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Reactivity of Molecules Reaction Mechanism Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Electronegativity is defined as the power of an atom in a
    molecule to
    a) Repel electrons towards itself
    b) Attract electrons towards itself
    c) Expand itself
    d) All of the mentioned
A

b) Attract electrons towards itself

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2
Q
  1. How does the electronegativiy gets affected with the
    negative oxidation state?
    a) It decreases
    b) It increases
    c) It remains constant
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) It decreases

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2
Q
  1. The factors on which electronegativity depends upon
    a) Valence state of atom
    b) Hybridisation
    c) Both valence state and hybridisation
    d) None of the mentioned
A

c) Both valence state and hybridisation

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2
Q
  1. The electronegativity of sp2 hybridised atom will be
    a) 3.29
    b) 2.48
    c) 3.69
    d) 2.75
A

d) 2.75

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2
Q
  1. Arrange the following groups in the order of decreasing
    (+I) effect.
    a) C6H5O– > COO– > CR3 > CHR2 > H
    b) C6H5O– > H > CR3 > CHR2 > COO–
    c) CR3 > C6H5O– > H > COO– > CHR2
    d) C6H5O– > COO– > CHR2 > CR3 > H
A

a) C6H5O– > COO– > CR3 > CHR2 > H

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is a permanent electron
    displacement effect?
    a) Inductomeric
    b) Electromeric
    c) Inductive
    d) All of the mentioned
A

c) Inductive

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3
Q
  1. Select the correct statement from the following option
    a) When multiple bonds are present between two
    different atoms, electromeric shift towards the more
    electronegative atom takes place
    b) When multiple bonds are present between two similar
    atoms, the first possibility is symmetric alkenes or alkynes
    c) When multiple bonds are present between two similar
    atoms, the second possibility is asymmetric alkenes or
    alkynes
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

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4
Q
  1. Arrange the following groups in the order of decreasing
    (-I) effect.
    a) CN > F > Br > Cl > COOH > I > H
    b) COOH > CN > F > Br > Cl > I > H
    c) H > COOH > CN > I > Cl > F > Cl
    d) CN > COOH > F > Cl > Br > I > H
A

d) CN > COOH > F > Cl > Br > I > H

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is an application of inductive
    effect?
    a) Bond length
    b) Dipole moment
    c) Strength of carboxylic acids
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

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5
Q
  1. Due to presence of C – X polar bond in alkyl halide,
    alkyl halides are
    a) More reactive than corresponding alkane
    b) Less reactive than corresponding alkane
    c) Equally reactive as corresponding alkane
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) More reactive than corresponding alkane

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5
Q
  1. Relative basic strength of amines does not depend upon
    a) Inductive effect
    b) Mesomeric effect
    c) Steric effect
    d) Stabilisation of cation by hydration
A

b) Mesomeric effect

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a temporary effect brought
    into play at the requirement of attacking reagent?
    a) Inductive effect
    b) Mesomeric effect
    c) Electromeric effect
    d) Inductomeric effect
A

c) Electromeric effect

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6
Q
  1. Select the correct statement from the following option.
    a) Conjugate effect is stronger than (-I) effect
    b) Conjugate effect is weaker than (-I) effect
    c) Conjugate effect is same as (-I) effect
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) Conjugate effect is stronger than (-I) effect

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7
Q
  1. When the complete transfer of π-electrons take place
    away from the atom at the requirement of attacking
    agent, it is called
    a) (-E) effect
    b) (+E) effect
    c) (-I) effect
    d) (+I) effect
A

b) (+E) effect

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of lewis base?
    a) ZnCl2
    b) BF3
    c) NH3
    d) FeCl2
A

c) NH3

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7
Q
  1. The positively charged and electron deficient
    compounds which have a tendency to form a bond by
    accepting the electron pair are known as
    a) Electrophiles
    b) Nucleophiles
    c) Homophiles
A

a) Electrophiles

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about
    the nucleophiles?
    a) They are electron rich
    b) They possess an empty orbital to receive the electron
    pair
    c) They attack electron deficient centres
    d) Examples are: OH–, NH3, H2O etc
A

b) They possess an empty orbital to receive the electron
pair

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9
Q
  1. Lewis acids are the examples of nucleophilic reagents.
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is a resonance effect?
    a) Inductive effect
    b) Electromeric effect
    c) Mesomeric effect
    d) Inductomeric effect
A

c) Mesomeric effect

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following molecule will show highest
    dipole moment?
    a) CH3Cl
    b) CH3Br
    c) CH3F
    d) CH3I
A

c) CH3F

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11
Q
  1. Those groups which are electron repelling and have
    lesser electron attracting power than hydrogen show
    a) (+E) effect
    b) (-E) effect
    c) (-I) effect
    d) (+I) effect
A

d) (+I) effect

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11
Q
  1. In mesomeric effect, the electrons are transferred from
    a) A multiple bonds to an atom
    b) A multiple bonds to a single covalent bond
    c) An atom with a lone pair to the adjacent single covalent
    bond
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

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12
Q
  1. The phenomenon in which 2 or more structures,
    involving identical position of atoms can be written for a
    particular molecule, is called
    a) Conjugation
    b) Resonance
    c) Hyper conjugation
    d) Vibration
A

b) Resonance

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13
Q
  1. The resonance energy is defined as a difference in
    energy between
    a) Two consecutive resonating structures
    b) Resonance hybrid and most unstable resonating
    structure
    c
    d) First and last resonating structures
A

a) Resonating structures have a real existence

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14
Q
  1. Select the incorrect option from the following option.
    a) Resonating structures have a real existence
    b) The actual structure lies between various possible
    resonating structures
    c) Resonating structures are useful as they allow us to
    describe molecules
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) Resonating structures have a real existence

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is an application of mesomeric
    effect?
    a) Dipole moment
    b) Strength of acids and bases
    c) Bond length
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

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15
Q
  1. Dipole moment of CH3-CH2-Cl > CH2=CH-Cl.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

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16
Q
  1. Select the correct statement from the following option.
    a) Benzene ring has two different types of bond length for
    single and double bonds
    b) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to
    hyperconjugation
    c) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to
    resonance
    d) All of the mentioned
A

c) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to
resonance

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17
Q
  1. Greater the number of resonating structures for a given
    intermediate,
    a) Less will be its stability
    b) More will be its stability
    c) It will not affect its stability
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) More will be its stability

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is known as Baker-Nathan
    effect?
    a) Mesomeric effect
    b) Inductive effect
    c) Hyperconjugation
    d) Electromeric effect
A

c) Hyperconjugation

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18
Q
  1. Phenyl group show
    a) (+M) effect
    b) (+E) effect
    c) (+I) effect
    d) (-M) effect
A

d) (-M) effect

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19
Q
  1. The resonance energy (kCal/mol) of tertiary butyl is
    a) 9
    b) 10
    c) 11
    d) 12
A

d) 12

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19
Q
  1. Hyperconjugation involves the delocalisation of
    a) ς bond orbital
    b) π bond orbital
    c) Both ς and π bond orbital
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) ς bond orbital

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20
Q
  1. Number of hyperconjugation structures in isopropyl
    radical is
    a) 3
    b) 6
    c) 9
    d) 12
A

b) 6

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21
Q
  1. Larger the number of hyperconjugation structures, the
    stability of free radicals will
    a) Increase
    b) Decrease
    c) Remains same
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) Increase

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22
Q
  1. The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that each
    atom separates with one electron of the shared pair is
    called
    a) Homolytic fission
    b) Heterolytic fission
    c) Monolytic fission
    d) Morpholytic fission
A

a) Homolytic fission

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23
Q
  1. Ethene is devoid of any alpha hydrogen so
    hyperconjugation is not possible.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is a consequence of Baker
    Nathan effect?
    a) It is helpful in explaining the directive influence of alkyl
    groups in aromatic alkyl benzene
    b) It is helpful in explaining the relative stability of alkenes
    c) It is helpful in explaining the relative stabilities of alkyl
    carbocations
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

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25
Q
  1. On increasing the number of α-hydrogens, the number
    of hyperconjugation structures will
    a) Decrease
    b) Increase
    c) Remains same
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) Increase

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26
Q
  1. When the contributing structure contains the same
    number of two-electron bonds as the normal lewis
    formula, it will be
    a) Heterovalent hyperconjugation
    b) Sacrificial hyperconjugation
    c) Isovalent hyperconjugation
    d) All of the mentioned
A

c) Isovalent hyperconjugation

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27
Q
  1. The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is
    a) Benzene
    b) Toluene
    c) Nitrobenzene
    d) Chlorobenzene
A

b) Toluene

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28
Q
  1. The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that both
    the electrons of shared pair are carried away by one of
    atom is called
    a) Morpholytic fission
    b) Monolytic fission
    c) Heterolytic fission
    d) Homolytic fission
A

c) Heterolytic fission

29
Q
  1. Select the incorrect statement from the following
    option.
    a) Fission of covalent bond leads to the generation of
    intermediate organic species
    b) They are stable and long-lived
    c) The presence of reactive intermediates is confirmed by
    their detection by spectroscopic methods
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) They are stable and long-lived

30
Q
  1. A covalent bond between two atoms may be broken in
    different ways depending upon
    a) Nature of given organic compound
    b) Nature of attacking reagent
    c) Reaction conditions
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is intermediate organic species
    based on carbon formed by photolysis?
    a) Carbenes
    b) Carbo-cations
    c) Carbanions
    d) Free radicals
A

a) Carbenes

31
Q
  1. Heterolytic fission takes place between two atoms of
    widely different
    a) Conductivity
    b) Viscosity
    c) Electronegtivity
    d) All of the mentioned
A

c) Electronegtivity

31
Q
  1. Select the incorrect statement from the following
    option.
    a) Heterolytic fission takes place generally in a polar
    solvent
    b) Heterolytic fission takes place usually at higher
    temperatures
    c) Cations and anions formed are generally carbon-based
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) Heterolytic fission takes place usually at higher
temperatures

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is intermediate organic species
    based on carbon formed by homolytic fission?
    a) Carbenes
    b) Carbo-cations
    c) Carbanions
    d) Free radicals
A

d) Free radicals

33
Q
  1. Triplet carbene is more stable than singlet carbene.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

33
Q
  1. The shape of carbanion is
    a) Linear
    b) Trigonal planar
    c) Pyramidal
    d) Bent
A

c) Pyramidal

34
Q
  1. Stability of free radicals can be explained on the basis of
    a) Inductive effect
    b) Electromeric effect
    c) Hyperconjugation
    d) Mesomeric effect
A

c) Hyperconjugation

35
Q
  1. The formal charge at the carbocation is equal to
    a) -1
    b) 0
    c) +1
    d) +2
A

c) +1

36
Q
  1. The hybridisation of carbocation is
    a) Sp
    b) Sp2
    c) Sp3
    d) Sp3d
A

b) Sp2

37
Q
  1. Arrange the following carbocations in the order of
    increasing stability.
    a) Benzyl > 30 > 20 > 10
    b) Benzyl > 10 > 20 > 30
    c) 30 > 20 > 10 > Benzyl
    d) 10 > 20 > 30 > Benzyl
A

a) Benzyl > 30 > 20 > 10

38
Q
  1. Carbonium ions are the intermediates in which the
    positive charge is carried by the carbon atom with
    ___________ electrons in the valence shell.
    a) 6
    b) 5
    c) 4
    d) 3
A

a) 6

38
Q
  1. Positive charge of carbocations can be dispersed by
    a) (+I) effect of alkyl group
    b) Resonance in allyl or benzyl carbocation
    c) Hyperconjugation in 10, 20 and 30 carbocations
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

38
Q
  1. The shape of carbocation is
    a) Pyramidal
    b) Bent
    c) Linear
    d) Trigonal planar
A

d) Trigonal planar

39
Q
  1. The hybridisation of carbanion is
    a) Sp
    b) Sp2
    c) Sp3
    d) Sp3d
A

c) Sp3

39
Q
  1. Alkyl substitution at the carbon bearing positive charge
    stabilizes carbocations.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

40
Q
  1. Select the correct statement from the following option.
    a) Carbanion is the intermediate compound
    b) In carbanion, central carbon atom carries negative
    charge
    c) It possess an unshared pair of electron
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

40
Q
  1. The homolytic bond dissociation energy is inversely
    proportional to the
    a) Bond length
    b) Ease of formation
    c) Dipole moment
    d) All of the mentioned
A

b) Ease of formation

41
Q
  1. Which of the following free radical has the maximum
    ease of formation?
    a) 10
    b) 20
    c) 30
    d) CH3
A

c) 30

42
Q
  1. Which of the following carbanion is most stable?
    a) 10
    b) 20
    c) 30
    d) CH3
A

d) CH3

42
Q
  1. The structure of carbanion is pyramidal but it undergoes
    rapid inversion similar to those of amines.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

42
Q
  1. The formal charge at the carbanion is
    a) +1
    b) -1
    c) 0
    d) +2
A

b) -1

43
Q
  1. Which of the following carbanion is least stable?
    a) 10
    b) 20
    c) 30
    d) CH3
A

c) 30

43
Q
  1. The geometry of carbanion is
    a) Pyramidal
    b) Linear
    c) Tetrahedral
    d) Trigonal planar
A

a) Pyramidal

44
Q
  1. Negative charge of carbanion can be dispersed by
    a) (+I) effect and resonance
    b) (-I) effect and resonance
    c) Hyperconjugation
    d) (+M) effect and resonance
A

b) (-I) effect and resonance

45
Q
  1. On increasing the number of alkyl groups, the stability
    of carbanions
    a) Increases
    b) Decreases
    c) Remains same
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) Decreases

46
Q
  1. Due to (+I) effect, the methyl groups are electron
    accepting in nature.
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

47
Q
  1. The atom which defines the structure of a family of
    organic compounds and their properties is called
    a) Resonating structure
    b) Homologous structure
    c) Functional group
    d) Nucleophile
A

c) Functional group

48
Q
  1. The functional group in alkyl halide is
    a) Hydroxyl group
    b) Halogen atom
    c) Inert gas
    d) All of the mentioned
A

b) Halogen atom

49
Q
  1. When the nucleophile :OR attacks the RX, the resultant
    product will be
    a) R – OH
    b) ROR
    c) R:CN
    d) RNHR
A

b) ROR

49
Q
  1. The halide ion is an extremely
    a) Weak base
    b) Weak acid
    c) Strong base
    d) Strong acid
A

a) Weak base

50
Q
  1. Select the correct statement from the following option.
    a) SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics
    b) No intermediate is involved in SN2 mechanism
    c) SN2 reactions are one-step reaction
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

51
Q
  1. The reactivity order of alkyl halides in SN2 is
    a) CH3 X > 10 > 20 > 30
    b) CH3 X > 20 > 10 > 30
    c) CH3 X > 30 > 10 > 20
    d) CH3 X > 30 > 20 > 10
A

a) CH3 X > 10 > 20 > 30

52
Q
  1. SN1 reaction involves heterolysis to form the
    carbocation as an intermediate.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

53
Q
  1. Which step in SN1 reaction is a slow rate determining
    step?
    a) Attack of nucleophile
    b) Formation of a racemic mixture
    c) Formation of a transition state
    d) All of the mentioned
A

c) Formation of a transition state

54
Q
  1. A low concentration of nucleophile favours the
    a) SN2 reaction
    b) SN1 reaction
    c) Both SN1 and SN1 reaction
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) SN1 reaction

55
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions are favoured by polar
    aprotic solvent?
    a) SN1 reactions
    b) SN2 reactions
    c) Both SN1 and SN1 reactions
    d) None of the mentioned
A

b) SN2 reactions

56
Q
  1. Reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 is
    a) SN1
    b) SN2
    c) SNAr
    d) SNi
A

d) SNi

56
Q
  1. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of
    leaving group in nucleophilic substitution reaction.
    a) H– > Cl– > HO– > Br– > CH3COO–
    b) Cl– > Br– > HO– > H– > CH3COO–
    c) Cl– > Br– > CH3COO – > HO– > H–
    d) HO– > CH3COO – > H– > Br– > Cl–
A

c) Cl– > Br– > CH3COO – > HO– > H–

57
Q
  1. The nucleophilic substitutions do not occur in
    haloarenes because
    a) The carbon-halogen bond is much shorter
    b) The carbon-halogen bond is stronger compared to that
    in haloalkanes
    c) The lone pair of electrons on the halogen participates in
    delocalisation with the π-electrons of benzene ring
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

57
Q
  1. Which of the following drastic condition is required for
    the substitution in haloarenes?
    a) High temperature
    b) High pressure
    c) Strong concentrated reagent
    d) All of the mentioned
A

d) All of the mentioned

58
Q
  1. The rate of nucleophilic substitution reactions are
    higher in the presence of
    a) Electron withdrawing groups
    b) Electron releasing groups
    c) Both electron withdrawing and releasing groups
    d) None of the mentioned
A

a) Electron withdrawing groups

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is rate determining step in
    electrophilic substitution reaction?
    a) Generation of electrophile
    b) Attack by an electrophilic reagent on benzene ring
    c) Formation of product
    d) All of the mentioned
A

b) Attack by an electrophilic reagent on benzene ring

59
Q
  1. Which of the following act as a catalysis in the nitration
    of benzene?
    a) Conc. HCl
    b) Dil. HCl
    c) Conc. H2SO4
    d) Dil. H2SO4
A

c) Conc. H2SO4

60
Q
  1. Fuming sulphuric acid is the solution of _________%
    SO3 in conc. H2SO4.
    a) 10
    b) 9
    c) 8
    d) 7
A

d) 7

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is the necessary condition for
    desulphonation?
    a) Remove volatile hydrocarbon by steam distillation
    b) Low concentration of water
    c) High concentration of sulphonating agent
    d) A large excess of fuming sulphuric acid
A

a) Remove volatile hydrocarbon by steam distillation

61
Q
  1. Which of the following act as electrophile in
    halogenation?
    a) Nitronium ion
    b) Sulphonium ion
    c) Halonium ion
    d) Acylium io
A

c) Halonium ion

61
Q
  1. Aromatic bromination catalyzed by the Lewis acid
    thalium acetate gives
    a) Para isomer
    b) Ortho isomer
    c) Meta isomer
    d) Para and ortho isome
A

a) Para isomer

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a product of the reaction
    of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3?
    a) Toulene
    b) Isopropyl benzene
    c) O-xylene
    d) P-xylene
    View Answer
A

b) Isopropyl benzene

62
Q
  1. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in
    presence of a lewis acid as a catalyst to produce
    alkylbenzene is known as
    a) Nitration
    b) Halogenation
    c) Friedel-Crafts Acylation
    d) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation
A

d) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation

63
Q
  1. How will you convert benzene into n-propyl benzene?
    a) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation
    b) Friedel-Crafts Acylation
    c) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation followed by clemmensen
    reduction
    d) Friedel-Crafts Acylation followed by clemmensen
    reduction
A

d) Friedel-Crafts Acylation followed by clemmensen
reduction

63
Q
  1. The product of Friedel-Crafts Acylation reactions are
    a) Alkylbenzene
    b) Alkylamine
    c) Arylketone
    d) Halobenzene
A

c) Arylketone

64
Q
  1. An activating substituent group activates
    a) Ortho position
    b) Para position
    c) Both ortho and para positions
    d) Meta position
A

b) Para position

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is meta directing group?
    a) –NHCOCH3
    b) –COOH
    c) –OH
    d) –OCH3
A

b) –COOH

65
Q
  1. Which of the following has the highest activation of
    benzene ring?
    a) – NHCOCH3
    b) –OH
    c) –NH2
    d) –C6H5
A

c) –NH2

65
Q
  1. A deactivating substituent group directs
    a) Ortho position
    b) Para position
    c) Both ortho and para positions
    d) Meta position
A

d) Meta position

65
Q
  1. The most stable carbonium ion is
    a) Methyl carbonium ion
    b) 20 carbonium ion
    c) 10 carbonium ion
    d) 30 carbonium ion
A

d) 30 carbonium ion

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is ortho-para directing group?
    a) –NHCOCH3
    b) –NO2
    c) –CN
    d) –CHO
A

a) –NHCOCH3

66
Q
  1. HBr reacts fastest with
    a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
    b) Propan-1-ol
    c) Propan-2-ol
    d) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
A

a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol

67
Q
  1. HBr reacts fastest with
    a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
    b) Propan-1-ol
    c) Propan-2-ol
    d) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
A

c) Propan-2-ol

68
Q
  1. In Cannizaro reaction, two molecules of aldehydes are
    reacted to produce
    a) Alcohol only
    b) Carboxylic acid only
    c) Alcohol and carboxylic acid
    d) Alcohol, carboxylic acid and ketone
A

c) Alcohol and carboxylic acid

ChemTech (Organic Chem) (11 decks)

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