Recalls AUBF Flashcards
1
Q
Term for the transmission of microorganisms?
A
Chain of infections
2
Q
Chains of infection require a continuous link between:
S:
M:
S:
A
Source
Method of transmission
Susceptible host
3
Q
The best way to break the chain of infection?
A
Handwashing
4
Q
When hands are NOT visibly soiled, how do you clean it?
a. Handwashing
b. Apply sanitizer
c. water
A
b
5
Q
What is the most important factor in handwashing?
a. Warm water
b. 15 seconds
c. Friction
d. Dry with paper towel
A
c
6
Q
How many seconds for hand washing?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 60
A
b
if there is 20 then pick it
7
Q
After handwashing rinse the lather __________ position.
A
Downward
8
Q
How to turn of the faucet after handwashing?
a. Directly turn off
b. Use with disposable towel
c. Use with clothes on
A
b
9
Q
Handwashing song? How many times do you sing?
A
Happy Birthday
2x
10
Q
ALL biological waste, except urine, must be placed in appropriate containers labeled with _______ symbol.
A
Biohazard
11
Q
What is the color for Hazard symbol?
A
Fluorescent Orange
12
Q
The basic outline of the biohazard symbol is a plain trefoil, which is ___________________________
a. three circles overlapping each other
b. three circles adjacent to each other
c. three circles parallel to each other
A
a
13
Q
Sharp hazard is labeled with?
a. yes sign
b. Syringe with vertical line / no sign
c. Syringe with horizontal line / no sign
d. Syringe with Diagonal sign / No sign
A
d
14
Q
Wash the contact chemical with water for how many minutes?
a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 20 mins
A
b
15
Q
Always add Water to Acid
T or F
A
F
Acid to Water
16
Q
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):
Yellow Quadrant
a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard
A
c
17
Q
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):
White Quadrant
a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard
A
b
18
Q
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):
Blue Quadrant
a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard
A
a
19
Q
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA):
Red Quadrant
a. Health Hazard
b. Specific Hazard
c. Reactivity Hazard
d. Flammability hazard
A
d
20
Q
NOTE: (Mnemonics)
You Were Born Right
A
Yellow, White, Blue, Red
21
Q
Blue Hazard Category:
Extreme Danger
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
A
d
Blue Mnemonics (NSHED)
22
Q
Blue Hazard Category:
Hazardous
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
A
c
23
Q
Blue Hazard Category:
Normal Material
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
A
a
24
Q
Blue Hazard Category:
Deadly
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
A
e
25
Blue Hazard Category:
Slightly hazardous
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
b
26
Yellow Quadrant Category:
Violent Chemical Change
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
c
27
Yellow Quadrant Category:
Unstable if heated
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
b
28
Yellow Quadrant Category:
Shock and Heat may deteriorate/detonate
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
d
29
Yellow Quadrant Category:
Stable
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
a
29
Yellow Quadrant Category:
Shock and Heat may deteriorate/detonate
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
d
30
Yellow Quadrant Category:
May deteriorate or detonate
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
e
31
White Quadrant:
COR
a. Oxidizer
b. Acid
c. Alkali
d. Corrosive
e. Radiation
d
32
White Quadrant:
Use no water, what is this symbol?
a. W with Diagonal line
b. W with vertical line
c. W with Horizontal line
c
32
White Quadrant:
ALK
a. Oxidizer
b. Acid
c. Alkali
d. Corrosive
e. Radiation
c
33
White Quadrant:
OXI
a. Oxidizer
b. Acid
c. Alkali
d. Corrosive
e. Radiation
a
34
Red Quadrant:
Will not Burn
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
a
35
Red Quadrant:
Below 200F
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
c
36
Red Quadrant:
Above 200F
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
b
37
Red Quadrant:
Below 100F
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
d
38
Red Quadrant:
Below 73F
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
e
39
Degree of Hazards:
Serious Hazard
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
d
40
Degree of Hazards:
Slight Hazard
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
b
41
Degree of Hazards:
Moderate Hazard
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
c
42
Degree of Hazards:
Extreme Hazard
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
e
43
Degree of Hazards:
Severe Hazard
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
e
44
Degree of Hazards:
No / minimal Hazard
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
a
45
No SMS Ex's (Mnemonics for Degree Hazard)
No
slightly
Moderate
Serious
Extreme
46
What symbol indicates a Poisonous or Toxic?
a. Biohazard Symbol
b. Skull and Bones Symbol
c. Corrosive symbol
d. No reagent Symbol
b
47
Flammavle Chemicals stored in safety cabinets and?
a. Room temp room
b. Near the sunlight
c. Explosion-proof refrigerators
c
48
When Fire is Discovered: RACE
R
A
C
E
Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Evacuate/Extinguish (EXTINGUISH IF Separate)
49
To operate Fire Exinguisher
a. PASS
b. RACE
a
50
To operate Fire Exinguisher
PASS?
Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep
51
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Electrical Equipment
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
c
52
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Paper and Wood
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
a
53
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Water
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
a
54
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Dry chemicals
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
ABC
55
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Arsenal
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
e
55
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Flammable Liquid
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
b
56
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Recommended to use Halon
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
c
56
Clean Fingers and Wrist for at least:
a. 15 s
b. 30 s
c. 45 s
d. 60 s
a
57
Types of Fire Extinguisher:
Sand
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. K
d
57
Degree of Hazard number 3:
a. Slight
b. Serious
c. Moderate
d. Extreme
b
58
Yellow Quadrant in the NFPA hazard Classification
a. Health
b. Fire
c. Specific
d. Reactivity
d
58
When Hands are not visibly soiled
a. Wash hands with soap and Water
b. Apply sanitizer
c. Apply Benzalkonium chloride
d. Wipe hands with paper towel
b
58
Basic structural unit of kidneys?
Nephron
59
Total Renal blood Flow?
a. 600 ml/min
b. 800 ml/min
c. 1200 ml/min
d. 1200 ml/s
c
59
Glomerulus Resembles?
a. Noodles
b. Sieve
c. Furball
d. hair
b
60
Functions of Proximal Convoluted tubule is to:
a. reabsorbs Only Salts and Water
b. Reabsorbs Salts, Water and Amino acids
c. Reabsorbs Salts, Water and Amino acids, and glucose
d. Reabsorbs Salts, Water and Amino acids, glucose, and urea
d
61
What is the renal threshold of glucose?
a. 160 - 180 g/dl
b. 160 - 180 mg/L
c. 160 - 180 mg/dl
d. 160 - 180 g/L
c
62
Angiotensin I: Inactive
Angiotensin II: Active
T or F
T
63
Renal Tubular Acidosis:
a. Urine is Acidic
b. Urine is alkaline
c. Blood is alkaline
d. A and C
b
64
Gold standard for clearance test?
a. Urea
b. Creatinine
c. Inulin
d. Cystatin C
65
What is the meaning of "U" in Creatinine clearance formula?
a. Urine Creatinine
b. Plasma
c. Urine Volume
a
66
In Cockgroft and Gault formula, WaWhat are the Variables?
a. Ethnicity, Age, Sex, Body weight
b. Ethnicity, Age, Sex, Body weight, Gender
c. Age, Sex, Body weight
d. Age, Sex, Body weight, Gender
c
67
Patient is abstained to drink water for 12 to 24 hours
a. Fishberg
b. Mosenthal test
c. Specific gravity
d. Osmolality
a
68
Part of the nephorn that resembles a sieve?
a. PCT
b. Afferent arteriole
c. Glomerulus
d. Loop of Henle
c
69
Substances reavsorbed by the PCT?
a. Salts
b. Amino acids
c. Glucose
d. All of the above
d
70
Urine pH in renal tubular acidosis
a. Acidic
b. Alkaline
c. Neutral
d. Any of these
b
71
Most ideal specimen for routine urinalysis and pregnancy test, most acidic and concentrated
a. Random
b. First morning
c. 2 h post prandial urine
d. 2nd morning/Fasting
b
72
For routine screening and bacterial culture
a. Glucose tolerance
b. Midstream Clean-Catch
c. Catheterized
d. suprapibic aspiration
e. Pediatric specimen
b
73
What is the purpose of 2nd specimen in three glass technique?
a. Voided
b. Prostatitis determination
c. Control for UTI
c
74
In timed specimen:
For Addis Count
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 4 hours
d. Afternoon (2-4 PM)
b
75
Drug Specimen collection:
Documentation of proper sample ID from time of collection to receipt of lab results
a. Chain of Custody
b. Safety Data Sheet
c. Manual Lab results
a
76
Drug Specimen collection:
Required volume of Urine
a. 60mL
b. 30-45 mL
c. 50 mL
d. 5-10mL
b
77
What is the urine temp requirement for Drug testing?
a. 32 - 37
b. 32-7 - 37.5
c. 32.5 - 37.7
c
78
If the remperature is out of range for drug testing specimen what will you do?
a. repeat the specimen immediately
b. Record the temp
c. Call the supervisor
d. b and c
e. All of the above
d
79
This is added to the toilet water reservoir to prevent specimen adulteration
Blueing agent
80
Following collection, urine specimen should be delivered to the lab within _______
a. 1 hr
b. 2hr
c. 30 mins
b
80
Changes in unpreserved urine:
in RBCs/WBCs/CASTS, the disintegrate in dilute _______ urine
a. alkaline
b. Acidic
a
81
Preservative of choice for Routine Urinalysis and URINE CULTURE
a. Refrigeration
b. Thymol
c. Boric acid
d. Formalin
a
82
Preserves Protein however may precipitate crystals when used in large amounts
a. Refrigeration
b. Thymol
c. Boric acid
d. Formalin
c
83
Preservative for Addis Count
a. Refrigeration
b. Thymol
c. Boric acid
d. Formalin
d
84
>2000 mL / Increased volume
a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis
a
85
Increased SG
a. DM
b. DI
a
85
Increased SG
a. DM
b. DI
b
86
Decreased urine volume
<500mL or < 400mL
a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis
b
87
Complete cessation of urine flow
a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis
c
88
Excretionof more than 500 mL of urine at night
a. Polyuria
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
e. Diuresis
d
89
How to distinguish Urine color properly?
a. Read against a dark background
b. Bird eye view at the top of the tube
c. Look down though the container agains a white background
c
90
Major Pigment
Directly proportional to metabolic rate
a. Urochrome
b. uroerythin
c. Urobilin
a
91
A Red / pink urine with cloudy or smoky red (Hematuria) may contain?
a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. RBC
c
92
CLEAR red
a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. RBC
a
may be "b" if looks like cola or tea
93
Contains Yellow foam with tea-colored urine
a. Dark Yellow
b. Orange - Yellow
c. Green
d. Pink or red
b
94
Contains phenol
a. Dark Yellow
b. Orange - Yellow
c. Green
d. Pink or red
c
95
Contains Carotene
a. Dark Yellow
b. Orange - Yellow
c. Green
d. Pink or red
a
96
Increase WBC
a. Burgundy / Purplish-red
b. Brown / Black
c. Milky white
c
97
Methemoglobin, homogentisic acid
a. Burgundy / Purplish-red
b. Brown / Black
c. Milky white
b
98
Melanin
a. Burgundy / Purplish-red
b. Brown / Black
c. Milky white
b
99
Methemoglobin = Alkaline urine
Homogentisic acid = Alkaptonuria
Melanin = Upon air exposure
These are the following causes black urine, which of them is wrong?
Methemoglobin
Can be seen in acidic urine
100
The clarity of the urine should be viewed a
a. Blank white paper
b. Newspaper
c. Dark colored newspaper
b
101
Few Particulates, print easily seen
a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Turbid
d. Milky
b
102
Print CANNOT be seen
a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Turbid
d. Milky
c
103
Soluble in dilute acetic acid:
1. RBCs
2. Spermatozoa
3. Amorphous urates
4. Carbonates
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
s. 1,2,3, and 4
b`
104
Insoluble in dilute acetic acid:
1. WBCs
2. Bacteria
3. Yeasts
4. Spermatozoa
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
s. 1,2,3, and 4
d
105
Soluble in Ether
1. Lipids
2. Lymphatic Fluid
3. Chyle
4. Spermatozoa
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
s. 1,2,3, and 4
a
106
Soluble with heat
1. Amorphous urates
2. Uric acid crystals
3. Chyle
4. Spermatozoa
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 2
s. 1,2,3, and 4
c
107
Alkaline urine
1. Amorphous Phosphate
2. Uric acid crystals
3. Chyle
4. Carbonates
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 2
s. 1,2,3, and 4
b
108
Urine odor:
Normal
a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet
a
109
Urine odor:
Old urine or UTI (P. vulgaris)
a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet
c
110
Urine odor:
Acute tubular necrosis
a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet
b
111
Urine odor:
Acute tubular necrosis
a. Aromatic, Fragrant
b. Odorless
c. Foul, ammonical, pungent
d. Fruity, Sweet
d
112
Trimethylaminuria
a. Cabbage
b. S, Rotten egg
c. Rotting fish
d. Pungent, fetid
c
113
Asparagus
a. Cabbage
b. S, Rotten egg
c. Rotting fish
d. Pungent, fetid
d
114
Methionine malabsorption
a. Cabbage
b. S, Rotten egg
c. Rotting fish
d. Pungent, fetid
a
115
30s
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
a, b
116
pKa change of a polyelectro
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
d
117
Ehrlich reaction
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
h
118
Pseudoperoxidase
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
g
119
Protein error of indicators
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
f
120
Leukocyte esterase
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
k
121
Na nitroprusside reaction
a. Glucose
b. Bilirubin
c. Ketones
d. S.G
e. PH
f. Protein
g. Blood
h. Urobili
i. Nitrite
k. Leuko
c
122
How do you blot the strip?
a. Blot the End part of the strip to remove excess urine
b. Blot the edge of the strip on a disposable absorbent pad
c. Blot facing down
d. Read immediately without blotting
b
123
When comparing the color reaction of the strip pads to manufacturer color, how do you hold the strip?
a. Hold the strip horizontally
b. Hold the strip Vertically
c. Hold the strip Diagonally
a
By the book
124
When caring the reagent strips, which of the following does not belong?
a. Store with dessicant in an opaque tightly closed container
b. Store below Below 30 C
c. Freeze
d. Do not expose to volatile fumes
c
125
What is the Principle of automated Reagent strip readers?
a. Reflectance photometry
b. Chemiluminescence
c. Spectrophotometry
d. Cuvette based Reader
a
126
Instrument based on refractive index?
a. Hydrometer
b. Reagent strip
c. Total solids meter
d. Urinometer
c
127
Calibration for refractometry?
1.022 +_ 0.001
a. 3% NaCl
b. 5% NaCl
c.7% NaCl
d. 9% Sucrose
b
128
Calibration for refractometry?
1.034 +_ 0.001
a. 3% NaCl
b. 5% NaCl
c.7% NaCl
d. 9% Sucrose
d
129
Calibration for refractometry?
1.035 +_ 0.001
a. 3% NaCl
b. 5% NaCl
c.7% NaCl
d. 9% Sucrose
c
130
What is the SG of Triple distilled water?
a. 1.003
b. 3.000
c. 1.000
d.1.010
c
131
Example of Harmonic oscillation densitometry where it is based on the frequency of a soundwave
a. Red IRIS
b. Yellow IRIS
c. Blue IRIS
d. Green IRIS
b
132
Meaning of IRIS?
a. International Remote Imaging system
b. International Remote Identifying system
c. International Remote Inquiring system
d. International Remote Interference system
a
133
In IRIS:
IRIS mass Gravity meter
a. 6mL
b. 4mL
c. 2mL
c
134
pH:
The normal pH for Random is:
a. 4.5-8.0
b. 5.0-6.0
c. 3.0-7.0
d. 5.5-6.5
a
135
Cause of Alkaline urine are the following except:
a. Renal tubular acidosis
b. Vegetarian diet
c. Vomiting
d. Coffee drinker
d
136
Indicative of White foam in urine?
a. Glucose
b. Albumin
c. Bilirubin
d. Nitrite
b
137
Normal value of protein secreted in urine:
a. <150 mg/ 24 hrs
b. <100 mg/24 hrs
c. <10 mg/ 24 hrs
d. None
a
138
What protein can be seen in multiple myeloma?
a. Bence Jones protein
b. Albumin
c. Microlbuminuria
d. Hyperglobinuria
a
139
Bence jones Proteins are:
a. Ig Light chanins
b. Ig Heavy chains
a
140
Urine that comprises of Bence- jones Protein will a precipitated urine at what temp?
a. 40-60 C
b. 57 C
c. 37 C
d. 100 C
a
141
Urine that comprises of Bence- jones Protein will Dissolve in a urine at what temp?
a. 40-60 C
b. 57 C
c. 37 C
d. 100 C
d
142
In Albumin excretion rate, what is the normal values?
a. 0-20 ug/min
b. 20-200 ug/min
c. >200 ug/min
b
143
An Ab-enzyme conjugate that binds albumin which is the Micral test, what is the Principle?
a. Reflectance photometry
b. Spectrophotometry
c. Enzyme immunoassay
d. Immunoelectrophoresis
c
144
Citrate buffer for Protein reagent strip contains about what pH?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
d
145
The procedure for Extons tests includes:
3 mL of _______ + 3mL centrifuged urine (10 mins incubation
a. 3% SSA
b. 5% SSA
c. 7% SSA
d. 9% SSA
a
146
In Grading for Exton's Test:
Turbidity with granulation and flocculation
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
e
147
In Grading for Exton's Test:
Distinct turbidity with no granulation
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
c
148
In Grading for Exton's Test:
Clumps of protein
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
f
149
In Grading for Exton's Test:
6-30
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
b
150
In Grading for Exton's Test:
100 - 200
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
d
151
In Grading for Exton's Test:
30-100
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
c
152
In Grading for Exton's Test:
200-400
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
e
153
In Grading for Exton's Test:
50 mg/dl
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
c
154
In Grading for Exton's Test:
500 mg/dL
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
e
155
In Grading for Exton's Test:
1.0g/dL or more
a. Neg
b. Trace
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
f
156
Glucose + oxygen--- ________ --> Gluconic acid + H2O2
a. Peroxidase
b. Glucose oxidase
b
157
H2O2 + Chromogen --______--> Oxidized chromogen + H2O
a. Peroxidase
b. Glucose oxidase
a
158
What is the Principle for Benedict's test?
a. Spectrophotometry
b. Electrophoresis
c. Neutralization
d. Copper reduction
d
159
Reporting for Benedi'ts Test
Bluish green color
a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
b
160
Reporting for Benedi'ts Test
Green color, green, or yellow precipitate
a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
c
161
Reporting for Benedi'ts Test
Yellow Orange color
a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
e
162
Reporting for Benedi'ts Test
Brick red
a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
f
163
Reporting for Benedi'ts Test
Yellow Green / Yellow
a. Neg
b. Tr
c. 1+
d. 2+
e. 3+
f. 4+
d
164
Reducing agent for Benedict's test causes
a. F (+)
b. F (-)
a
165
Oxidizing agent for Benedict's test causes
a. F (+)
b. F (-)
b
166
What is the color for the principle of Sodium nitropruside in the strip for ketones?
a. violet
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Green
a
167
▪ β-hydroxybutyric acid - ___%
▪ Diacetic acid / Acetoacetic acid - ___%
▪ Acetone - 2%
a. 78, 20
b. 79, 19
c. 76, 22
d. 77. 21
a
168
Cloudy red urine
a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria
a
169
Clear red or red brown
a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria
c
170
Clear red
a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria
b
171
Which of the following is toxic to the renal tubules?
a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Bilirubin
d. Porphyrin
b
172
How do you differentiate Hemoglobin and myoglobin?
a. Beer's test
b. Clinitest
c. Blondheim's test
d. Peroxidase test
c
173
Blondheim's test Reagent?
a. Sodium peroxidase
b. Myosulfate
c. Ammonium Sultate
d. Sulfuric acid
c
174
What is the color for Hemoglobin in Blood strip test?
a. Violet
b. Blue-Red
c. Green / Blue
d. Yellow
c
175
Color of urine with bilirubin
a. Yellow foam
b. Tea-colored Urine
c. Both
d. Neither
c
176
Positive reaction of Bilirubin in Reagent strip
a. Yellow
b. Pink - Violet
c. Violet
d. Red
b
177
What is the specimen for Urobilinogen?
a. First morning
b. 2-4 pm urine
c. Random urine
d. Fasting urine
b
178
What is the normal value for Urobilinogen?
a. < 1 mg/dL
b. < 2 mg/dL
c. < 3 mg/dL
d. < 4 mg/dL
a
179
Convert 0.4 mg/dL of urobilinogen into Ehrlich unirt:
a. 4 EU
b. 5 EU
c. 0.4 EU
d. 0.8 EU
c
180
In Watson-Schwartz test
Soluble in Chloroform and Butanol indicates?
a. Urobilinogen
b. porphobilinogen
c. Ehrlich reactive
a
181
Dietary nitrates is found in
a. Juice
b. Water
c. Meat
d. Vegetables
d
182
* Multistix (M): Polymethylvinyl ether maleic anhydride
* Chemstrip (C): Ethylene glycol diaminoethyl ether tetraacetic acid
* pH indicator: Bromthymol blue
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
a
183
M: Tetrabromophenol blue
C: tetrachlorophenoltetrabromosulfon-phtalein
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
c
184
M&C: Methyl Red & Bromthymol Blue
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
b
185
Sodium nitroprusside
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
e
186
* Multistix: Diisopropyl-benzenedihydro-peroxide
* Chemstrip: Dimethyl-dihydroperoxyhexane Tetramethylbenzidine
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
f
187
* Multistix: Dichloroaniline diazonium salt
* Chemstrip: Dichlorobenzene diazonium salt
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
g
188
M: p-arsanilic acid tetrahydrobenzo-quinolinol
C: Sulfanilamide-hydroxy THBQ
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
i
189
* Multistix: Pdimethylaminobenzaldehyde
* Chemstrip: Methoxyenzene-diazoniumtetrafluoroborate
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
h
190
* M: Derivative pyrrole amino acid ester
* C: Indoxycarbonic acid ester
a. SG
b. pH
c. Protein
d. Glucose
e. Ketones
f. Blood
g. Bilirubin
h. Urobilinogen
i. Nitrite
J. Leukocyte esterase
j
191
The following that can be affected by ascorbic acid except
a. Blood
b. Bilirubin
c. Leukocytes
d. Nitrite
e. Glucose
f. Urobilinogen
f
192
What is being detected in 11th pad?
Ascorbic acid
