Recalls 6 - NP3 Flashcards

1
Q

Situation: You’ll be working in the Medical Step-down Unit, where you expect to deal with numerous patients who have acid-base imbalances. To be thoroughly prepared as a professional nurse, you plan to review key information on how to manage various types of acid-base imbalances.

  1. As a nurse you were taught how to evaluate arterial blood gas (ABG) values. Which of the following steps would you do FIRST?

*
0/1
A. Evaluate HCO3
B. Evaluate pH
C. Determine acid base status

D. Evaluate PaCO2

A
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2
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions may cause metabolic acidosis due to a decrease in bicarbonate (HC03) level?
  2. Loss of gastric fluids from vomiting or nasogastric suction
  3. Loss of body fluids from drains below the umbilicus
  4. Gastrointestinal fistulas
  5. Aspirin ingestion

*
0/1
A. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3

A
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3
Q
  1. The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Paco2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L).

The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition?

*
1/1
A. Metabolic acidosis, compensated
B. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated

C. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated
D. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated

A

B. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated

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3
Q
  1. Jian, 30 years old, was brought to the Emergency Department (ED) with nausea confusion, dehydration and oliguria. Her mother informs you that Jian has been depressed after losing her job as a bank executive. An empty bottle of aspirin was found in her bathroom sink. Her laboratory values revealed the if.: pH = 7.35, PaCO2=16 mmHg, PaO2=130 mmHg, and HCO3=15mEq/L. What is the CORRECT acid-base interpretation of her ABG?

*
1/1
A. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
B. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
C. Partially compensated metabolic: acidosis
D. Compensated metabolic acidosis.

A

D. Compensated metabolic acidosis.

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4
Q
  1. Anne, a client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting and suspected gastroenteritis presents to the emergency department. Anne is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. Arterial blood gases are drawn, and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which finding?

*
0/1
A. A decreased pH and an increased Paco2

B. An increased pH and a decreased Paco2
C. A decreased pH and a decreased HCO3
D. An increased pH and an increased HCO3

A
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5
Q
  1. Nurse AVA is caring for a client having respiratory distress related to an anxiety attack. Recent arterial blood gas (ABG) values are pH = 7.53, Pao2 =72 mm Hg, Paco2 = 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 = 28 mEq/L (28 mmol/L). Which conclusion about the client would the nurse make?

*
1/1
A. The client has acidotic blood.
B. The client is probably overreacting.
C. The client is fluid volume overloaded.
D. The client is probably hyperventilating.

A

D. The client is probably hyperventilating.

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6
Q

Situation: Nurse Ces, an infectious control nurse, is caring for a client with Pulmonary Tuberculosis.

  1. Which client has special risk factors that warrant testing for tuberculosis?

*
1/1
A. 45-year-old Caucasian man who has been homeless for 2 years

B. 15-year-old Caucasian woman with asthma
C. 72-year-old woman who is a recent immigrant from Russia
D. 50-year-old Iowa farmer

A

A. 45-year-old Caucasian man who has been homeless for 2 years

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7
Q
  1. Nurse Ces knows that the priority action for a client admitted with a productive cough, weight loss, and a suspected diagnosis of tuberculosis is:

*
1/1
A. Instruction on preventing disease transmission

B. Planning for frequent rest period
C. Recording accurate Intake and output
D. Reviewing current dietary patterns

A

A. Instruction on preventing disease transmission

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8
Q
  1. Nurse Ces concludes that an intradermal TB test result is positive in any person if the following is present:

*
1/1
A. An induration of 15 mm or more

B. An induration of 10 cm or more
C. An induration of 5-9 mm
D. A hivelike vesicle

A

A. An induration of 15 mm or more

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9
Q
  1. A client with tuberculosis has a prescription for Myambutol (Ethambutol HCI). Nurse Ces should tell the client to notify the doctor immediately if he notices:

A. Gastric distress
B. Changes in hearing
C. Red discoloration of body fluids
D. Changes in color vision

A

D. Changes in color vision

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10
Q
  1. The Mantoux test is used to determine whether a person has been exposed to tuberculosis. If the test is positive, Nurse Ces will find a:

*
0/1
A. Fluid filled vesicle

B. Sharply demarcated erythema
C. Central area of induration
D. Circular blanched area

A
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11
Q

Situation: You are the nurse on duty caring for multiple patients with cardiac conditions.

  1. A patient with a history of type 2 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with chest pain and is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which medication should you withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours afterward?

*
0/1
A. Glipizide
B. Metformin
C. Repaglinide
D. Regular insulin

A
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12
Q
  1. One of your clients is having a sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats per minute and blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg, reports dizziness. Which intervention would you anticipate will be prescribed?

*
0/1
A. Administer digoxin.

B. Defibrillate the client.
C. Continue to monitor the client.
D. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.

A
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13
Q
  1. You are watching the cardiac monitor and notices that a client’s rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 beats per minute. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia?

*
0/1
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. Ventricular Fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Premature ventricular contractions

A
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14
Q
  1. You are assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. Which intervention is your priority after placing the pads on the client’s chest and before discharging the device?

*
1/1
A. Ensure that the client has been intubated.
B. Set the defibrillator to “synchronize” mode.
C. Administer an amiodarone bolus.
D. Confirm the cardiac rhythm.

A

D. Confirm the cardiac rhythm.

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15
Q
  1. You noticed that your client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would you anticipate when auscultating the client’s breath sounds?

A. Stridor
B. Crackles
C. Scattered rhonchi
D. Diminished breath sound

A

B. Crackles

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16
Q
  1. You are assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable. How would you interpret the client’s neurovascular status?

*
0/1
A. The neurovascular status is expected because of increased blood flow through the leg.
B. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the surgeon needs to be called.

C. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and needs to be monitored for another hour.
D. The neurovascular status shows adequate arterial flow, but venous complications are arising.

A
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17
Q
  1. A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. Which factor is your highest priority with regard to this dysrhythmia?

*
0/1
A. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time.
B. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm.
C. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom.
D. It produces a high cardiac output with cerebral and myocardial ischemia

A
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18
Q
  1. Your client with ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. Which energy level (in joules, J) would you set on the monophasic defibrillator machine for the first delivery?

*
0/1
A. 50 J
B. 120 J

C. 200 J
D. 360 J

A
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19
Q
  1. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. You notice that there are no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority nursing action?

A. Call a code.
B. Check the client’s status.
C. Call the primary health care provider.
D. Document the lack of complexes.

A

B. Check the client’s status.

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20
Q
  1. You are caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous (IV) infusion at a rate of 150 mL/hr, unchanged for the last 10 hours. The client’s urine output for the last 3 hours has been 90, 50, and 28 mL (28 mL is most recent). The client’s blood urea nitrogen level is 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L), and the serum creatinine level is 1.8 mg/dL (159 mcmol/L), measured this morning. Which nursing action is your priority?

*
1/1
A. Check the serum albumin level.
B. Check the urine specific gravity.
C. Continue to monitor urine output.
D. Call the primary health care provider.

A

D. Call the primary health care provider.

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21
Q
  1. You are evaluating a client’s response to cardioversion. Which assessment would be the priority?

*
0/1
A. Blood pressure
B. Airway patency
C. Oxygen flow rate
D. Level of consciousness

A
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22
Q

Situation: You are on shift, responsible for managing the care of several patients with various respiratory conditions.

  1. A 12-year-old child with asthma is being treated for a severe asthma attack in the emergency room. What symptom should you specifically watch for, as it would signal a worsening of the child’s condition?

A. Warm, dry skin
B. Decreased wheezing
C. Pulse rate of 90 beats per minute
D. Respirations of 18 breaths per minute

A

B. Decreased wheezing

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23
Q
  1. An 8-year-old child undergoing home treatment for right lower lobe pneumonia calls the clinic with their parent, who reports that the child is experiencing discomfort on the right side and that ibuprofen is not providing relief. What guidance should you offer to the parent?

*
0/1
A. Increase the dose of ibuprofen.
B. Increase the frequency of ibuprofen.
C. Encourage the child to lie on the left side.

D. Encourage the child to lie on the right side.

A
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24
Q
  1. A new parent is worried about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) and asks the nurse for guidance on the safest sleep position for their newborn. What position should you recommend for placing the infant?

*
1/1
A. Side or prone
B. Back or prone
C. Stomach with the face turned
D. Back rather than on the stomach

A

D. Back rather than on the stomach

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25
Q
  1. You are discussing the immunization schedule with the parent of a child with cystic fibrosis. What information should you, as the nurse, provide to the parent regarding the child’s vaccinations?

*
1/1
A. “The immunization schedule will need to be altered.”
B. “The child should not receive any hepatitis vaccines.”
C. “The child will receive all of the immunizations except for the polio series.”
D. “The child will receive the recommended basic series of immunizations along with a yearly influenza vaccination.”

A

D. “The child will receive the recommended basic series of immunizations along with a yearly influenza vaccination.”

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26
Q
  1. You are an emergency department nurse evaluating a child diagnosed with epiglottitis. What signs should you watch for to determine if the child may be experiencing an airway obstruction?

*
1/1
A. The child exhibits nasal flaring and bradycardia.
B. The child is leaning forward, with the chin thrust out.

C. The child has a low-grade fever and complains of a sore throat.
D. The child is leaning backward, supporting self with the hands and arms.

A

B. The child is leaning forward, with the chin thrust out.

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27
Q
  1. A child with croup is being treated with a cool mist vaporizer in their hospital room. The child is visibly distressed, crying persistently, and attempting to leave the area. What should you do to address the child’s discomfort and ensure their safety?

A. Tell the parent that the child must stay in the tent.
B. Place a toy in the tent to make the child feel more comfortable.
C. Call the pediatrician and obtain a prescription for a mild sedative.
D. Let the parent hold the child and direct the cool mist over the child’s face.

A

D. Let the parent hold the child and direct the cool mist over the child’s face.

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28
Q
  1. You reviews the tuberculin skin test (TST) results for a 3-year-old child and notes an induration area measuring 10 mm. How should you interpret these results?

*
0/1
A. Positive
B. Negative

C. Inconclusive
D. Definitive and requiring a repeat test

A
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29
Q
  1. The parent of a hospitalized 2-year-old child with viral laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) asks you why antibiotics were not prescribed by the doctor. How should you respond?

*
1/1
A. “The child may be allergic to antibiotics.”
B. “The child is too young to receive antibiotics.”
C. “Antibiotics are not indicated unless a bacterial infection is present.”

D. “The child still has the maternal antibodies from birth and does not need antibiotics.”

A

C. “Antibiotics are not indicated unless a bacterial infection is present.”

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30
Q
  1. You are an emergency department nurse evaluating a patient who has experienced a blunt trauma to the chest. Which sign would suggest that the patient may have a pneumothorax?

*
0/1
A. A low respiratory rate
B. Diminished breath sounds
C. The presence of a barrel chest
D. A sucking sound at the site of injury

A
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31
Q

Situation: The nurse is preparing for an upcoming shift and decides to review her knowledge on various medications. She focuses on understanding the indications, side effects, and proper administration techniques for commonly used drugs in her unit.

  1. A patient is prescribed guaifenesin. How would the nurse know the patient understands the correct way to take this medication if the patient describes which specific action?

*
1/1
A. Take an extra dose if fever develops
B. Take the medication with meals only
C. Increase water intake when taking the medication

D. Decrease the amount of daily fluid intake

A

C. Increase water intake when taking the medication

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32
Q
  1. The nurse is getting ready to administer intravenous naloxone to a patient with an opioid overdose. What supportive medical equipment should the nurse ensure is available at the patient’s bedside?

*
1/1
A. Nasogastric tube
B. Paracentesis tray
C. Resuscitation equipment

D. Central line insertion tray

A

C. Resuscitation equipment

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33
Q
  1. Zafirlukast is prescribed for a client with bronchial asthma. Which laboratory test does the nurse expect to be prescribed before the administration of this medication?

*
0/1
A. Platelet count
B. Neutrophil count

C. Liver function tests
D. Complete blood count

A
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34
Q
  1. The nurse has provided a patient on ethambutol with information about the medication. How can the nurse confirm that the patient understands the instructions if the patient says they will promptly report which specific symptom?

*
0/1
A. Impaired sense of hearing

B. Gastrointestinal side effects
C. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions
D. Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green

A
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35
Q
  1. A patient is about to start a 6-month course of isoniazid therapy. What should the nurse plan to teach the patient to do during their treatment?

*
1/1
A. Use alcohol in small amounts only.
B. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.

C. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses.
D. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

A

B. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.

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36
Q
  1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hr. Which lab result would signal to the nurse that the patient is receiving an effective therapeutic dose?

*
1/1
A. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds

D. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds

A

C. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds

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37
Q
  1. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient with atrial fibrillation who is taking warfarin sodium. Which statement by the patient shows they require further education?

*
1/1
A. “I will avoid alcohol consumption.”
B. “I will take coated aspirin for my headaches.”

C. “I will take my pills every day at the same time.”
D. “I have already called my family to pick up a MedicAlert bracelet.”

A

B. “I will take coated aspirin for my headaches.”

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38
Q
  1. The home health care nurse is visiting a patient with hypertension and high LDL cholesterol, whose serum cholesterol level is 420 mg/dL (11 mmol/L). The patient is prescribed warfarin, and the nurse provides education about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?

*
1/1
A. “Constipation and bloating might be a problem.”
B. “I’ll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats.”
C. “Walking a mile each day will help the whole process.”
D. “I’ll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store.”

A

D. “I’ll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store.”

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39
Q
  1. For a patient receiving intravenous heparin therapy for atrial fibrillation, which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available on the nursing unit?

*
1/1
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate

C. Potassium chloride
D. Aminocaproic acid

A

B. Protamine sulfate

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40
Q
  1. A patient on daily digoxin has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) and reports anorexia. The cardiologist orders a serum digoxin level test. Which digoxin level would the nurse identify as being outside the therapeutic range?

*
1/1
A. 0.5 ng/mL (0.63 nmol/L)
B. 0.8 ng/mL (1.02 nmol/L)
C. 0.9 ng/mL (1.14 nmol/L)
D. 2.2 ng/mL (2.8 nmol/L)

A

D. 2.2 ng/mL (2.8 nmol/L)

41
Q
  1. Nurse Evelyn is assessing a patient newly diagnosed with COPD. The patient reports a chronic cough with sputum production. What assessment finding would she expect in this patient?

*
0/1
A. Clear, thin sputum
B. Pink, frothy sputum

C. Yellow-green, thick sputum
D. Rust-colored sputum

A
42
Q
  1. A patient with COPD is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Nurse Evelyn instructs the patient on how to use the inhaler properly. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

*
1/1
A. “I should rinse my mouth with water after using the inhaler.”
B. “I will use the inhaler before using my bronchodilator.”

C. “I will press down on the inhaler while I breathe in deeply.”
D. “I should wait at least 1 minute between puffs if instructed to take more than one.”

A

B. “I will use the inhaler before using my bronchodilator.”

43
Q
  1. A patient with COPD is receiving supplemental oxygen therapy. Which observation would indicate that the patient might be experiencing oxygen toxicity?

*
0/1
A. Cyanosis of the lips and fingertips
B. A decreased respiratory rate
C. Complaints of dry cough and substernal discomfort
D. Decreased oxygen saturation levels

A
44
Q
  1. A patient with COPD is experiencing increased shortness of breath and has a history of frequent exacerbations. Nurse Evelyn is reviewing the patient’s medications. Which class of medication would she expect to be prescribed to help manage this patient’s symptoms?

*
1/1
A. Antihistamines
B. Antibiotics
C. Bronchodilators

D. Antivirals

A

C. Bronchodilators

45
Q
  1. A patient with COPD is participating in pulmonary rehabilitation. Nurse Evelyn is educating the patient about lifestyle changes to improve their condition. Which lifestyle modification would she most likely recommend?

*
1/1
A. Increase daily intake of caffeine
B. Engage in regular physical activity

C. Avoid all dietary fats
D. Limit fluid intake to prevent congestion

A

B. Engage in regular physical activity

46
Q

Situation: Annaliza, a senior nurse, is reviewing her knowledge regarding delegation and task management.

  1. Annaliza, a nurse in a busy Philippine hospital is delegating tasks to a team of nurses and nursing assistants. Which task should she delegate to a nursing assistant?

*
1/1
A. Administering intravenous medications
B. Performing a comprehensive physical assessment
C. Assisting a patient with daily activities and basic care
D. Developing a care plan for a complex patient

A

C. Assisting a patient with daily activities and basic care

47
Q
  1. The head nurse is reviewing the delegation process with a new nurse in a hospital in the Philippines. Which of the following principles should the nurse use to ensure effective delegation?

*
1/1
A. Delegate tasks that require the nurse’s unique skills to unlicensed personnel
B. Ensure that the delegatee has the necessary competence and training for the task

C. Delegate all tasks to ensure that the workload is evenly distributed
D. Only delegate tasks that are easy and can be done quickly

A

B. Ensure that the delegatee has the necessary competence and training for the task

48
Q
  1. Nurse Annaliza is dealing with a situation where a nursing assistant is frequently late for their shift. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse manager to take?

*
1/1
A. Ignore the lateness if it does not affect patient care
B. Discuss the issue with the nursing assistant privately and address the pattern of lateness

C. Reprimand the nursing assistant publicly to set an example
D. Reassign the nursing assistant to a different shift without discussing the issue

A

B. Discuss the issue with the nursing assistant privately and address the pattern of lateness

49
Q
  1. Nurse Annaliza is preparing to delegate a complex wound dressing change. Which aspect of delegation is critical for ensuring that the task is performed safely?

*
1/1
A. Verifying that the task is within the scope of practice for the delegatee

B. Delegating the task without providing instructions
C. Only providing verbal instructions without written guidelines
D. Assuming that the delegatee knows how to perform the task without supervision

A

A. Verifying that the task is within the scope of practice for the delegatee

50
Q
  1. A nurse manager in the Philippines needs to prioritize tasks for a busy unit. Which of the following tasks should the nurse manager prioritize?

*
0/1
A. Completing paperwork for routine audits
B. Addressing a sudden change in a patient’s condition
C. Organizing a staff social event

D. Conducting a review of patient satisfaction surveys

A
51
Q

SITUATION: Sarah is a 55-year-old woman diagnosed with advanced gastric cancer. Over the past few weeks, she has experienced a significant decrease in appetite, persistent fatigue, dehydration, and weight loss of approximately 15 lbs. Due to her inability to consume food, Sarah has been admitted to the hospital for further evaluation and management.

  1. What intervention should you identify as best to meet Sarah’s nutritional needs?

*
1/1
A. Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV
B. TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter

C. Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds
D. Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion

A

B. TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter

52
Q
  1. The method of nutrition administration is being initiated. Based on your nursing expertise, why is it necessary to begin the administration slowly?

*
0/1
A. Patients receiving TPN are at risk for hypercalcemia if calories are started too rapidly.

B. Malnourished patients receiving parenteral nutrition are at risk for hypophosphatemia if calories are started too aggressively.
C. Malnourished patients who receive fluids too rapidly are at risk for hypernatremia.
D. Patients receiving TPN need a slow initiation of treatment in order to allow digestive enzymes to accumulate

A
53
Q
  1. Which of the following nursing assessments most directly addresses a major complication of this kind of nutrition administration?

*
1/1
A. Checking the patients capillary blood glucose levels regularly

B. Having the patient frequently rate his or her hunger on a 10-point scale
C. Measuring the patients heart rhythm at least every 6 hours
D. Monitoring the patients level of consciousness each shift

A

A. Checking the patients capillary blood glucose levels regularly

54
Q
  1. In preparing a care plan for Sarah, what nursing diagnosis should the you prioritize?

*
1/1
A. Risk for Activity Intolerance
B. Risk for Infection

C. Risk for Functional Urinary Incontinence
D. Risk for Sleep Deprivation

A

B. Risk for Infection

55
Q
  1. Sarah suddenly complained of slight chest pain, dyspnea and appears cyanotic. You suspect that she is experiencing what possible IMMEDIATE complication?

*
1/1
A. Sepsis due to IV line
B. Air embolism
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Fluid overload

A

B. Air embolism

56
Q

SITUATION: You are a nurse assigned to care for Mr. Thompson, a 72-year-old patient admitted to the medical-surgical ward with a diagnosis of COPD. Mr. Thompson has been experiencing increased shortness of breath, chronic cough, and fatigue, which have significantly impacted his daily activities.

  1. As you perform your assessment, you auscultated diminished breath sounds which signify changes in the airway. In this case, what will you expect Mr. Thompson to have?

A. Kyphosis and clubbing of the fingers
B. Dyspnea and hypoxemia
C. Sepsis and pneumothorax
D. Bradypnea and pursed lip breathing

A

B. Dyspnea and hypoxemia

57
Q
  1. What PRIORITY nursing action should you do with the presenting clinical manifestations of the patient?

*
1/1
A. Report to the physician status Sarah at once.
B. Take Blood pressure and respiratory rate.
C. Stop temporarily the Total Parenteral Nutrition
D. Administer Oxygen inhalation.

A

C. Stop temporarily the Total Parenteral Nutrition

58
Q
  1. You are providing palliative care to Mr. Thompson. What is your primary goal of doing this kind of nursing care?

*
0/1
A. To improve the patients and family’s quality of life
B. To support aggressive and innovative treatments for cure
C. To provide physical support for the patient

D. To help the patient develop a separate plan with each discipline of the health care team

A
59
Q
  1. You noticed that Mr. Thompson been receiving high-flow oxygen therapy since the last shift. What symptoms should you anticipate if Mr. Thompson is experiencing oxygen toxicity?

*
1/1
A. Bradycardia and frontal headache
B. Dyspnea and substernal pain

C. Peripheral cyanosis and restlessness
D. Hypotension and tachycardia

A

B. Dyspnea and substernal pain

60
Q
  1. You know that patients like Mr. Thompson requires a reliable and precise oxygen delivery. Which mask will you expect the physician to order?

*
1/1
A. Non-rebreather air mask
B. Tracheostomy collar
C. Venturi mask

D. Face tent

A

C. Venturi mask

61
Q
  1. Mr. Thompson asked what he could have done to minimize the risk of contracting this disease. What would be your best answer?

*
1/1
A. The most important risk factor for COPD is exposure to occupational toxins.
B. The most important risk factor for COPD is inadequate exercise.
C. The most important risk factor for COPD is exposure to dust and pollen.
D. The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking.

A

D. The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking.

62
Q
  1. You are developing the teaching portion of your care plan. What would be the most important component for you to emphasize?

*
0/1
A. Smoking up to one-half of a pack of cigarettes weekly is allowable.
B. Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage.
C. Minor respiratory infections are considered to be self-limited and are not treated.
D. Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be clustered in the early morning hours.

A
62
Q
  1. You must ensure that you give appropriate nursing care to Mr. Thomson because you know that it can lead to which of the following complication?

*
1/1
A. Lung cancer
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Respiratory failure

D. Hemothorax

A

C. Respiratory failure

63
Q
  1. Mr. Thompson is about to be discharged. When conducting a discharge teaching to client about breathing exercises, what should you include?

*
1/1
A. Lie supine to facilitate air entry
B. Avoid pursed lip breathing
C. Use diaphragmatic breathing

D. Use chest breathing

A

C. Use diaphragmatic breathing

64
Q
  1. Which of the following energy-conserving strategies should COPD patients avoid?

*
1/1
A. Exhaling while pushing or exerting effort during daily activities
B. Assuming a tripod position with elbows supported on the table when shaving or combing hair
C. Inhaling when resting, sitting, or lying down
D. Standing in front of a mirror while shaving or combing hair

A

D. Standing in front of a mirror while shaving or combing hair

65
Q

SITUATION: Jerome, a 40-year-old male, has been diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. He has a history of hypertension and obesity, and his family history includes diabetes. Jerome works a sedentary desk job and leads a relatively inactive lifestyle. His diet consists of high-calorie, high-fat foods, and he rarely engages in physical exercise.

  1. Jerome has been regulating his blood glucose levels with dietary adjustments and metformin. If his daily metformin dose will be increased, what assessment should be your highest priority?

*
0/1
A. Monitoring the patients neutrophil levels
B. Assessing the patient for signs of impaired liver function
C. Monitoring the patients level of consciousness and behavior

D. Reviewing the patients creatinine and BUN levels

A
66
Q
  1. Knowing the current medication he is taking, which statement would warrant you the need for further teaching?

*
0/1
A. “It is okay if I skip meals once in a while.”
B. “I need to let my doctor know if I get unusually tired.”
C. “I need to constantly watch for signs of low blood sugar.”
D. “I will be sure to not drink alcohol excessively while on this medication.”

A
67
Q
  1. You already endorsed Jerome to the next shift nurse, who happens to be newly hired. Instead of metformin, the nurse administered 20 units of insulin. Jerome developed hypoglycemia and eventually died. If this occurs, the newly hired registered nurse is liable for:

*
1/1
A. negligence
B. battery
C. malpractice

D. assault

A

C. malpractice

68
Q
  1. He developed cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN). Which instruction would you provide for the nursing assistant assisting the patient with morning care?

*
1/1
A. Provide a complete bed bath for this patient.
B. Sit the patient up slowly on the side of the bed before standing.

C. Only let the patient wash his or her face and brush his or her teeth.
D. Be sure to provide rest periods between activities.

A

B. Sit the patient up slowly on the side of the bed before standing.

69
Q
  1. When preparing to review a teaching plan for Jerome, which value would be essential to check in order to assess his adherence to the prescribed diabetic regimen?

*
1/1
A. Fasting glucose level
B. Oral glucose tolerance test results
C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c) level

D. Fingerstick glucose findings for 24 hours

A

C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c) level

70
Q
  1. Jerome appears to have an altered level of consciousness and prominent signs of dehydration. His blood glucose level is found to be 623 mg/dL. His wife reports that he recently had amoebiasis and has been confused for the past 3 hours. The diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) has been made. What should be the priority nursing action?

*
1/1
A. Administration of antihypertensive medications
B. Administering sodium bicarbonate intravenously
C. Reversing acidosis by administering insulin
D. Fluid and electrolyte replacement

A

D. Fluid and electrolyte replacement

71
Q

SITUATION: Ernalyn is a dedicated nurse employed at the National Kidney Center of the Kumpuruhus. With a compassionate heart and a keen eye for detail, she diligently monitors multiple patients with problems in genitourinary tract.

  1. A client with end stage renal disease has been managed by peritoneal dialysis. Which finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?

*
0/1
A. The amount of dialysate return is less than that instilled.
B. The client complains of abdominal pain and nausea.
C. The dialysate return is colorless in appearance.
D. The client has lost two pounds in the last week.

A
72
Q
  1. One of the patient is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which finding most likely contributed to the development of bladder cancer?

*
0/1
A. Two PPD cigarette use for 25 years
B. Frequent urinary tract infections
C. Employment in the textile industry

D. A history of renal calculi

A
73
Q
  1. Ernalyn is providing dietary instructions to an admitted client with oxalate renal calculi. Before discharge, the nurse conducted a health teaching session with the client about the permissible foods. Subsequently, the nurse asked the client to recall what was discussed. Which statement made by the patient would require further education?

*
0/1
A. “I rely on coffee in the morning to kickstart my day and maintain productivity. The aroma of freshly brewed coffee permeates the kitchen, signaling the start of a new day.”
B. “I absolutely love my pizza extra cheesy, especially when it’s loaded with a blend of mozzarella, cheddar, and Parmesan cheese.”

C. “Mama, thank you very much! You know that I love chicken nuggets!”
D. “I used to struggle with watery stool, which is why I’ve made it a habit to eat a banana regularly after meals.”

A
74
Q
  1. For which patient should Ernalyn be most concerned about the risk for developing kidney disease?

*
1/1
A. A 25-year-old patient who developed a urinary tract infection during pregnancy
B. A 55-year-old patient with a history of kidney stones
C. A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes
D. A 79-year-old patient with stress urinary incontinence

A

C. A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes

75
Q
  1. The aforementioned patient at risk for kidney disease is ordered to have a urinalysis. When would Ernalyn instruct the patient to collect this sample ideally?

*
1/1
A. With first morning void
B. Before any meal
C. At bedtime
D. Immediately

A

A. With first morning void

76
Q
  1. Ernalyn is admitting a 66-year-old male patient suspected of having a urinary tract infection. Which part of the patient’s medical history supports this diagnosis?

*
0/1
A. Patient’s wife had a UTI 1 month ago
B. Followed for prostate disease for 2 years
C. Intermittent catheterization 6 months ago

D. Kidney stone removal 1 year ago

A
77
Q
  1. Ernalyn is assigned to supervise a new graduate nurse who is orienting to the unit. The new nurse is conducting health teaching for a patient with a UTI on how to properly take the prescribed Ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the nurse would not require Ernalyn to intervene?

*
1/1
A. “We should check with the health care provider because the patient should take this drug until signs and symptoms of UTI is evident only.”
B. “A full course of ciprofloxacin is not the appropriate treatment for a patient with UTI.”
C. “It is better to take this medication after having your lunch.”
D. “Longer courses of ciprofloxacin therapy are required for hospitalized patients to prevent nosocomial infections.”

A

C. “It is better to take this medication after having your lunch.”

78
Q
  1. The patient felt the impact of having a UTI. He asked nurse Ernalyn how he could have prevented it. Which of the following statements should not be included in the health teaching?

*
1/1
A. “You should always drink 2 to 3 L of fluid every day.”
B. “Empty your bladder regularly even if you do not feel the urge to urinate.”
C. “Drinking cranberry juice daily will decrease the number of bacteria in your bladder.”
D. “It’s okay to soak in the tub with bubble bath because it will keep you clean.”

A

D. “It’s okay to soak in the tub with bubble bath because it will keep you clean.”

79
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with acute kidney failure had a urine output of 1560 mL for the past 8 hours. Lilo, a nursing assistant who is caring for this patient under the supervision of nurse Ernalyn asks how a patient with kidney failure can have such a large urine output. What is the nurse best response?

*
1/1
A. “The patient’s kidney failure was caused by hypovolemia, and we have given him IV fluids to correct the problem.”
B. “Acute kidney failure patients go through a diuretic phase when their kidneys begin to recover and may put out as much as 10 L of urine per day.”
C. “With that much urine output, there must have been a mistake in the patient’s diagnosis.”
D. “An increase in urine output like this is an indicator that the patient is entering the recovery phase of acute kidney failure.”

A

B. “Acute kidney failure patients go through a diuretic phase when their kidneys begin to recover and may put out as much as 10 L of urine per day.”

79
Q

SITUATION: Mrs. Marites, a 72-year-old female, is admitted to the medical-surgical ward with worsening shortness of breath, fatigue, and swelling in her lower extremities. Over the past week, she has been unable to perform her daily activities without feeling extremely tired and breathless. Her medical history includes chronic heart failure. On assessment, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 150/90 mmHg, heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 88% on room air.

  1. Which of the following is the applicable nursing problem of Mrs. Marites?

*
1/1
A. Activity intolerance
B. Ineffective family health management
C. Impaired verbal communication
D. Deficient knowledge

A

A. Activity intolerance

80
Q
  1. What kind of nursing diagnosis does Mrs. Marites have?

*
1/1
A. Risk Nursing Diagnosis
B. Health Promotion Diagnosis
C. Actual Nursing Diagnosis
D. Syndrome Diagnosis

A

C. Actual Nursing Diagnosis

81
Q
  1. In making the nursing diagnosis, what could be the possible etiology of Mrs. Marites’ problem?

*
1/1
A. Chronic Heart Failure
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. BP: 150/90 mmHg, HR: 110bpm, RR: 24bpm
D. Shortness of breath

A

B. Decreased cardiac output

82
Q
  1. Which of the following patient outcomes show that the goal is met and the intervention made is effective?

*
1/1
A. Patient demonstrates decreased anxiety
B. Patient makes sound decisions regarding care and treatment
C. Patient and family members adhere to healthy regimen
D. Patient demonstrates tolerance for desired activity

A

D. Patient demonstrates tolerance for desired activity

83
Q

SITUATION: Marou Pawk, a fourth-year nursing student on the verge of graduation, is exploring the various roles nurses can undertake. She is keen to understand the diverse responsibilities and opportunities available to her once she becomes a registered nurse.

  1. A nurse can be responsible for creating staff schedules, delegating patient care tasks, and evaluating performance metrics. Additionally, she addresses staff concerns and ensures that shifts are covered appropriately. This role exemplifies:

*
1/1
A. Researcher
B. Teacher
C. Manager
D. Leader

A

C. Manager

83
Q
  1. During a patient’s discharge from the hospital, a nurse provides comprehensive instructions on how to manage their newly prescribed medications, including potential side effects and dietary restrictions. She also schedules follow-up appointments and explains the importance of each step in the care process. This role is an example of:

*
1/1
A. Teacher
B. Caregiver
C. Leader
D. Communicator

A

A. Teacher

83
Q
  1. A nurse provides physical assistance to a patient who is unable to move independently, helping with activities such as feeding and personal hygiene, while consistently respecting and upholding the patient’s dignity and personal preferences. This role is best described as:

*
1/1
A. Caregiver
B. Teacher
C. Researcher
D. Communicator

A

A. Caregiver

84
Q
  1. A nurse motivates a group of healthcare professionals to participate in a new wellness initiative aimed at reducing staff burnout. She leads by example, shares her experiences, and encourages others to adopt stress management techniques. This role exemplifies:

*
1/1
A. Leader
B. Manager
C. Caregiver
D. Researcher

A

A. Leader

85
Q
  1. A nurse provides emotional support to a patient undergoing cancer treatment, helping them navigate their feelings and develop coping strategies. She uses therapeutic communication to foster a trusting relationship and support the patient’s psychological well-being. This role exemplifies:

*
1/1
A. Counselor
B. Manager
C. Leader
D. Change Agent

A

A. Counselor

86
Q
  1. In a community health clinic, Nurse Juliet is working with diabetic clients to encourage healthier lifestyle choices. She organizes educational sessions on nutrition and exercise, providing personalized advice and support to help clients manage their condition effectively. Through her efforts, she fostered positive behavior changes in her clients. What role is the nurse demonstrating?

*
0/1
A. Client advocate
B. Leader
C. Manager

D. Change agent

A
86
Q
  1. When a patient decides against a recommended surgical procedure due to personal reasons, the nurse ensures that the patient’s decision is respected, provides alternative options, and stand for the patient’s right to make their own healthcare choices. This role is best described as:

*
1/1
A. Client Advocate
B. Caregiver
C. Researcher
D. Teacher

A

A. Client Advocate

87
Q
  1. After observing a patient’s unusual symptoms, she recalls similar cases from her experience and quickly predicts that the patient is likely experiencing a specific condition, which the medical team then confirms. This is an example of:

*
1/1
A. Research Process
B. Intuition

C. Trial and Error
D. Critical Thinking

A

B. Intuition

88
Q
  1. She encounters a new type of medical device and systematically reviews its operation manual, compares it with previous devices, and conducts a series of tests to understand its functionality. This approach is known as:

*
0/1
A. Trial and Error
B. Intuition
C. Research Process
D. Critical Thinking

A
89
Q
  1. Sandara Ting has a patient whose blood pressure readings are erratic. She initially tries adjusting the patient’s position to see if the blood pressure will change. However, the blood pressure remains elevated. He then recalibrated the blood pressure cuff and assessing for other factors to improve the patient’s blood pressure. This method demonstrates:

*
1/1
A. Intuition
B. Research Process
C. Trial and Error
D. Critical Thinking

A

C. Trial and Error

89
Q
  1. She reviews recent studies and evidence-based guidelines to develop a new care protocol for managing patients with chronic pain, aiming to improve patient outcomes. This systematic approach is an example of:

*
1/1
A. Critical Thinking
B. Research Process
C. Intuition
D. Trial and Error

A

B. Research Process

90
Q

SITUATION: Nurse Chang Hai is actively engaged in nursing research at a renowned university hospital. As a researcher, she meticulously collects and analyzes data, collaborates with other healthcare professionals, and contributes to the development of evidence-based practices.

  1. She performs a research study on the effectiveness of the use of warm saline solution as compared with the use of cool oatmeal bath to promote wound debridement among patients immediately chosen with crusty and scaly skin condition. The most appropriate research design is?

*
0/1
A. Quasi-experimental research
B. Qualitative research
C. Experimental research

D. Descriptive research

A
91
Q
  1. A study is entitled “Hypoglycemia: Its effect with the development and extent of developmental delay in the cohort of children with Type I DM”. A study uses insulin and a new drug therapy among patients immediately available in her ward. This is an example of:

*
0/1
A. Experimental
B. Quasi experimental
C. Quantitative design

D. Ethnography

A
92
Q
  1. Which of the following hypothesis is a statistical hypothesis?

*
1/1
A. Compliance to dietary regimen is not associated with the level of educational attainment of patients
B. The amount of caloric restrictions hastens the reduction in body mass among obese patients
C. Weight loss is related with dietary restrictions
D. Dietary preferences affect rapid weight loss

A

A. Compliance to dietary regimen is not associated with the level of educational attainment of patients

93
Q
  1. A research was initiated to determine the causes of anorexia and weight loss among patients with cancer. It is believed that the use of radiation and chemotherapy promote loss of lean body mass. The researcher decided to test the use of high protein intake to avoid decline in body weight among cancer patients and compares body mass with similar patients he handpicked from her ward who uses regular diet. The research design applicable is?

*
0/1
A. descriptive
B. quasi experimental
C. phenomenological
D. Experimental

A
94
Q
  1. An experimental approach in which neither the subjects nor the researcher is aware of who is in the experimental and control group?

*
1/1
A. halo effects
B. double blind
C. experimenter’s effects
D. external validity

A

B. double blind