Recalls AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

Term for the transmission of microorganisms?

A

Chain of infections

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2
Q

Chains of infection require a continuous link between:

S:
M:
S:

A

Source
Method of transmission
Susceptible host

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3
Q

The best way to break the chain of infection?

A

Handwashing

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4
Q

When hands are NOT visibly soiled, how do you clean it?

a. Handwashing
b. Apply sanitizer
c. water

A

b

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5
Q

What is the most important factor in handwashing?

a. Warm water
b. 15 seconds
c. Friction
d. Dry with paper towel

A

c

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6
Q

How many seconds for hand washing?

a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 60

A

b

if there is 20 then pick it

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7
Q

After handwashing rinse the lather __________ position.

A

Downward

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8
Q

How to turn of the faucet after handwashing?

a. Directly turn off
b. Use with disposable towel
c. Use with clothes on

A

b

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9
Q

Handwashing song? How many times do you sing?

A

Happy Birthday

2x

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10
Q

ALL biological waste, except urine, must be placed in appropriate containers labeled with _______ symbol.

A

Biohazard

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11
Q

What is the color for Hazard symbol?

A

Fluorescent Orange

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12
Q

The basic outline of the biohazard symbol is a plain trefoil, which is ___________________________

a. three circles overlapping each other
b. three circles adjacent to each other
c. three circles parallel to each other

A

a

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13
Q

Sharp hazard is labeled with?

a. yes sign
b. Syringe with vertical line / no sign
c. Syringe with horizontal line / no sign
d. Syringe with Diagonal sign / No sign

A

d

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14
Q

Wash the contact chemical with water for how many minutes?

a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 20 mins

A

b

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15
Q

Always add Water to Acid

T or F

A

F

Acid to Water

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16
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):

Yellow Quadrant

a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard

A

c

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17
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):

White Quadrant

a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard

A

b

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18
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):

Blue Quadrant

a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard

A

a

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19
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):

Red Quadrant

a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard

A

d

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20
Q

NOTE: (Mnemonics)

You Were Born Right

A

Yellow, White, Blue, Red

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21
Q

Blue Hazard Category:

Extreme Danger

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

d

Blue Mnemonics (NSHED)

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22
Q

Blue Hazard Category:

Hazardous

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

c

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23
Q

Blue Hazard Category:

Normal Material

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

a

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24
Q

Blue Hazard Category:

Deadly

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

e

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25
Q

Blue Hazard Category:

Slightly hazardous

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

b

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26
Q

Yellow Quadrant Category:

Violent Chemical Change

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

c

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27
Q

Yellow Quadrant Category:

Unstable if heated

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

b

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28
Q

Yellow Quadrant Category:

Shock and Heat may deteriorate/detonate

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

d

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29
Q

Yellow Quadrant Category:

Stable

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

a

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29
Q

Yellow Quadrant Category:

Shock and Heat may deteriorate/detonate

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

d

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30
Q

Yellow Quadrant Category:

May deteriorate or detonate

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

e

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31
Q

White Quadrant:

COR

a. Oxidizer
b. Acid
c. Alkali
d. Corrosive
e. Radiation

A

d

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32
Q

White Quadrant:

Use no water, what is this symbol?

a. W with Diagonal line
b. W with vertical line
c. W with Horizontal line

A

c

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32
Q

White Quadrant:

ALK

a. Oxidizer
b. Acid
c. Alkali
d. Corrosive
e. Radiation

A

c

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33
Q

White Quadrant:

OXI

a. Oxidizer
b. Acid
c. Alkali
d. Corrosive
e. Radiation

A

a

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34
Q

Red Quadrant:

Will not Burn

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

a

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35
Q

Red Quadrant:

Below 200F

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

c

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36
Q

Red Quadrant:

Above 200F

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

b

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37
Q

Red Quadrant:

Below 100F

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

d

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38
Q

Red Quadrant:

Below 73F

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

e

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39
Q

Degree of Hazards:

Serious Hazard

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

d

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40
Q

Degree of Hazards:

Slight Hazard

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

b

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41
Q

Degree of Hazards:

Moderate Hazard

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

c

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42
Q

Degree of Hazards:

Extreme Hazard

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

e

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43
Q

Degree of Hazards:

Severe Hazard

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

e

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44
Q

Degree of Hazards:

No / minimal Hazard

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

a

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45
Q

No SMS Ex’s (Mnemonics for Degree Hazard)

A

No
slightly
Moderate
Serious
Extreme

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46
Q

What symbol indicates a Poisonous or Toxic?

a. Biohazard Symbol
b. Skull and Bones Symbol
c. Corrosive symbol
d. No reagent Symbol

A

b

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47
Q

Flammavle Chemicals stored in safety cabinets and?

a. Room temp room
b. Near the sunlight
c. Explosion-proof refrigerators

A

c

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48
Q

When Fire is Discovered: RACE

R
A
C
E

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Evacuate/Extinguish (EXTINGUISH IF Separate)

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49
Q

To operate Fire Exinguisher

a. PASS
b. RACE

A

a

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50
Q

To operate Fire Exinguisher

PASS?

A

Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

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51
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Electrical Equipment

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

c

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52
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Paper and Wood

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

a

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53
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Water

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

a

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54
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Dry chemicals

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

ABC

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55
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Arsenal

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

e

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55
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Flammable Liquid

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

b

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56
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Recommended to use Halon

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

c

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56
Q

Clean Fingers and Wrist for at least:

a. 15 s
b. 30 s
c. 45 s
d. 60 s

A

a

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57
Q

Types of Fire Extinguisher:

Sand

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K

A

d

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57
Q

Degree of Hazard number 3:

a. Slight
b. Serious
c. Moderate
d. Extreme

A

b

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58
Q

Yellow Quadrant in the NFPA hazard Classification

a. Health
b. Fire
c. Specific
d. Reactivity

A

d

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58
Q

When Hands are not visibly soiled

a. Wash hands with soap and Water
b. Apply sanitizer
c. Apply Benzalkonium chloride
d. Wipe hands with paper towel

A

b

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58
Q

Basic structural unit of kidneys?

A

Nephron

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59
Q

Total Renal blood Flow?

a. 600 ml/min
b. 800 ml/min
c. 1200 ml/min
d. 1200 ml/s

A

c

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59
Q

Glomerulus Resembles?

a. Noodles
b. Sieve
c. Furball
d. hair

A

b

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60
Q

Functions of Proximal Convoluted tubule is to:

a. reabsorbs Only Salts and Water
b. Reabsorbs Salts, Water and Amino acids
c. Reabsorbs Salts, Water and Amino acids, and glucose
d. Reabsorbs Salts, Water and Amino acids, glucose, and urea

A

d

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61
Q

What is the renal threshold of glucose?

a. 160 - 180 g/dl
b. 160 - 180 mg/L
c. 160 - 180 mg/dl
d. 160 - 180 g/L

A

c

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62
Q

Angiotensin I: Inactive
Angiotensin II: Active

T or F

A

T

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63
Q

Renal Tubular Acidosis:

a. Urine is Acidic
b. Urine is alkaline
c. Blood is alkaline
d. A and C

A

b

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64
Q

Gold standard for clearance test?

a. Urea
b. Creatinine
c. Inulin
d. Cystatin C

A
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65
Q

What is the meaning of “U” in Creatinine clearance formula?

a. Urine Creatinine
b. Plasma
c. Urine Volume

A

a

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66
Q

In Cockgroft and Gault formula, WaWhat are the Variables?

a. Ethnicity, Age, Sex, Body weight
b. Ethnicity, Age, Sex, Body weight, Gender
c. Age, Sex, Body weight
d. Age, Sex, Body weight, Gender

A

c

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67
Q

Patient is abstained to drink water for 12 to 24 hours

a. Fishberg
b. Mosenthal test
c. Specific gravity
d. Osmolality

A

a

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68
Q

Part of the nephorn that resembles a sieve?

a. PCT
b. Afferent arteriole
c. Glomerulus
d. Loop of Henle

A

c

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69
Q

Substances reavsorbed by the PCT?

a. Salts
b. Amino acids
c. Glucose
d. All of the above

A

d

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70
Q

Urine pH in renal tubular acidosis

a. Acidic
b. Alkaline
c. Neutral
d. Any of these

A

b

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71
Q

Most ideal specimen for routine urinalysis and pregnancy test, most acidic and concentrated

a. Random
b. First morning
c. 2 h post prandial urine
d. 2nd morning/Fasting

A

b

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72
Q

For routine screening and bacterial culture

a. Glucose tolerance
b. Midstream Clean-Catch
c. Catheterized
d. suprapibic aspiration
e. Pediatric specimen

A

b

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73
Q

What is the purpose of 2nd specimen in three glass technique?

a. Voided
b. Prostatitis determination
c. Control for UTI

A

c

74
Q

In timed specimen:

For Addis Count

a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 4 hours
d. Afternoon (2-4 PM)

A

b

75
Q

Drug Specimen collection:

Documentation of proper sample ID from time of collection to receipt of lab results

a. Chain of Custody
b. Safety Data Sheet
c. Manual Lab results

A

a

76
Q

Drug Specimen collection:

Required volume of Urine

a. 60mL
b. 30-45 mL
c. 50 mL
d. 5-10mL

A

b

77
Q

What is the urine temp requirement for Drug testing?

a. 32 - 37
b. 32-7 - 37.5
c. 32.5 - 37.7

A

c

78
Q

If the remperature is out of range for drug testing specimen what will you do?

a. repeat the specimen immediately
b. Record the temp
c. Call the supervisor
d. b and c
e. All of the above

A

d

79
Q

This is added to the toilet water reservoir to prevent specimen adulteration

A

Blueing agent

80
Q

Following collection, urine specimen should be delivered to the lab within _______
a. 1 hr
b. 2hr
c. 30 mins

A

b

80
Q

Changes in unpreserved urine:

in RBCs/WBCs/CASTS, the disintegrate in dilute _______ urine

a. alkaline
b. Acidic

A

a

81
Q

Preservative of choice for Routine Urinalysis and URINE CULTURE

a. Refrigeration
b. Thymol
c. Boric acid
d. Formalin

A

a

82
Q

Preserves Protein however may precipitate crystals when used in large amounts

a. Refrigeration
b. Thymol
c. Boric acid
d. Formalin

A

c

83
Q

Preservative for Addis Count

a. Refrigeration
b. Thymol
c. Boric acid
d. Formalin

A

d

84
Q

> 2000 mL / Increased volume

a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis

A

a

85
Q

Increased SG

a. DM
b. DI

A

a

85
Q

Increased SG

a. DM
b. DI

A

b

86
Q

Decreased urine volume

<500mL or < 400mL

a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis

A

b

87
Q

Complete cessation of urine flow

a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis

A

c

88
Q

Excretionof more than 500 mL of urine at night

a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis

A

d

89
Q

How to distinguish Urine color properly?

a. Read against a dark background
b. Bird eye view at the top of the tube
c. Look down though the container agains a white background

A

c

90
Q

Major Pigment

Directly proportional to metabolic rate

a. Urochrome
b. uroerythin
c. Urobilin

A

a

91
Q

A Red / pink urine with cloudy or smoky red (Hematuria) may contain?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. RBC

A

c

92
Q

CLEAR red

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. RBC

A

a

may be “b” if looks like cola or tea

93
Q

Contains Yellow foam with tea-colored urine

a. Dark Yellow
b. Orange - Yellow
c. Green
d. Pink or red

A

b

94
Q

Contains phenol

a. Dark Yellow
b. Orange - Yellow
c. Green
d. Pink or red

A

c

95
Q

Contains Carotene

a. Dark Yellow
b. Orange - Yellow
c. Green
d. Pink or red

A

a

96
Q

Increase WBC

a. Burgundy / Purplish-red
b. Brown / Black
c. Milky white

A

c

97
Q

Methemoglobin, homogentisic acid

a. Burgundy / Purplish-red
b. Brown / Black
c. Milky white

A

b

98
Q

Melanin

a. Burgundy / Purplish-red
b. Brown / Black
c. Milky white

A

b

99
Q

Methemoglobin = Alkaline urine

Homogentisic acid = Alkaptonuria

Melanin = Upon air exposure

These are the following causes black urine, which of them is wrong?

A

Methemoglobin

Can be seen in acidic urine

100
Q

The clarity of the urine should be viewed a

a. Blank white paper
b. Newspaper
c. Dark colored newspaper

A

b

101
Q

Few Particulates, print easily seen

a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Turbid
d. Milky

A

b

102
Q

Print CANNOT be seen

a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Turbid
d. Milky

A

c

103
Q

Soluble in dilute acetic acid:

  1. RBCs
  2. Spermatozoa
  3. Amorphous urates
  4. Carbonates

a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
s. 1,2,3, and 4

A

b`

104
Q

Insoluble in dilute acetic acid:

  1. WBCs
  2. Bacteria
  3. Yeasts
  4. Spermatozoa

a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
s. 1,2,3, and 4

A

d

105
Q

Soluble in Ether

  1. Lipids
  2. Lymphatic Fluid
  3. Chyle
  4. Spermatozoa

a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
s. 1,2,3, and 4

A

a

106
Q

Soluble with heat

  1. Amorphous urates
  2. Uric acid crystals
  3. Chyle
  4. Spermatozoa

a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 2
s. 1,2,3, and 4

A

c

107
Q

Alkaline urine

  1. Amorphous Phosphate
  2. Uric acid crystals
  3. Chyle
  4. Carbonates

a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 2
s. 1,2,3, and 4

A

b

108
Q

Urine odor:

Normal

a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet

A

a

109
Q

Urine odor:

Old urine or UTI (P. vulgaris)

a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet

A

c

110
Q

Urine odor:

Acute tubular necrosis

a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet

A

b

111
Q

Urine odor:

Acute tubular necrosis

a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet

A

d

112
Q

Trimethylaminuria

a. Cabbage
b. S, Rotten egg
c. Rotting fish
d. Pungent, fetid

A

c

113
Q

Asparagus

a. Cabbage
b. S, Rotten egg
c. Rotting fish
d. Pungent, fetid

A

d

114
Q

Methionine malabsorption

a. Cabbage
b. S, Rotten egg
c. Rotting fish
d. Pungent, fetid

A

a

115
Q

30s

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

a, b

116
Q

pKa change of a polyelectro

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

d

117
Q

Ehrlich reaction

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

h

118
Q

Pseudoperoxidase

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

g

119
Q

Protein error of indicators

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

f

120
Q

Leukocyte esterase

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

k

121
Q

Na nitroprusside reaction

a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko

A

c

122
Q

How do you blot the strip?

a. Blot the End part of the strip to remove excess urine
b. Blot the edge of the strip on a disposable absorbent pad
c. Blot facing down
d. Read immediately without blotting

A

b

123
Q

When comparing the color reaction of the strip pads to manufacturer color, how do you hold the strip?

a. Hold the strip horizontally
b. Hold the strip Vertically
c. Hold the strip Diagonally

A

a

By the book

124
Q

When caring the reagent strips, which of the following does not belong?

a. Store with dessicant in an opaque tightly closed container
b. Store below Below 30 C
c. Freeze
d. Do not expose to volatile fumes

A

c

125
Q

What is the Principle of automated Reagent strip readers?

a. Reflectance photometry
b. Chemiluminescence
c. Spectrophotometry
d. Cuvette based Reader

A

a

126
Q

Instrument based on refractive index?

a. Hydrometer
b. Reagent strip
c. Total solids meter
d. Urinometer

A

c

127
Q

Calibration for refractometry?

1.022 +_ 0.001

a. 3% NaCl
b. 5% NaCl
c.7% NaCl
d. 9% Sucrose

A

b

128
Q

Calibration for refractometry?

1.034 +_ 0.001

a. 3% NaCl
b. 5% NaCl
c.7% NaCl
d. 9% Sucrose

A

d

129
Q

Calibration for refractometry?

1.035 +_ 0.001

a. 3% NaCl
b. 5% NaCl
c.7% NaCl
d. 9% Sucrose

A

c

130
Q

What is the SG of Triple distilled water?

a. 1.003
b. 3.000
c. 1.000
d.1.010

A

c

131
Q

Example of Harmonic oscillation densitometry where it is based on the frequency of a soundwave

a. Red IRIS
b. Yellow IRIS
c. Blue IRIS
d. Green IRIS

A

b

132
Q

Meaning of IRIS?

a. International Remote Imaging system
b. International Remote Identifying system
c. International Remote Inquiring system
d. International Remote Interference system

A

a

133
Q

In IRIS:

IRIS mass Gravity meter

a. 6mL
b. 4mL
c. 2mL

A

c

134
Q

pH:

The normal pH for Random is:

a. 4.5-8.0
b. 5.0-6.0
c. 3.0-7.0
d. 5.5-6.5

A

a

135
Q

Cause of Alkaline urine are the following except:

a. Renal tubular acidosis
b. Vegetarian diet
c. Vomiting
d. Coffee drinker

A

d

136
Q

Indicative of White foam in urine?

a. Glucose
b. Albumin
c. Bilirubin
d. Nitrite

A

b

137
Q

Normal value of protein secreted in urine:

a. <150 mg/ 24 hrs
b. <100 mg/24 hrs
c. <10 mg/ 24 hrs
d. None

A

a

138
Q

What protein can be seen in multiple myeloma?

a. Bence Jones protein
b. Albumin
c. Microlbuminuria
d. Hyperglobinuria

A

a

139
Q

Bence jones Proteins are:

a. Ig Light chanins
b. Ig Heavy chains

A

a

140
Q

Urine that comprises of Bence- jones Protein will a precipitated urine at what temp?

a. 40-60 C
b. 57 C
c. 37 C
d. 100 C

A

a

141
Q

Urine that comprises of Bence- jones Protein will Dissolve in a urine at what temp?

a. 40-60 C
b. 57 C
c. 37 C
d. 100 C

A

d

142
Q

In Albumin excretion rate, what is the normal values?

a. 0-20 ug/min
b. 20-200 ug/min
c. >200 ug/min

A

b

143
Q

An Ab-enzyme conjugate that binds albumin which is the Micral test, what is the Principle?

a. Reflectance photometry
b. Spectrophotometry
c. Enzyme immunoassay
d. Immunoelectrophoresis

A

c

144
Q

Citrate buffer for Protein reagent strip contains about what pH?

a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

A

d

145
Q

The procedure for Extons tests includes:

3 mL of _______ + 3mL centrifuged urine (10 mins incubation

a. 3% SSA
b. 5% SSA
c. 7% SSA
d. 9% SSA

A

a

146
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

Turbidity with granulation and flocculation

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

e

147
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

Distinct turbidity with no granulation

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

c

148
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

Clumps of protein

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

f

149
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

6-30

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

b

150
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

100 - 200

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

d

151
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

30-100

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

c

152
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

200-400

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

e

153
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

50 mg/dl

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

c

154
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

500 mg/dL

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

e

155
Q

In Grading for Exton’s Test:

1.0g/dL or more

a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

f

156
Q

Glucose + oxygen— ________ –> Gluconic acid + H2O2

a. Peroxidase
b. Glucose oxidase

A

b

157
Q

H2O2 + Chromogen –______–> Oxidized chromogen + H2O

a. Peroxidase
b. Glucose oxidase

A

a

158
Q

What is the Principle for Benedict’s test?

a. Spectrophotometry
b. Electrophoresis
c. Neutralization
d. Copper reduction

A

d

159
Q

Reporting for Benedi’ts Test

Bluish green color

a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

b

160
Q

Reporting for Benedi’ts Test

Green color, green, or yellow precipitate

a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

c

161
Q

Reporting for Benedi’ts Test

Yellow Orange color

a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

e

162
Q

Reporting for Benedi’ts Test

Brick red

a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

f

163
Q

Reporting for Benedi’ts Test

Yellow Green / Yellow

a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+

A

d

164
Q

Reducing agent for Benedict’s test causes

a. F (+)
b. F (-)

A

a

165
Q

Oxidizing agent for Benedict’s test causes

a. F (+)
b. F (-)

A

b

166
Q

What is the color for the principle of Sodium nitropruside in the strip for ketones?

a. violet
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Green

A

a

167
Q

▪ β-hydroxybutyric acid - ___%
▪ Diacetic acid / Acetoacetic acid - ___%
▪ Acetone - 2%

a. 78, 20
b. 79, 19
c. 76, 22
d. 77. 21

A

a

168
Q

Cloudy red urine

a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria

A

a

169
Q

Clear red or red brown

a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria

A

c

170
Q

Clear red

a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria

A

b

171
Q

Which of the following is toxic to the renal tubules?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Bilirubin
d. Porphyrin

A

b

172
Q

How do you differentiate Hemoglobin and myoglobin?

a. Beer’s test
b. Clinitest
c. Blondheim’s test
d. Peroxidase test

A

c

173
Q

Blondheim’s test Reagent?

a. Sodium peroxidase
b. Myosulfate
c. Ammonium Sultate
d. Sulfuric acid

A

c

174
Q

What is the color for Hemoglobin in Blood strip test?

a. Violet
b. Blue-Red
c. Green / Blue
d. Yellow

A

c

175
Q

Color of urine with bilirubin

a. Yellow foam
b. Tea-colored Urine
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c

176
Q

Positive reaction of Bilirubin in Reagent strip

a. Yellow
b. Pink - Violet
c. Violet
d. Red

A

b

177
Q

What is the specimen for Urobilinogen?

a. First morning
b. 2-4 pm urine
c. Random urine
d. Fasting urine

A

b

178
Q

What is the normal value for Urobilinogen?

a. < 1 mg/dL
b. < 2 mg/dL
c. < 3 mg/dL
d. < 4 mg/dL

A

a

179
Q

Convert 0.4 mg/dL of urobilinogen into Ehrlich unirt:

a. 4 EU
b. 5 EU
c. 0.4 EU
d. 0.8 EU

A

c

180
Q

In Watson-Schwartz test

Soluble in Chloroform and Butanol indicates?

a. Urobilinogen
b. porphobilinogen
c. Ehrlich reactive

A

a

181
Q

Dietary nitrates is found in

a. Juice
b. Water
c. Meat
d. Vegetables

A

d

182
Q
  • Multistix (M): Polymethylvinyl ether maleic anhydride
  • Chemstrip (C): Ethylene glycol diaminoethyl ether tetraacetic acid
  • pH indicator: Bromthymol blue

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

a

183
Q

M: Tetrabromophenol blue
C: tetrachlorophenoltetrabromosulfon-phtalein

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

c

184
Q

M&C: Methyl Red & Bromthymol Blue

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

b

185
Q

Sodium nitroprusside

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

e

186
Q
  • Multistix: Diisopropyl-benzenedihydro-peroxide
  • Chemstrip: Dimethyl-dihydroperoxyhexane Tetramethylbenzidine

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

f

187
Q
  • Multistix: Dichloroaniline diazonium salt
  • Chemstrip: Dichlorobenzene diazonium salt

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

g

188
Q

M: p-arsanilic acid tetrahydrobenzo-quinolinol
C: Sulfanilamide-hydroxy THBQ

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

i

189
Q
  • Multistix: Pdimethylaminobenzaldehyde
  • Chemstrip: Methoxyenzene-diazoniumtetrafluoroborate

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

h

190
Q
  • M: Derivative pyrrole amino acid ester
  • C: Indoxycarbonic acid ester

a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase

A

j

191
Q

The following that can be affected by ascorbic acid except

a. Blood
b. Bilirubin
c. Leukocytes
d. Nitrite
e. Glucose
f. Urobilinogen

A

f

192
Q

What is being detected in 11th pad?

A

Ascorbic acid