Recurrent Written Test Guide Flashcards

1
Q

How​ is BURN​ fuel on the flight plan calculated?​

A

The amount of fuel burn in pounds and time based​ on forecast winds, the flight plan ​route, and includes one instrument approach and​ landing.

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2
Q

Do all cabin​ seats need to be assigned if a flight deck or flight attendant jumpseat is ​to be utilized?

A

No. The flight deck and flight attendant jumpseats may be assigned on a discretionary ​basis regardless of whether all cabin seats are occupied or​ not.​ ​

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3
Q

Must a Frontier employee have the letters ACM on his/her Frontier ID badge to ​occupy the flight deck jumpseat?

A

Yes, unless the Frontier employee has a signed Letter of Authorization from Frontier ​Flight Ops management. ​​

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4
Q

The ACM Jumpseat Briefing Card may be used to satisfy the ACM briefing ​requirement?

A

True

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5
Q

Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft​ for which they ​performed a​ safety-sensitive or​ security-related function at or near​ the time of the ​accident may not use alcohol for​ ____ hours after the accident unless​ he or she has ​been given​ a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or​ if Frontier Airlines has ​demonstrated that​ their performance could not​ have contributed to the accident.​

A

8 hours

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6
Q

Which of the following qualifies the flight crew to fly into “Special Airports”? ​(Select ALL answers that apply)

A

☑​ ​ ​Within the preceding 12 calendar months, the captain or first officer has made an entry ​to that airport, including​ takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crewmember.​ ​​

​☑​ ​ ​Within the preceding 12 calendar months, the captain has qualified by using pictorial ​means for that airport.

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7
Q

When the first officer has less than 100 hours of flight time​ as SIC in type airplane ​being flown at Frontier, the captain (unless a check airman) must​ make all takeoff ​and landings​ in what conditions? (Select ALL answers that apply)​

A

☑​ ​ ​When the​ crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.​ ​​ ​
☑​ ​ ​When the braking action​ on the runway to be used is less than “good”.​

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8
Q

Which of the following describes emergency authority? (Select ALL answers that ​apply)

A

In an emergency situation that​ requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in ​command may take any action deemed necessary under the circumstances.​

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9
Q

Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?

A

The CRO

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10
Q

Who has​ the authority to cancel a flight?

A

Only Systems Operations Control (SOC).

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11
Q

Which of the following requires an alternate airport? (Select ALL answers that ​apply)

A

☑​ ​ ​If severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA, a​ ​suitable alternate must​ be listed on the release. ​​
​☑​ ​ ​​ Any flight released under supplemental operations. ​​
​☑​ ​ ​When dispatched Method 2.

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT required before a revenue flight may block out?​

A

The Final Flight Information List

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13
Q

If the planned route is changed by ATC​ prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage ​length increases​ by more than ____ NM, the captain must​ obtain an ARTR.

A

100NM

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes method 1?

A

If an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft will​ clear ​all​ obstructions 5 SM on either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching ​the destination.

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15
Q

How​ is CONTINGENCY fuel on the flight plan calculated?

A

Fuel in time as well as in pounds based on holding at 15,000 MSL at Green Dot.

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16
Q

Which of the following best describes method 2?

A

If an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert​ to at least one suitable ​airport (driftdown alternate)​ from flight planned cruise altitude and clear all​ obstacles 5 ​SM on either side​ of the route of flight by 2,000 feet until reaching the diversion airport.

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17
Q

Which of the following would require an ARTR? (Select ALL answers that apply)​

A

​An alternate is added or​ changed
​ ​An MEL is added

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18
Q

What does ALTN​ fuel on the flight plan consist of?​

A

Climb to cruise flight altitude, cruise flight to the most​ distant alternate, one (1) ​approach and landing, planned at a cost index of 0

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19
Q

Are Simple Special Procedures​ mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so, ​to what altitude?

A

​They are mandatory in IMC until​ 3,000’ AFE (if radar vectors are not​ available)​ and ​VMC until reaching 1000ft AFE unless otherwise specified.​

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20
Q

Which of the following are ways to determine Actual Landing Performance?

A

​​The AWP solution. ​​

The QRH landing distance performance section.

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21
Q

​What are some strategies for dealing​ with weight restricted flights?​ (Select ALL ​answers that apply)

A

Increase the PMTOW or reducing tanker fuel (if any).​ ​

​Remove COMAT (not AOG). ​​

​Obtain child counts.

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22
Q

Which of the following are approved methods to get Weight and Balance ​Information for departure? (Select ALL answers that apply)​

A

AWP Solution (Primary Method).

Computer-Generated W&B Manifest from Centralized Load Planning.

​Manual W&B Read Back Form located in the diversion kit.

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23
Q

Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure? (Select ALL answers that apply)​

A

​The aircraft must have enough fuel to​ fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; ​thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (when required) for the ​airport to which it is dispatched; and​ thereafter,​ to fly for 45minutes at​ normal cruising ​fuel consumption.

​When dispatched under Ops Spec B043 (As noted on the dispatch release), the aircraft ​must​ have enough contingency fuel to fly for a period of 10 percent of that portion of ​the enroute time where the aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least once ​each hour.

​The aircraft must have enough fuel to​ consider one instrument approach and possible​ ​missed approach at the destination, wind and other weather conditions forecast, ​anticipated traffic delays, and any other known conditions that may delay​ landing of the ​aircraft.

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24
Q

Frontier is NOT authorized to conduct​ the following approach

A

​(SA) CAT I Approaches

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25
How​ can the flight crew determine if​ an airport is “Terrain Sensitive”? (Select ​ALL answers that apply) ​
​Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page of the AIP Via contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedure
26
TRUE or FALSE? ​​When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, ONLY MCC must be ​notified.
FALSE
27
Who must be notified after entering a​ discrepancy in the Logbook?​
​MCC through the responsible dispatcher
28
​Which of the following is a correct way(s)​ to make a correction to a logbook ​entry?
To correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the ​corrected information adjacent to the lined-out item.​ To correct an entire entry block, draw​ a diagonal line through​ the entry and write ​“Entered​ in Error” (or​ “EIE”)​ on the diagonal line.​
29
How​ is RESERVE fuel​ on the flight plan calculated?
​​Reserve fuel of 45 minutes flight time is​ based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan.​
30
Which of the following logbook entries requires the captain’s signature? (Select ​ALL answers that apply)
​Computer​ Reset ​Follow-up Required ​Flight Crew Placard
31
Which of the following best describes the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?​
​The MEL Program​ allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or ​inoperative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the​ airworthiness certificate.​
32
​Which of the following best describes the CDL (Configuration Deferral List) ​Program?
​The CDL Program allows for continued operations with missing secondary airframe and ​engine parts.
33
Which of the following best describes the NEF (Nonessential Furnishing) ​program?
The NEF Program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged or missing items that will​ ​have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are​ not required by ​certification standards or operating rules.​
34
Which of the following best describes an ODM (Other Deferred Maintenance)​ ​item?
ODM Items include deferrals that are​ “crew visibility” in nature and utilize​ an INFO-​ONLY placard​ to notify​ air​ crewmembers that the item on the placard has been ​documented​ and is​ being tracked by the maintenance department.
35
Is Frontier​ permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pickup​ an IFR clearance?
​​Yes, under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained ASAP, ​but no further than 50 NM from​ departure airport.​
36
What is Class II (two) navigation?
Any navigation conducted outside of Class I navigation.
37
When is the autopilot required to be used (coupled) to conduct an approach?
When the weather is less​ than 4000 RVR​ (3/4 SM) and the autopilot is available for use.​
38
Which of the following is Frontier authorized to conduct in international airspace?
​A “VMC Approach”
39
TRUE or FALSE Prior​ to crossing a​ FIR boundary for​ international flights, the flight​ crew should ​obtain the latest weather (METAR and TAF) for the destination and alternate​ (if ​applicable).
​True
40
Where is Frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?
Gulf of Mexico and with HF equipment installed the Atlantic
41
How​ does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what ​holdover times to use? (Select ALL answers that apply)​ ​
​If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow (e.g., fog/haze/smoke), ​then use the Tower reported snowfall intensity. ​If no obscuration is present on the Tower reported snowfall intensity, then use the ​“Snowfall Intensities As A Function Of Prevailing Visibility” Table located on the ​DeIce Card to determine snowfall intensity.
42
Anti-icing with the flaps/slats extended is permitted.​ TRUE or FLASE
FALSE
43
Deicing with the flaps/slats extended​ is permitted.TRUE or FALSE
​True
44
A flight can takeoff if the holdover time expires if the flight crew performs a pre-​takeoff contamination check (exit row check, and that check is satisfactory) within ​5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers​ for takeoff.​ TRUE or FALSE
​True
45
When does the Tarmac Delay clock start for DEPARTURES?​
​Five (5) minutes after the last passenger is boarded.
46
​An ARTR is required if a flight diverts to an alternate that is different from that ​published on the dispatch release.​ TRUE or FALSE
TRUE
47
When are security searches required?
​First flight of the day. ​International flights (not including Alaska).
48
A flight to Puerto Rico is NOT​ considered an international flight for security ​search purposes? TRUE or FALSE
​True
49
​The captain must​ be informed of all individuals on board carrying firearms.​ TRUE or FALSE
TRUE
50
What are the 4 levels of threat? (Select ALL answers that apply)​
​Level 1: Verbal ​Level 2: Physical ​Level 3: Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury ​Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck​
51
Where can the flight crew find a list​ of Ops Specs​ C070 approved airports?​
Airport Information Pages
52
Where can the flight crew find coded departure routes and instructions on how to ​uplink these routes into the MCDU?
​Airport Information Pages
53
​If an International flight diverts and does not​ clear customs what does the flight ​need to continue to its destination?
​A permit to proceed.
54
What does the TEST​ acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Preparation? ​(Select ALL answers that apply)
​T –​ Type of Emergency ​E –​ Evacuation anticipated (yes/no) ​S –​ Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated (review as appropriate) ​T –​ Time​ remaining until landing
55
What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle​ (EW)?
​To indicate a Threat Level 2, 3, or 4 situation
56
When are manual engine starts recommended?
After​ aborting a start because​ of an engine stall, EGT overlimit, or low starter air ​pressure.
57
In flight, BOTH flight directors should be either ON or OFF. TRUE or FALSE
TRUE
58
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the announcement of​ FMA changes?
​Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise e.g. (CAT II/III task sharing), all ​FMA changes (as indicated by a​ white box)​ will​ be announced by the PF below FL 180. ​At or above FL 180, the Vertical and Lateral Mode Changes (i.e., second and third ​columns​ of the FMA) will​ be announced by the PF.
59
During preflight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice​ the ​battery voltage is below 25.5 volts, how​ should you recharge the batteries?​ ​(1 point) ​​ ​⚫​ ​ ​Ensure external power is​ supplied to the aircraft​ and select the BAT 1 and 2 pbs to the ​AUTO position.
​Ensure external power is​ supplied to the aircraft​ and select the BAT 1 and 2 pbs to the ​AUTO position.
60
On the preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD ​page, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ​ON​ in order to display the oil​ qnty on the ENG​ SD page. After the check of the engine ​oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF.
61
When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
​Before the first​ flight of​ the day, when there is a crew change, prior​ to all international ​flights (including Alaska) or prior to flights in Class 2 airspace.​
62
When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
​Any time the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5 ​NM.
63
During refueling, what might happen if​ the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the ​MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK​ L​ XFR pb-sw​ and CTR TK R​ XFR ​pb-sw are not in the off position?
​The center tank fuel transfer will​ not stop when the wing tanks become full and a fuel ​spillage may occur.
64
​Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC​ is not displayed on the ECAM, but ​the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing ​position, what must the flight crew do?​
Make a logbook entry. Contact MCC​ through the responsible dispatcher.