATP

B. sodium; calcium

C. actin; calcium

D. ATP; actin

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Myasthenia Gravis is a disease characterized by the production of antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors resulting in a decrease of functioning receptors at motor end plates. What would you expect to find as a result of this process?

A. Clonus

B. Hyperactivity of skeletal muscles

C. Chorea

D. Increased frequency of motor neuron firing

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During skeletal muscle contraction, adjacent ________ are pulled closer together as the ________ between them shorten.

A. Z disks; M lines

B. I bands; A bands

C. Z disks; A bands

D. A bands; I bands

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Damage to the lower motor neurons would result in ___.

A. loss of muscle tone
B. clonus
C. heightened reflex responses
D. heightened muscle tone

A. loss of muscle tone

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An increase in plasma creatine phosphokinase could indicate ___.

A. both muscular dystrophy and heart attack
B. muscular dystrophy
C. heart attack
D. liver disease

A. both muscular dystrophy and heart attack

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A muscle contraction against a resistance greater than the force of contraction causes muscle lengthening is called a(n) ________ contraction.

A. eccentric
B. isokinetic
C. isometric
D. concentric

A. eccentric

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A force-velocity curve shows the ________ relationship between the force opposing muscle contraction and the velocity of muscle shortening.

A. increased
B. no
C. direct
D. inverse

D. inverse

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The more moveable bony attachment is the ____.

A. extensor
B. origin
C. flexor
D. insertion

D. insertion

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A muscle that constricts an opening is a/an_____.

A.extensor
B. levator
C.sphincter
D.antagonist

C.sphincter

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What is the structural and functional unit of skeletal muscle

A. Sarcomere
B. Myofibril
C. A band
D. I Band

A. Sarcomere

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While administering an EMG, the technician notices a decrease in the electrical activity being measured. How would this impact the muscle being measured?

A. Force generated by the muscle would increase

B. Electrical activity is unrelated to forced generation of muscle

C. Action potentials frequency would increase in the muscle of electrical activity decreased

D. Force generated by the muscle would decrease

A. Force generated by the muscle would increase

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The prime mover of any skeletal movement is called the ________.

A. Flexor
B. Antagonist
C. Abductor
D. Agonist

D. Agonist

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Each somatic motor neuron with all the muscle fibers it innervates is a ________.

A. Fascicle
B. varicosity
C. sarcolemma
D. motor unit

D. motor unit

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The Ca2+ required for skeletal muscle contraction ________.

A. is released from mitochondria

B. enters the cell due to the opening of voltage regulated Ca2+ channels from the T tubules

C. is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

D. is actively transported into the cell

C. is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ____ at the neuromuscular junction.

A. Norepinephrine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Serotonin
D. dopamine

B. Acetylcholine

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Skeletal muscle cells are formed by embryonic myoblasts. The resulting multinucleated fiber is called a/an ____.

A. Endomysium
B. Striation
C. Syncytium
D. Myoblast

C. Syncytium

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Why does rigor mortis result in muscular rigidity after death?

A. The enzyme that hydrolyzes ATP is no longer being produced; therefore, the myosin heads will not receive the actin filament.

B. The ATP necessary to bind to the myosin head and release the cross-bridge is no longer present.

C. ATP production is no longer possible; therefore, cross-bridges cannot be formed.

D. A buildup of intracellular calcium keeps the troponin molecule free of the active site on actin.

B. The ATP necessary to bind to the myosin head and release the cross-bridge is no longer present.

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When a muscle is stimulated to contract, calcium release channels in the SR will release Ca^2+ via ____.

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Simple diffusion
D. exocytosis

C. Simple diffusion

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Which molecule blocks the myosin head from binding to actin in a relaxed muscle?

A. Titin
B. Troponin
C. Tropomyosin
D. calcium

C. Tropomyosin

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Subunits of skeletal muscle fibers that are composed of sarcomeres are called ____.

A. Transverse tubules
B. Myofilaments
C. Sarcolemmas
D. Myofibrils

D. Myofibrils

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When a muscle cell generates tension but does not shorten, a(n) ____ contraction occurs.

A. Flaccid
B. Spastic
C. Isotonic
D. Isometric

D. Isometric

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In regards to the relationship between resting muscle fiber length and tension generated, ____.

A. Maximal tension is generated when the thick and thin filaments slightly overlap.

B. Maximal tension is generated when the thick and thin filaments do not overlap.

C. The amount of overlap is unimportant in determining maximal tension.

D. Maximal tension is generated when the thick and thin filaments greatly overlap.

A. Maximal tension is generated when the thick and thin filaments slightly overlap.

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Muscle contractions that produce a shortening muscle with a constant contraction strength at a given load are termed ____.

A. Treppe contractions
B. Isotonic contractions
C. Isometric contractions
D. Twitch contractions

B. Isotonic contractions

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Fast glycolytic/Type IIX white muscle fibers ____.

A. Have many capillaries
B. Have a high oxidative capacity
C. Have a high glycogen content
D. Are predominantly recruited during low intensity activities

C. Have a high glycogen content

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Fatty acids provide the majority of the energy for muscle metabolism when a person is exercising at ____.

A. 25% of VO2max
B. 75% of VO2 max
C. 100% of VO2 max
D. 50% of VO2 max

A. 25% of VO2max

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A long distance bicyclist wants to start doing intense strength training for his legs to improve his aerobic endurance. This ____ improve his aerobic endurance, since ____.

A. Will not; resistance training targets Type I fibers, which fatigue quickly

B. Will not; strength training targets primarily Type IIX muscle fibers, which fatigue quickly

C. Will; strength training targets primarily Type IIX muscle fibers, which fatigue quickly

D. Will; strength training targets primarily Type IIX muscle fibers, which fatigue quickly

B. Will not; strength training targets primarily Type IIX muscle fibers, which fatigue quickly

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Muscle repair is due to ____ forming myotubes that fuse to form new muscle fibers.

A. Satellite cells
B. Myofibrils
C. Muscle cells
D. All of the choices are correct

A. Satellite cells

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The pyramidal tracts include the ____ and ____ tracts.

A. Reticulospinal; anterior

B. Anterior corticospinal; lateral corticospinal

C. Rubrospinal; reticulospinal

D. Rubrospinal; lateral corticospinal

B. Anterior corticospinal; lateral corticospinal

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An individual suffering damage to the basal nuclei resulting in a lack of desire to use a limb would be suffering from ____.

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Akinesia
C. Chorea
D. Intention tremor

B. Akinesia

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Random uncontrolled contractions of different muscle groups as a result of damage to the basal nuclei is a symptom of upper motor neuron damage called ____.

A. Babinski’s reflex
B. Intention tremor
C. Chorea
D. Resting tremor

C. Chorea

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In single-unit smooth muscle, ____.

A. Cells do not respond to stretch
B. All cells receive direct autonomic stimulation
C. Cells display pacemaker activity
D. Norepinephrine binds to muscarinic receptors and closes K+ channels

C. Cells display pacemaker activity

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Muscles which move a limb away the midline of the body are ________ muscles.

A. flexor
B. abductor
C. extensor
D. adductor

B. abductor

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Which of the following is NOT true of the relaxation of a muscle fiber?

A. Ca2+ moves from the sarcoplasm to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B. Calcium moves from troponin to tropomyosin.

C. ATP is needed to fuel the calcium pumps.

D. Calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum close.

B. Calcium moves from troponin to tropomyosin.

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What structure runs the length of the sarcomere and contributes to the elastic recoil in muscle?
A. Z disk
B. M line
C. Titin
D. Actin

C. Titin

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Imagine if ATP was no longer available during a cross-bridge cycle. Predict the consequences of this on skeletal muscle relaxation.

A. The active sites on actin would never be exposed.
B. Cross bridges would remain attached after muscle contraction.
C. Ca2+ would be unable to leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum upon depolarization of the sarcolemma.
D. All of the choices are correct.

B. Cross bridges would remain attached after muscle contraction.

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What structure anchors the centers of thick filaments to one another?
A. Actin
B. M line
C. Z disk
D. Titin

B. M line

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The staircase effect or ________ represents a warm up effect due to increasing intracellular calcium concentrations.

A. tonus
B. treppe
C. incomplete tetanus
D. tetanus

B. treppe

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The inability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is called ________.

A. tetanus
B. twitch
C. treppe
D. Recruitment

A. tetanus

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During the first 30 minutes of heavy exercise ________.

A. most energy is derived from glycogen and plasma glucose

B. the percentage of energy obtained from plasma free fatty acids exceeds that of mild exercise

C. the percentage of energy obtained from plasma glucose is less than that of moderate exercise

D. All of the choices are correct.

A. most energy is derived from glycogen and plasma glucose

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Muscle glycogen stores would be broken down during an exercise bout lasting several hours because ________.

A. glycogen can enter the mitochondria and produce more ATP than glucose

B. exercising muscle needs the fatty acids released from glycogen for energy

C. exercising muscle can only utilize glucose for energy for long-term exercise

D. exercising muscle utilizes both glucose and free fatty acids for energy during long-term exercise

Central fatigue is caused by _____

A. decreased H+ concentration in the muscle cells

B. increased glycogen in muscle cells

C. changes in the CNS

D. All of the choices are correct

C. changes in the CNS

Blood lactate will begin to rise when exercise is performed at a rate that is ________.

A. 25% of VO2max
B. 50% of VO2max
C. 85% of VO2max
D. 15% of VO2max

B. 50% of VO2max

Each fascicle of a muscle is surrounded by ________.

A. epimysium
B. sarcolemma
C. endomysium
D. perimysium

D. perimysium

Choose the description of an event that does NOT occur during the cross-bridge cycle.

A. ATP hydrolysis allows for cross-bridge formation.

B. ADP is released at the end of the power stroke.

C. Energized myosin heads bind troponin.

D. A new ATP binding causes cross-bridges to release.

C. Energized myosin heads bind troponin.

What is the lighter area in the center of the A-band called?

A. Titin
B. Z-disc
C. H zone
D. M-line

C. H zone

Myasthenia Gravis is a disease characterized by the production of antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in a decreased number of functioning receptors at motor end plates. Which kind of drug would most likely help with the symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis?

A. A GABA-ergic antagonist
B. An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
C. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
D. A muscarinic antagonist

B. An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

Excitation of the Golgi tendon organ normally causes ________.

A. relaxation of a muscle’s intrafusal fibers

B. contraction of a muscle’s intrafusal fibers

C. relaxation of a muscle’s extrafusal fibers

D. contraction of a muscle’s extrafusal fibers

C. relaxation of a muscle’s extrafusal fibers

If head trauma caused motor deficits to occur, it is likely that ________ was damaged. This would be indicated by the presence of ________.

A. lower motor neuron; weakness
B. upper motor neuron; spastic paralysis
C. upper motor neuron; chorea
D. lower motor neuron; flaccid paralysis

B. upper motor neuron; spastic paralysis

Cardiac action potentials usually originate in ________ cells.

A. septal
B. pacemaker
C. Purkinje
D. chordae tendinae

B. pacemaker

Myostatin is ________.

A. a paracrine regulator that inhibits satellite cell function and muscle growth

B. an autocrine regulator that stimulates satellite cell function and muscle growth

C. an autocrine regulator that inhibits satellite cell function and muscle growth

D. a paracrine regulator that stimulates satellite cell function and muscle growth

A. a paracrine regulator that inhibits satellite cell function and muscle growth

Skeletal muscles at rest obtain most of their energy from the aerobic respiration of ________.

A. glycogen
B. glucose
C. protein
D. fatty acids

D. fatty acids

Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to skeletal muscle fatigue?

A. Accumulation of extracellular K+

B. Increased intracellular K+

C. Accumulation of cytoplasmic PO4^3-

D. Depletion of intracellular K+

B. Increased intracellular K+

The inhibition of an antagonistic muscle so that the agonist can do the intended movement is due to ________.

A. crossed-extensor reflex

B. flaccid paralysis

C. monosynaptic reflex

D. reciprocal innervation

In smooth muscle cells, ________ functions in a manner analogous to troponin.

A. myoglobin
B. tropomyosin
C. titin
D. calmodulin

D. calmodulin

What enzyme is needed to start the cross bridging process?

A. Creatine phosphatase
B. Ca2+ATPase
C. Myosin ATPase
D. Kinase

C. Myosin ATPase

The process by which action potentials cause muscle contraction is known as________.

A. excitation-contraction coupling

B. the sliding filament theory

C. excitation-relaxation coupling

D. cross-bridge cycling

A. excitation-contraction coupling

Muscle fatigue occurs ________.

A. when muscle cell glycogen is depleted

B. when muscles are only partially able to contract

C. due to decreased extracellular K+

D. when muscle cell pH increases

A. when muscle cell glycogen is depleted

If an individual is exercising at a low intensity for several hours, how would the concentrations of substrates change in plasma?

A. Plasma levels of amino acids would increase, as protein breakdown would be needed to fuel continued exercise.

B. They remain stable and unaffected by exercise.

C. Plasma levels of free fatty acids would increase as triglycerides are broken down for sustained energy.

D. Plasma glucose levels would gradually increase the longer exercise continues.

C. Plasma levels of free fatty acids would increase as triglycerides are broken down for sustained energy.

What protein primarily makes up the thick filament?

A. Titin
B. Troponin
C. Actin
D. Myosin

D. Myosin

The movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex requires ________.

A. acetylcholine

B. ATP

C. Na+

D. Ca2+

The series-elastic component of contraction ________.

A. is not provided by tendons

B. is unrelated to muscle shortening

C. provides for elastic recoil when muscles contract

D. absorbs some of the tension of muscle contraction

Slow oxidative/Type I muscle fibers would be the predominant fiber recruited during a marathon run because ________.

A. the rate of twitch is faster in Type I than Type II muscle fibers, which will lead to better race performance

B. the greater number of mitochondria present in Type I muscle fiber would provide sustained amounts of ATP for muscle contraction

C. the increased concentration of myosin ATPase would allow for faster hydrolysis of ATP than Type II muscle fibers

D. the small diameter of the muscles would allow someone to perform work for a longer period of time without fatigue

B. the greater number of mitochondria present in Type I muscle fiber would provide sustained amounts of ATP for muscle contraction

Coactivation of alpha and gamma motor neurons is stimulated by ________ neurons.

A. lower motor
B. inter motor
C. sensory
D. upper motor

D. upper motor

Fast oxidative, Type IIA muscle fibers ________.

A. produce ATP through both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism

B. have a high myoglobin content

C. are small diameter

D. have many capillaries

A. produce ATP through both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism

Alpha motor neurons innervate ________.

A. extrafusal fibers

B. nuclear chain fibers

C. intrafusal fibers

D. nuclear bag fibers

A. extrafusal fibers

Choose the statement that correctly categorizes cardiac muscle tissue.

A. Dense bodies anchor thin filaments.

B. The intercalated discs contain gap junctions.

C. The fibers of cardiac muscle lack branches.

D. The fibers lack I and A bands.

B. The intercalated discs contain gap junctions.

The muscle spindle is associated with ________.

A. extrafusal fibers

B. intrafusal fibers

C. Golgi tendon organs

D. tendons

B. intrafusal fibers

Determine what is needed for the myosin head to undergo a power stroke.

A. Addition of Ca2+ to the head

B. Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi

C. Binding of ATP to the head

D. Release of Pi

Endurance training results in increased ________.

A. number of type IIX fibers

B. muscle mitochondria number

C. lactate production per unit time

D. glycogen depletion during exercise

B. muscle mitochondria number

Which of the following is the most likely immediate effect of high extracellular Ca2+ on skeletal function?

A. Uncontrolled contraction

B. Decreased strength of contraction

C. No effect

D. Inability to contract

A. Uncontrolled contraction

During skeletal muscle contraction, ________.

A. the H band increases in size

B. thin filaments slide across thick filaments

C. Ca2+ associates with tropomyosin

D. myosin heads interact with tropomyosin

B. thin filaments slide across thick filaments

The amount of fat stored inside skeletal muscle fibers is _____ by endurance training

A. Increased
B. Unchanged
C. Decreased

A. Increased

Formation of new sarcomeres and growth of myofibrils requires which of the following proteins?

A. Titin
B. Nebulin
C. Obscurin
D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

For muscle contraction to occur, ATP and its hydrolyzed forms are needed for the ________.

A. attachment of myosin cross-bridges to actin
B. release of myosin cross-bridges from actin
C. pumping of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

An individual steps on a nail with her left foot. In response to this, what reflex responses should occur?

A. Both the flexors and extensors of the ipsilateral side would contract.

B. Only the flexors on the contralateral side would contract.

C. The extensor muscles of the right leg will contract to maintain balance.

D. The flexor muscles of the left leg will contract to maintain balance.

C. The extensor muscles of the right leg will contract to maintain balance.

The decline in physical strength of older persons is due to _________.

A. Decreased size of fast-twitch fibers
B. Reduced density of blood capillaries
C. Reduced muscle mass
D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

What condition of smooth muscle allows it to maintain contraction for long periods of time?

A. Peristalsis
B. Latch state
C. Gap junctions
D. Myogenic activity

B. Latch state

Making a “T” shape with your arms, so that your arms are extended out to your sides, moves ________.

A. the insertion upward
B. the limb away from the midline
C. the insertion outward
D. the limb closer to the midline

B. the limb away from the midline

The pumps that actively transport calcium back into the ________ are called Ca2+ -ATPase pumps.

A. transverse tubules
B. sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. neuromuscular junction
D. None of the choices are correct.

B. sarcoplasmic reticulum

Muscle hypertrophy is due to_____.

A. increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber
B. increased size of the myofibrils
C. increased number of muscle fibers
D. Both increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber and increased size of the myofibrils

D. Both increased number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber and increased size of the myofibrils

Place the tunics of the GI tract wall in the correct order from superficial to deep.

A. Mucosa, muscularis, submucosa, serosa

B. Serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis

C. Serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa

D. Submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis

C. Serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa

What substance is necessary for the hydrolysis of a complex food molecule such as starch?

A. Enzymes specific to carbohydrates
B. Water
C. Both water and enzymes specific to carbohydrates
D. Gastrin
E. bile

C. Both water and enzymes specific to carbohydrates

Acidic chyme is buffered by ________ secreted from the pancreas

A. urea
B. mucus
C. ammonia
D. bicarbonate

D. bicarbonate

Removal of the ________ would NOT impact ________.
A. Stomach; absorption of most foods
B. Stomach; Storage of food
C. Small intestine; Absorption of sugar and protein
D. Large intestine; Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

A. Stomach; absorption of most foods

What structure keeps food from exiting from the nose during swallowing?

A. Soft palate
B. Nasopharynx
C. Epiglottis
D. Tongue

A. Soft palate

What is the function of Paneth cells of the small intestine?

A. Produce lysozyme and defensins
B. Produce mucus
C. Produce digestive enzymes
D. Divide by mitosis to make new mucosa cells

A. Produce lysozyme and defensins

The majority of hydrolysis of disaccharides occurs by the actions of enzymes found in the ________.

A. gastric mucosa
B. saliva
C. pancreatic juice
D. brush border of the small intestine

D. brush border of the small intestine

The outer surface bulges of the large intestine are called ________.

A. colon
B. cecum
C. crypts
D. haustra

D. haustra

Which of the following is NOT a function of intestinal microbiota?

A. Ferment indigestible contents of the chyme
B. Production of vitamin K
C. Hydrolyze proteins
D. Production of B vitamins

C. Hydrolyze proteins

A ________ has the following pattern of circulation: capillaries -> veins -> capillaries -> veins.

A. portal system
B. lobule
C. glomerulus
D. Sinusoid

A. portal system

Inhibition of exocrine pancreatic secretions would result in ________.

A. decreased bile synthesis and secretion
B. decreased insulin secretion following meals
C. stimulation of enterokinase activity
D. presence of an acidic chyme

D. presence of an acidic chyme

Choose the substance NOT produced by the liver.

A. Bilirubin
B. Hydroxylated steroid hormones
C. Uric acid
D. Digestive enzymes

D. Digestive enzymes

Trypsin is activated by the enzyme ________.

A. enterokinase
B. lipase
C. lactase
D. carboxypeptidase

A. enterokinase

Which of the following is NOT an effect of CCK?

A. Inhibits gastric motility
B. Stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate rich pancreatic juice
C. Stimulates contraction of the gall bladder
D. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

B. Stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate rich pancreatic juice

Enterogastrone will ________ gastric function.

A. inhibit
B. have no effect on
C. stimulate

A. inhibit

Which of the following is NOT an effect of gastrin?

A. Stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl
B. Stimulates chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
C. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice enzymes
D. Maintains structure of gastric mucosa

C. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice enzymes

The enzymes for digestion of carbohydrates come from all of the following EXCEPT the ________.

A. pancreas
B. Duodenum
C. liver
D. salivary glands

C. liver

The enzyme with the most basic pH optimum is ________.

A. salivary amylase
B. maltase
C. pancreatic lipase
D. pepsin

C. pancreatic lipase

Lipid digestion and absorption requires the coordinated actions of ________ and ________.

A. lipase; bile
B. water; bile
C. bile; bicarbonate
D. hydrochloric acid; pepsin

A. lipase; bile

Which of the following motility processes is NOT correctly matched to its description?

A. Peristalsis—rhythmic, wave-like contractions

B. Ingestion—taking food into the mouth

C. Deglutition—swallowing

D. Mastication—removal of wastes

A patient underwent a partial gastrectomy. As a result of this procedure, the patient ________.

A. may require regular vitamin B12 injections

B. may experience an irregular increase in hunger due to increased ghrelin secretion

C. may become hypoglycemic due to impaired carbohydrate digestion

D. would have an increased risk of peptic ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease

A. may require regular vitamin B12 injections

What commonly ingested substances are absorbed through the stomach wall?

A. Penicillin and aspirin

B. Alcohol and aspirin

C. Antacid and water

D. Water and alcohol

B. Alcohol and aspirin

Histamine secretion by the stomach would be prevented by the destruction of the ________ cells.

A. enterochromaffin-like
B. D
C. G
D. chief

A. enterochromaffin-like

What is the function of enterokinase secreted by the brush border?

A. Breaks down dipeptides

B. Causes the stomach to produce gastrin

C. Causes release of pancreatic digestive enzymes

D. Activates the protein-digesting enzyme trypsin

The mixing movement of the small intestine is called ________.

A. micturition
B. segmentation
C. deglutition
D. peristalsis

B. segmentation

Surface area in the stomach is increased by ________.

A. microvilli

B. rugae

C. plicae circularis

D. villi

B. rugae

Movement of water out of the large intestine is by ________.

A. active transport

B. cotransport

C. osmosis

D. All of the choices are correct.

C. osmosis

The process of waste removal is called ________.

A. deglutition

B. mastication

C. segmentation

D. defecation

The enterohepatic circulation is between the ________ and ________.

A. liver; stomach

B. liver; intestine

C. liver; pancreas

D. liver; gallbladder

B. liver; intestine

Bile is forced up the cystic duct through the closing of the ________.

A. lower esophageal sphincter

B. pyloric sphincter

C. hepatopancreatic sphincter (of Oddi)

D. ileocecal valve

C. hepatopancreatic sphincter (of Oddi)

Which condition is characterized by a large number of liver lobules being destroyed and replaced by permanent, scar-like connective tissue?

A. Jaundice

B. Cholecystitis

C. Hepatitis

D. Cirrhosis

The ________ reflex inhibits gastric motility.

A. ileogastric

B. gastroileal

C. GLP-1

D. GIP

A. ileogastric

The acidic chyme entering the duodenum initiates all of the following actions EXCEPT the ________.

A. release of serotonin from the duodenum

B. intestinal phase of gastric function

C. release of bicarbonate into bile

D. release of bicarbonate from the pancreas

B. intestinal phase of gastric function

The arrival of chyme into the duodenum begins the ________ phase of stomach function.

A. hepatic

B. cephalic

C. gastric

D. intestinal

Most of the glucose is absorbed in the epithelial cells of the small intestine by ________.

A. osmosis

B. secondary active transport with Na+

C. simple diffusion

D. phagocytosis

B. secondary active transport with Na+

Choose the statement that correctly characterizes the GI tract.

A. The harsh environment in the GI tract allows for the absorption of indigestible materials without harming body tissues.

B. Body tissues are composed of substrates similar to food; thus, they would be degraded by enzymes in the GI tract if exposed to the internal environment of the GI tract.

C. The two openings of the GI tract permit two-way transport of food, which maximizes absorption.

D. All of the choices are correct.

B. Body tissues are composed of substrates similar to food; thus, they would be degraded by enzymes in the GI tract if exposed to the internal environment of the GI tract.

While considered an organ of the gastrointestinal system, the ________ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract.

A. pharynx
B. esophagus
C. small intestine
D. liver

D. liver

Pepsin would not be found in the stomach if the ________ cells were destroyed.

A. chief or zymogenic
B. parietal
C. D cells
D. goblet

A. chief or zymogenic

Functions of the digestive system include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A.absorption
B. deglutition
C. hormone secretion
D. hormone degradation

D. hormone degradation

Somatostatin is produced in the stomach by ____ cells.

A. D
B. Goblet
C. G
D. parietal

A. D

What structure keeps food from entering the larynx during swallowing

A. laryngopharynx
B. tongue
C. epiglottis
D. soft palate

C. epiglottis

Which of the following are hepatic phagocytic cells of the reticuloendothelial system?

A. Hepatocytes
B. Kupffer cells
C. Merkel’s cells
D. Langerhans cells

B. Kupffer cells

Jaundice is characterized by high blood levels of _____, often caused by the obstruction of the bile duct by gallstones

A. Free bilirubin
B. urobilinogen
C. conjugated bilirubin
D. None above are correct

C. conjugated bilirubin

The transport of digested food into the blood or lymph is ________.

A. deglutition
B. absorption
C. segmentation
D. Ingestion

B. absorption

Which of the following disorders occurs as a result of acidic gastric juice traveling up into the esophagus?

A. Gastroenteritis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Gastritis

C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

The combination of chewed food and saliva is called

A. pylorus
B. chyme
C. a bolus
D. Hiatal

C. a bolus

Antihistamines would directly limit the gastric secretion of ________.

A. gastrin
B. hydrochloric acid
C. pepsinogen
D. mucus

B. hydrochloric acid

Slow-wave depolarization triggers depolarization of smooth muscle by opening voltage-gated ________ channels.

A. K+
B. Ca2+
C. Na+
D. Ach

B. Ca2+

Conjugated bilirubin ________.

A. is a water-soluble molecule
B. forms when bilirubin is combined with bile.
C. is converted into urobilirubin in the stomach
D. is produced in the small intestine

A. is a water-soluble molecule

Derivatives of ________ give feces a brown color.

A. stercobilin
B. bilirubin
C. guanylin
D. Cholesterol

A. stercobilin

The liver will detoxify ammonia by converting it into ________.

A. amino acids
B. uric acid
C. ammonium ions
D. Urea

D. Urea

Hepatic places are separated by large capillary spaces called ________.

A. portal systems
B. lobules
C. sinusoids
D. Hepatocytes

C. sinusoids

During the intestinal phase regulating gastric function, ________.

A. gastric emptying is inhibited
B. stomach distension stimulates acid secretion
C. the vagus nerve stimulates gastrin secretion
D. gastric gland secretions are inhibited

D. gastric gland secretions are inhibited

Sensory neurons within intestinal plexuses that travel in the vagus nerve to the CNS are called ________.

A. intrinsic afferents
B. extrinsic afferents
C. myenteric afferents
D. paracrine regulators

B. extrinsic afferents

Protection against atherosclerosis is believed to be associated with an elevated ________.

A. total cholesterol
B. VLDL-cholesterol
C. LDL-cholesterol
D. HDL-cholesterol

D. HDL-cholesterol

Why does the upper third of the esophagus have skeletal muscle in its wall?

A. The first phase of swallowing is involuntary
B. To prevent choking
C. So that peristalsis can occur
D. The first phase of swallowing is voluntary

D. The first phase of swallowing is voluntary

Stress would cause GI motility and secretions to be ________.

A. decreased
B. increased
C. unchanged

A. decreased

Zymogens are inactive forms of ________ enzymes.

A. liver
B. pancreatic
C. stomach
D. small intestine

B. pancreatic

Which of the following zymogens is activated by trypsin in the small intestine?

A. Amylase
B. Carboxypeptidase
C. Ribonuclease
D. Lipase

B. Carboxypeptidase

Removal of the proximal portion of the small intestine should not affect ________, given that this is stimulated by ________.

A. HCl secretion; cholecystokinin
B. pepsinogen secretion; gastrin
C. insulin secretion; gastric inhibitory peptide
D. bile release; cholecystokinin

B. pepsinogen secretion; gastrin

Peristalsis within the intestines is regulated by the ________ nervous system.

A. parasympathetic
B. somatic
C. sympathetic
D. Enteric

D. Enteric

Secretion of enterogastrone is stimulated by ________ in the chyme.

A. acid
B. fats
C. protein
D. Glucose

B. fats

Most protein digestion occurs in the ________.

A. mouth and esophagus
B. stomach and duodenum
C. pancreas and duodenum
D. duodenum and jejunum

D. duodenum and jejunum

Which hormone stimulates ECL cells to secrete histamine, which stimulates HCl release from parietal cells?

A. CCK
B. Ghrelin
C. Gastrin
D. Secretin

C. Gastrin

The stomach churns food into a pasty material called ________.

A. Chyle
B. Chyme
C. a bolus
D. saliva

B. Chyme

The ________ is NOT a section of the small intestine.

A. Cecum
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. ileum

A. Cecum

Choose the physiologic process that should not be compromised by disease of the liver.

A. Hydrolysis of lactose into lactase and sucrase
B. Storage of glucose and fatty acids throughout the body for long-term energy reserves
C. Formation of steroid hormones
D. Maintenance of blood glucose levels during fasting

A. Hydrolysis of lactose into lactase and sucrase

Which of the following is NOT a major constituent of bile?

A. Lecithin
B. Urea
C. Bilirubin
D. Cholesterol

B. Urea

Bile pigment is a derivative of ________.

A. a heme group without iron
B. the globin part of hemoglobin
C. Cholesterol
D. iron

A. a heme group without iron

The negative feedback control of HCl secretion in the gastric phase of gastric regulation is mainly by ________ secretion.

A. Both decrease in gastrin secretion and increase in somatostatin secretion are correct.
B. decline in gastrin
C. increase in somatostatin
D. increase in gastrin

A. Both decrease in gastrin secretion and increase in somatostatin secretion are correct.

Free amino acids are absorbed into the blood stream by ________.

A. simple diffusion
B. cotransport with H+
C. cotransport with Na+
D. facilitated diffusion

C. cotransport with Na+

Choose the molecule that is correctly tied to its digestion or function.

A. Protease: Essential for hydrolysis of triglycerides
B. Mixed micelles: Digestion would be impacted by brush border destruction
C. Chylomicrons: Reformed within the epithelial cells
D. Triglycerides: Ultimately enters the venous system

B. Mixed micelles: Digestion would be impacted by brush border destruction

Wavelike muscular contraction of the gastrointestinal tract is called___.

A. peristalsis
B. deglutition
C. mastication
D. segmentation

A. peristalsis

If ________ were absent, intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 could not occur.

A. calcium
B. vitamin D
C. vitamin C
D. intrinsic factor

D. intrinsic factor

Vitamin B12 is primarily absorbed in the ___.

A. duodenum
B. jejunum
C. cecum
D. ileum

D. ileum

Which of the following is one of the phases of swallowing?

A. pharyngeal
B. segmentation
C. reflux
D. peristalsis

A. pharyngeal

What conditions favor the proliferation of intestinal microbiota in the large intestine?

A. the undigested sugars and amino acids that regularly enter the large intestine
B. the use of antibiotics
C. the presence of vitamin K and vitamin B12
D. the anaerobic environment of the large intestine

D. the anaerobic environment of the large intestine

Secretion of insulin from the pancreas is increased in response to increased ___.

A. guanylin
B. GIP
C. secretin
D. gastrin

B. GIP

In which of the following areas does carbohydrate digestion occur?

A. mouth and stomach
B. mouth and duodenum
C. stomach and pancreas
D. duodenum and pancreas

B. mouth and duodenum

Bicarbonate that protects the duodenum from peptic ulcers comes from all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. pancreatic juice
B. Brunner’s cells
C. adherent layer of mucus
D. stomach

D. stomach

The primary function of the large intestine is ________.

A. hormone degradation
B. degrading toxins
C. water and electrolyte reabsorption
D. mineral absorption

C. water and electrolyte reabsorption

All of the substances listed have an enterohepatic circulation EXCEPT ________.

A. penicillin
B. tetracycline
C. Bilirubin
D. cholesterol

C. Bilirubin

What role do bile salts play in digestion?

A. They play no role in digestion.
B. Needed for water reabsorption
C. Gives color to the feces
D. Emulsify lipids for digestion by enzymes

D. Emulsify lipids for digestion by enzymes

Atrophy of the pancreatic acinar cells could occur in response to ________.

A. increased gastrin secretion
B. decreased cholecystokinin secretion
C. decreased sympathetic stimulation
D. increased secretin secretion

B. decreased cholecystokinin secretion

Cholesterol produced by the liver is transported in the blood as ________ lipoproteins.

A. high-density
B. very low-density
C. medium-density
D. low-density

B. very low-density

Damage to which tunic of the GI tract would directly affect the myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus?

A. Muscularis
B. Mucosa
C. Submucosa
D. Serosa

A. Muscularis

Where does the bicarbonate secreted by the pancreas come from?

A. CO2 in the blood
B. Bicarbonate in the blood
C. Acini cells
D. Pancreatic islets

A. CO2 in the blood

Physiological jaundice of the newborn is due to high levels of _____.

A. Free bilirubin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Conjugated bilirubin
D. None

A. Free bilirubin

If plasma levels of ________ were low, excessive cholesterol may be deposited throughout the body tissues, and cardiovascular risk could increase.

A. high-density lipoprotein

Read the statements about protein digestion, and choose the incorrect statement.

A. If HCl was missing, the stomach could not perform the initial steps of protein digestion.

B. Medication that inhibits the formation of HCl would decrease protein breakdown

C. The low pH provided by HCl secretion allows the pepsin enzyme to be freed from pepsinogen enzymes

D. Protein digestion could be impacted by disease of both the stomach and the pancreas

B. Medication that inhibits the formation of HCl would decrease protein breakdown

Damage to the ________ would reduce GI secretions, while damage to the ________ could impact mastication.

A. hypoglossal nerve; vagus nerve
B. vagus nerve; glossopharyngeal nerve
C. glossopharyngeal nerve; hypoglossal nerve
D. vagus nerve; hypoglossal nerve

D. vagus nerve; hypoglossal nerve

Chewing of food is known as ________.

A. mastication
B. segmentation
C. deglutition
D. peristalsis

A. mastication

Slow waves of the intestine are produced by what type of cells?

A. SXR
B. Gastric
C. Cajal
D. Microflora

C. Cajal

Clotting factors are produced by the ________.

A. duodenum
B. stomach
C. liver
D. pancreas

C. liver

Which tunic of the GI tract is vascular and has many nerves and glands?

A. Muscularis
B. Serosa
C. Mucosa
D. Submucosa

D. Submucosa

Which of the following is NOT true about CCK (cholecystokinin)?

A. Stimulates the production of pancreatic digestive enzymes
B. Released in response to fat and protein in the chyme
C. Controlled through a positive feedback loop
D. Uses cyclic AMP as the second messenger to pancreatic acinar cells

D. Uses cyclic AMP as the second messenger to pancreatic acinar cells

The ________ reflex stimulates increased gastrin activity and increased movement of chyme into the duodenum.

A. GLP-1
B. GIP
C. ileogastric
D. Gastroileal

D. Gastroileal

The first line of defense in the stomach against damaging acid and pepsin is the ________.

A. tight junctions of epithelial cells
B. rapid rate of epithelial cell replacement
C. adherent layer of mucus
D. release of gastrin

C. adherent layer of mucus

The conjugation of nonpolar compounds in the liver makes them ________ and water ________.
A. cationic; insoluble
B. polar; insoluble
C. polar; soluble
D.cationic; soluble

C. polar; soluble

The major stimulus for the secretion of HCl during the cephalic phase of gastric regulation is ________.

A. release of histamine by ECL cells
B. vagal stimulation of parietal cells
C. the hypothalamus
D. vagal stimulation of chief cells

A. release of histamine by ECL cells

Deglutition is coordinated by the swallowing center in the ________.

A. cerebellum
B. brain stem
C. cerebrum
D. spinal cord

B. brain stem

Long folds of the stomach’s inner surface are called ________.

A. gastric pits
B. plicae
C. rugae
D. ghrelin

C. rugae

Converting glucose into glycogen is the process of ________.

A. lipogenesis
B. glycogenesis
C. glycogenolysis
D. gluconeogenesis

B. glycogenesis

Pepsin would have the greatest activity_________.

A. When the pH of the chyme is greater than 3
B. If someone ate a primarily carbohydrate meal
C. When the pH of the chyme is less than 3
D. If someone fasted for hours prior to eating

C. When the pH of the chyme is less than 3

Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium associated with

A. Pancreatitis
B. Acid reflux
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Hiatal hernia

C. Peptic ulcers

Superoxide radicals have which of the following beneficial effects?

A. Killing bacteria
B. Promote proliferation of fibroblasts
C. Promote proliferation of lymphocytes
D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

A free radical has ________ electrons.

A. unpaired
B. bonded
C. Paired
D. unbonded

A. unpaired

Which of the following is a form of enzymatic protection against oxidative stress?

A. Ascorbic acid
B. Glutathione
C. Alpha-tocopherol
D. Hydrogen peroxide

D. Hydrogen peroxide

The metabolic rate of an awake, relaxed person, 12 to 14 hours after eating, at a comfortable temperature is known as the ________.

A. basal metabolic rate
B. metabolic rate
C. average metabolic rate
D. oxidative metabolic rate

A. basal metabolic rate

Prolonged bleeding time may be an indication of a ________ deficiency.

A. vitamin D
B. vitamin E
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin K

D. vitamin K

If an individual consumes excess calories in the form of carbohydrates, the excess energy is stored as ________.

A. glycogen
B. structural carbohydrates
C. skeletal muscle
D. adipose tissue

D. adipose tissue

Formation of new connective tissue after a cut would be delayed due to a lack of ________.

A. potassium
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin E

C. vitamin C

What is the average energy expenditure for a recreationally active male not engaged in heavy manual labor?

A. 1800-2100 kcal/day
B. 2500-2900 kcal/day
C. 3000-3200 kcal/day
D. 3300-3600 kcal/day

B. 2500-2900 kcal/day

The preferred energy source for resting skeletal muscle is ________.

A. fatty acids
B. glycogen
C. protein
D. Glucose

A. fatty acids

Metabolic rate can be measured by the ________.

A. amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body
B. heart and respiration rates
C. amount of heat generated by the body
D. amount of oxygen consumed by the body

A. amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body

Since they are released between meals, ________ are involved in the short-term regulation of hunger.

A. insulin and PYY
B. ghrelin and CCK
C. leptin and CCK
D. leptin and insulin

B. ghrelin and CCK

Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid?

A. Proline
B. Valine
C. Lysine
D. Leucine

A. Proline

What hormone is important in adaptive thermogenesis?

A. MSH
B. Thyroxine
C. Insulin
D. Calcitonin

B. Thyroxine

Which of the following components of energy expenditure is greatest in an average, sedentary adult?

A. Basal metabolic rate
B. Adaptive thermogenesis
C. Physical activity
D. None of the choices are correct.

A. Basal metabolic rate

What is the major function of brown adipose tissue?

A. Shivering thermogenesis
B. Decreasing metabolic rate
C. Nonshivering thermogenesis
D. Decrease body temperature

C. Nonshivering thermogenesis

Starvation decreases metabolic rate by as much as ________.

A. 20%
B. 65%
C. 10%
D. 40%

D. 40%

Decreased leptin secretion should not cause ________.

A. suppression of appetite
B. a decline in helper T abilities
C. delayed onset of puberty
D. menstrual abnormalities

A. suppression of appetite

Insulin resistance may be stimulated by elevated concentrations of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. resistin
B. tumor necrosis factor-alpha
C. retinol binding protein 4
D. adiponectin

D. adiponectin

How much of the blood glucose does the brain use when a person is at rest?

A. 40%
B. 80%
C. 60%
D. 30%

C. 60%

The satiety factor that acts to suppress neuropeptide Y and stimulate MSH release is ________.

A. MSH
B. glucose
C. insulin
D. leptin

D. leptin

Which substance is made by the delta cells of the pancreas?

A. Glucose
B. Somatostatin
C. Glucagon
D. All of the choices are correct.

B. Somatostatin

The major hormone promoter of anabolism is ________.

A. glucagon
B. epinephrine
C. insulin
D. somatostatin

C. insulin

The period between meals is ________.

A. the absorptive state
B. the postabsorptive state
C. the fasting state
D. Both fasting and postabsorptive states are correct

D. Both fasting and postabsorptive states are correct

Increased expression of ________ in the plasma membranes will promote the cellular uptake of glucose.

A. leptin
B. GLUT4
C. glucagon
D. Insulin

B. GLUT4

Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A. Lack of insulin leads to hypertension and decreased fatty acids in the blood.

B. Lack of insulin causes a decrease in glucagon production.

C. Glucagon production will increase, which leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

D. Lack of insulin leads to hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis

C. Glucagon production will increase, which leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

Uncontrolled type I diabetes mellitus has the potential to ________.

A. increase brain glucose utilization
B. induce metabolic acidosis
C. decrease hepatic ketogenesis
D. cause hypertension

B. induce metabolic acidosis

IGF-1 and IGF-2 are known as ________ because they mediate the actions of growth hormone.

A. somatostatins
B. somatomedins
C. somatotropins
D. None of the choices are correct.

B. somatomedins

Lipolysis would ________ as a result of inadequate cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex.

A. decrease
B. not change
C. increase

A. decrease

What hormone provides the major regulation of basal metabolic rate?

A. Cortisol
B. Thyroxine
C. Calcitonin
D. Glucagon

B. Thyroxine

In brown adipose tissue, norepinephrine stimulates ________

A. beta1-adrenergic receptors
B. beta2-adrenergic receptors
C. beta3-adrenergic receptors
D. All of the choices are correct

C. beta3-adrenergic receptors

Growth hormone secretion is ________ during sleep.

A. increased
B. increased, then stopped
C. decreased, then increased
D. decreased

A. increased

Cells synthesizing hydroxyapatite in bones are termed as ________.

A. osteocytes
B. osteoclasts
C. osteoblasts
D. osteosarcoma cells

C. osteoblasts

A lack of vitamin D ________.

A. inhibits PTH secretion
B. stimulates increased calcitonin secretion
C. decreases absorption of dietary calcium
D. causes osteomalacia in children

C. decreases absorption of dietary calcium

If a thyroid tumor were to result in hypersecretion of calcitonin, we would expect ________.

A. a decreased level of osteoclast activity
B. a rise in blood calcium concentration
C. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification
D. increasingly brittle bones

A. a decreased level of osteoclast activity

To mobilize calcium from bone, osteoclasts bind to bone and transport ________ into the bone matrix to dissolve calcium.

A. H+
B. PTH
C. calcitonin
D. phosphate

A. H+

What would happen following a complete parathyroidectomy and no post-surgical pharmacotherapy was initiated?

A. Blood calcium levels would increase to dangerous levels.

B. Blood calcium levels would increase slightly, but not too dangerous levels.

C. Blood calcium levels could drop to dangerously low levels.

D. No net effect on calcium levels over time as the thyroid would enlarge and secrete additional calcitonin to compensate

C. Blood calcium levels could drop to dangerously low levels.

What hormone is necessary for the epiphyseal discs (growth plates) to seal and stop bone growth in length?

A. Leptin
B. PTH
C. Estrogen
D. Calcitonin

C. Estrogen

Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin C

Strict vegetarians may be susceptible to ________.

A. abnormally low blood glucose levels
B. anemia
C. night blindness

B. anemia

A positive energy balance occurs when ________.

A. daily energy expenditure is greater than the calorie intake over time

B. daily energy expenditure is balanced with the calorie intake over time

C. an individual loses weight

D. calorie intake is greater than daily energy expenditure over time

Where is the major site of body energy storage?

A. Inside skeletal muscle cells
B. White adipose tissue
C. Brown adipose tissue
D. Liver

B. White adipose tissue

Lipolysis is increased by ________.

A. epinephrine
B. growth hormone
C. glucagon
D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following is an adipose tissue hormone that stimulates glucose utilization and fatty acid oxidation in muscle cells, thereby producing an insulin-sensitizing, antidiabetic effect?

A. Leptin
B. TNF alpha
C. Resistin
D. Adiponectin

D. Adiponectin

What organ has the most insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in the absorptive state?

A. Skeletal muscle
B. Brain
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Liver

A. Skeletal muscle

Glucose regulation by cortisol would be impaired by ablation of the ________.

A. thyroid gland
B. adrenal medulla
C. pancreatic beta cells
D. adrenal cortex

D. adrenal cortex

Which of the following is caused by the excess secretion of growth hormone in adults?

A. Osteomalacia
B. Myxedema
C. Acromegaly
D. Gigantism

C. Acromegaly

Which of the following is characterized by parallel losses of mineral and organic matrix from bone?

A. Rickets
B. Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease)
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomalacia

C. Osteoporosis

Which of the following would be favorable to bone deposition?

A. Increased osteoblast inhibition
B. Increased PTH hormone secretion
C. Stem cell differentiation into osteoclasts
D. Intestinal excretion of phosphate
E. Increased kidney reabsorption of calcium

E. Increased kidney reabsorption of calcium

Which of the following demonstrates a situation when the metabolic rate in A is greater than in B?

A. A single person in two different thyroid states; A = hypothyroidism, B = hyperthyroidism

B. A single person in two different thermic states; A = exercise induced hyperthermia, B = surgically induced hypothermia

C. A single person running at different two speeds; A = 5.5 mph, and B = 7.0 mph

D. Two different people running at the same speed; person A = 155 lbs, person B = 180 lbs

B. A single person in two different thermic states; A = exercise induced hyperthermia, B = surgically induced hypothermia

Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, proteins, and DNA is called ________.

A. antioxidation
B. oxidative stress
C. inflammation
D. Quenching

B. oxidative stress

Reactions that cause triglyceride storage to increase, and bones of the skeleton to grow longer, would be considered ________.

A. degradation
B. catabolic
C. anabolic
D. Hydrolytic

C. anabolic

What is the major non-enzymatic protective mechanism against oxidative stress?

A. Glutathione
B. Alpha-tocopherol
C. Beta-carotene
D. Ascorbic acid

A. Glutathione

One of the factors that increases body heat during adaptive thermogenesis is the production of ________ by skeletal muscle. This product causes leakage of protons from the intermembrane space of the mitochondria.

A. insulin
B. glucagon
C. glycogen
D. uncoupling protein

D. uncoupling protein

Leptin administration may be helpful for treating a number of conditions. Given its actions, choose the appropriate clinical application for leptin.

A. Administering leptin will signal the hypothalamus to decrease metabolic rate, thereby allowing a thin individual to regain lost weight.

B. Administering leptin should increase hunger in those with eating disorders, leading to greater food intake.

C. Administering leptin will in turn increase ghrelin secretion in those who are leptin-deficient.

D. Administering leptin may help to restore menstrual cycles in women with insufficient adipose tissue.

Activation of the sympathoadrenal system would cause ________.

A. diabetes insipidus
B. hypoglycemia
C. excessive weight gain
D. Hyperglycemia

D. Hyperglycemia

Satiety would be induced by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. ghrelin
B. cholecystokinin
C. Serotonin
D. Naloxone

A. ghrelin

The nuclear receptor protein required for differentiation of ________ is PPARγ (peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor γ).

A. adipocytes
B. fibroblasts
C. erythrocytes
D. Reticulocytes

A. adipocytes

Elevated concentrations of glucagon would result in ________.

A. decreased glycogen synthesis
B. increased gluconeogenesis
C. increased lipogenesis
D. decreased lipolysis

A. decreased glycogen synthesis

Which hormone has no effect on blood glucose levels?

A. Epinephrine
B. Growth hormone
C. Calcitonin
D. Insulin

C. Calcitonin

The hormone that antagonizes the effect of growth hormone on adipose tissue is ________.

A. PTH
B. epinephrine
C. insulin
D. Thyroxine

C. insulin

Growth hormone ________.

A. directly stimulates bone growth
B. inhibits lipolysis
C. stimulates hepatic somatomedin secretion
D. stimulates tissue glucose utilization

C. stimulates hepatic somatomedin secretion

A stressful situation would stimulate ________ gluconeogenesis.

A. no change in
B. increased
C. Decreased

B. increased

Osteoclast (growth or function) is inhibited by ________.

A. calcitonin
B. osteoprotegerin
C. osteoblasts
D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

Which of the following contains the greatest amount of potential energy?

A. A portion of pasta sufficient to raise the temperature of 6 cubic centimeters from 14.5° to 15.5°C

B. ½ teaspoon of peanut butter (contains 4 g fat, 3 g carbohydrate, and 2 g of protein)

C. 70 Calories of lettuce

D. Three grams of fat trimmed from a steak

C. 70 Calories of lettuce

The main factor determining differences in energy requirements of individuals of the same gender and body size is the difference in ________.

A. genetics

B. physical activity

C. body temperature

D. height

B. physical activity

Which condition is NOT found in metabolic syndrome?

A. Central obesity

B. Insulin resistance

C. Hypotension

D. Dyslipidemia

C. Hypotension

Which hormone would promote the storage of triglycerides?

A.Insulin

B. Epinephrine

C. Glucagon

D. All of the choices are correct

A.Insulin

Lipolysis and gluconeogenesis are stimulated when ________.

A. insulin is increasing and glucagon is decreasing

B. insulin and glucagon are both increasing

C. insulin and glucagon are both decreasing

D. insulin is decreasing and glucagon is increasing

Destruction of which pancreatic cells would cause hyperglycemia?

A. Alpha cells

B. Beta cells

C. Delta cells

D. None of the choices are correct

B. Beta cells

Formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules is called ________.

A. gluconeogenesis
B. ketogenesis
C. glycogenolysis
D. glycolysis

A. gluconeogenesis

Which of the following can regulate the skeletal system?

A. Estrogen
B. Testosterone
C. Calcitonin
D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

Which vitamin or mineral is associated with preventing free radical accumulation in the body?

A. Vitamin C
B. Niacin
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin K

A. Vitamin C

Which of the following situations would result in a chronic state of elevated glucagon, decreased insulin, increased growth hormone, increased cortisol, and decreased sex steroids?

A. A menopausal female in the absorptive state
B. A bodybuilder immediately post workout
C. A chronic state of fasting
D. A middle-aged male with metabolic syndrome

C. A chronic state of fasting

Which of the following demonstrate effective treatment of type 2 diabetes?

A. Exercise-dependent GLUT4 carrier translocation, increased glycosuria, increased insulin resistance

B. Exercise-related adipocyte atrophy, fasting blood glucose reductions, and increased insulin sensitivity

C. Exercise-related muscle hypertrophy, increased blood glucose after 2 hours of an oral-glucose tolerance test, and increased fasting insulin levels

B. Exercise-related adipocyte atrophy, fasting blood glucose reductions, and increased insulin sensitivity

Which of the following is NOT an action of parathyroid hormone?

A. Stimulates kidneys to reabsorb calcium
B. Stimulates osteoclasts to resorb calcium
C. Stimulates formation of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3
D. Stimulated osteoblasts to deposit calcium

D. Stimulated osteoblasts to deposit calcium

Choose the process below that does NOT describe a function of water-soluble vitamins and their derivatives.

A. Serving as coenzymes in metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins

B. Forming hydrogen carriers NAD and FAD

C. Intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate

D. Acting as cofactors for enzymes

C. Intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate

Adaptive thermogenesis is the heat energy expended by the body in response to all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A. decrease in ambient temperature
B. digestion of food
C. increase in ambient temperature
D. physical activity

D. physical activity

The actions of parathyroid hormone are antagonized by the actions of ________.

A. vitamin D
B. estradiol
C. calcitonin
D. Insulin

C. calcitonin

Which of the following minerals is needed only in trace amounts by the body?

A. sodium
B. potassium
C. iron
D. calcium

C. iron

Adipose cells are less sensitive to insulin in ________.

A. Individuals classified as obese
B. anorexic individuals
C. individuals who do not exercise
D. individuals at their optimal weight

A. Individuals classified as obese

Which of the following are involved in long-term regulation of hunger?

A. leptin and CCK
B. ghrelin and CCK
C. insulin and PYY
D. leptin and insulin

D. leptin and insulin

A tumor suppressing the activity of which brain area could induce obesity?

A. ventromedial hypothalamus
B. lateral hypothalamus
C. dorsomedial hypothalamus
D. anterior hypothalamus

B. lateral hypothalamus

Hypocalcemia enhances the excitability of nerves and muscles because of the ____ permeability of the cell membrane to ___.

A. increased, K+
B. decreased, K+
C. increased, Na+
D. decreased, Na+

C. increased, Na+

What is the main source of energy for the brain?

A. Glucose

A tumor-suppressing the activity of which brain area could promote weight gain?

A. Anterior hypothalamus
B. Dorsomedial hypothalamus
C. Ventromedial hypothalamus
D. Lateral hypothalamus

D. Lateral hypothalamus

What hormone is most important for maintaining blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive or fasting states?

A. Glucagon
B. Somatostatin
C. Thyroxine
D. Insulin

A. Glucagon

Type II diabetes mellitus ________.

A. is characterized by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells
B. is characterized by destruction of the pancreatic alpha cells
C. results from a decrease in the effectiveness of insulin on body tissues
D. results from a deficiency of insulin

C. results from a decrease in the effectiveness of insulin on body tissues

The actions of thyroxine ________ the production of metabolic heat.

A. decrease

B. increase

C. have no effect on

B. increase

Bone resorption is produced by the action of ________, which return bone calcium and phosphate to the blood.

A. Calcitonin
B. osteoclasts
C. osteocytes
D. osteoblasts

B. osteoclasts

Which of the following is NOT an endogenous source of ROS (reactive oxygen species)?

A. UV light
B. Catalase
C. Peroxisomes
D. NADPH oxidase

A. UV light

The BMI of a female weighing 130 pounds with a height of 68 inches would be closest to ________.

A. 22
B. 24
C. 20
D. 18

C. 20

Identify the process characterized by an exaggerated response of beta cells to a rise in blood glucose, usually seen in those predisposed to Type II diabetes.

A. Reactive hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Exercise hypoglycemia
D. Stress hyperglycemia

A. Reactive hypoglycemia

Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes mellitus can cause ________.

A. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and increased uptake by skeletal muscles

B. decreased hepatic secretion of glucose and increased uptake by skeletal muscles

C. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles

D. decreased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles

C. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles

Drugs that activate PPAR gamma receptors are useful in the treatment of what metabolic disorder?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Acromegaly
C. Type 1 diabetes
D. Type 2 diabetes

D. Type 2 diabetes

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Exam 3 Flashcards

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