Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Rapid Review > Flashcards

Rapid Review Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment for cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for CF

A

N-acetylcysteine + antipseudomonal prophylaxis (tobramycin/azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment for CMV

A

Gancicyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment for DI

A

Central - DDAVP. Nephrogenic - HCTZ, indomethacin, amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for enterococci

A

Vanco/ampicillin + aminoglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment for HiB prophylaxis

A

Rifampin. Vaccine not effective for close contact prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for Her2/neu-positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment for hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment for legionella

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for n meningitidis

A

Penicillin/ceftriaxone. Rifampin for prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment for prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for pulmonary hypertension

A

Bosentan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment for ringworm infections

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for sporothrix schenckii

A

Oral KI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment for strep pneumo

A

Penicillin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment for toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment for UTI prophylaxis

A

Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for wegeners

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ascending aortic aneurysm

A

Marfan (myxomatous changes of cystic medial degeneration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier disease (defect in platelet adhesion to vWF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis (developing and developed world respectively)

A

Developed world - SLE, Developing world - Tb. In both cases will present with pulsus paradoxus (left heart constriction), pericardial knock, and Kussmauls sign (right heart constriction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cretinism

A

Iodine deficiency/hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mets to bone

A

Breast, lung, thyroid, testes, prostate, kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mets to brain

A

Lung, breast, melanoma, RCC, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mets to liver

A

Colon, gastric, pancreastic, breast, lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly

A

Budd-Chiari

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty

A

McCune-Albright syndrome (mosaic G-protein signaling mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cherry red spot on macula (3 things)

A

Tay-Sachs, Niemann-Pick, CRAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cutaneous/dermal edema due to connective tissue deposition

A

Myxedema (hypothyroidism, Graves disease, others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dark purple skin and mouth nodules

A

Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea

A

Pellagra (Vit B3 deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dilated cardiomypoathy, edema, polyneuropathy

A

Wet beriberi (Vit B1 deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, atypical T cells

A

Sezary syndrome (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma) or mycosis fungoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fever, chills, headache, myalgia following antibiotic syphilis treatment

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (rapid lysis of spirchetes results in toxin release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fibrous plaques in soft tissue of penis

A

Peyronies disease (connective tissue disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly, osteoporosis, neurologic symptoms

A

Gauchers disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hereditary nephritis, sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts

A

Alport syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperdocility

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hypoxemia, polycythemia, hypercapnia

A

Blue bloater (chronic bronchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Infant with hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, hepatomegaly

A

Coris disease (no hepatic fat accumulation unlike von gierkes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Multiple colonic polyps, osteomas/soft tissue tumors, impacted/sumpernumerary teeth

A

Gardners syndrome (subtype of FAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Myopathy (infantile hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) exercise intolerance

A

Pompes disease

46
Q

Painful blue fingers/toes, hemolytic anemia

A

Cold agglutinin disease (AIHA caused by mycoplasma pneumonia infection or mono)

47
Q

Painful, red raised lesions on palms and soles

A

Oslers nodes (infective endocarditis)

48
Q

Painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles

A

Jaineway lesions (infective endocarditis)

49
Q

Painless jaundice

A

Cancer of the head of the pancreas

50
Q

Rash on palms and soles (3)

A

Coxsackie A, secondary syphillis, RMSF

51
Q

Recurrent colds, unusual eczema, high serum IgE

A

Hyper-IgE syndrome (Jobs, neutrophil chemotaxis abnormality)

52
Q

Retinal hemorrhage with pale centers

A

Roth spots (bacterial endocarditis)

53
Q

Short stature, increased incidence of tumors/leukemia, aplastic anemia

A

Fanconis anemia (genetic loss of DNA crosslinke repair, often progresses to AML)

54
Q

Smooth, flat, white, moist lesions on genitals

A

Condyloma lata (secondary syphilis)

55
Q

Strawberry tongue (3)

A

Kawaski, Scarlet fever (strep pyogenes toxin), toxic shock syndrome

56
Q

Waxy casts with very low urine flow

A

ESRD

57
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy

A

Whipples disease

58
Q

Anti-topoisomerase antibodies

A

Diffuse systemic scleroderma

59
Q

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs (name and cause)

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (due to splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)

60
Q

Basophilic stippling of RBCs (cause)

A

Lead poisoning or sideroblastic anemia

61
Q

Bloody tap on LP

A

SAH

62
Q

Boot shaped heart on x-ray (2)

A

ToF, RVH

63
Q

Brown tumor of bone (2)

A

Hyperparathyroidism, Ostieitis fibrosa cystica. Brown color due to hemorrhagic cysts (hemosiderin)

64
Q

Cardiomegaly with apical atrophy

A

Chagas disease

65
Q

Chocolate cyst of ovary

A

Endometriosis

66
Q

Circular grouping of dark tumor cells surrounding pale neurofibrils (name and cancers)

A

Homer-Wright rosettes (neuroblastoma, medulloblastoma, retinoblasotma)

67
Q

Desquamated epithelial casts in sputum

A

Curshmanns spirals (bronchial asthma, can result in whorled mucous plugs)

68
Q

Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nucleus

A

Orphan Annie eye nuclei (papillary carcinoma of the thyroid)

69
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in nerve cell

A

Lewy Body (Parkinsons)

70
Q

Eosinophilic globule in liver

A

Councilman body (toxic or viral hepatitis, often yellow fever)

71
Q

Eosinophilic inclusion bodies in cytoplasm of hippocampal nerve cells

A

Rabies virus

72
Q

Glomerulus-like structure surrounding vessel in germ cells

A

Schiller-Duval bodies (yolk sac tumor)

73
Q

Hair on end (crew-cut) apperance on x-ray (2)

A

B-thalassemia, sickle cell

74
Q

Elevated hCG (2)

A

Choriocarcinoma, hydatidiform mole

75
Q

Granulomatous heart nodules

A

Aschoff bodies (rheumatic fever)

76
Q

Hexagonal, double-pointed, needle-like crystals in bronchial secretions

A

Bronchial asthma (Charcot-Leyden crystal)

77
Q

Honeycomb appearance of lung on x-ray

A

Interstitial fibrosis

78
Q

Hypochromic, microcytic anemia (3)

A

Iron deficiency, lead poisoning, thalassemia

79
Q

Increased uric acid levels (4)

A

Gout, Lesch-Nyhan, tumor lysis syndrome, loop or thiazide diuretics

80
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies

A

Cowdry Type A bodies (HSV or CMV)

81
Q

Iron-containing nodules in alveolar septum

A

Ferruginous bodies (asbestosis)

82
Q

Lumpy-bumpy appearance of glomeruli on immunofluorescence

A

Post strep GN

83
Q

Mammary gland (blue-domed) cyst

A

Fibrocystic change of the breast

84
Q

Monoclonal antibody spike (4)

A

Multiple myeloma, MGUS, Waldenstroms, Primary amyloidosis

85
Q

Novoiocin responsiveness

A

Sensitive - staph epidermis, resistant - staph saprophyticus

86
Q

Optochin responsiveness

A

Sensitive - strep pneumo, resistant - strep viridans

87
Q

Periosteum raised from bone creating triangular area (3)

A

Codmans triangle. Osteosarcoma, Ewings sarcoma, pyogenic osteomyelitis

88
Q

Protein aggregates in neurons from hyperphosphorylation of tau (2)

A

Neurofibrillary tangles. 1) Alzheimers, 2) CJD

89
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

90
Q

Rectangular, crystal-like cytoplasmic inclusions in Leydig cells

A

Reinke crystals (Leydig cell tumor)

91
Q

Silver-staining spherical aggregation of tau proteins in neurons (name and cause)

A

Pick bodies, Picks disease (dementia, changes in personality)

92
Q

Soap bubble appearance in femur or tibia on x-ray

A

Giant cell tumor of bone (benign)

93
Q

Spikes on basement membrane, dome like subepithelial deposits

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (may progress to nephrotic syndrome)

94
Q

Stacks of red blood cells (name and 2 causes)

A

Roleaux. High ESR, multiple myeloma

95
Q

Thyroid-like appearance of kidney

A

Chronic bacterial pyelonephritis

96
Q

Tram-track appearance on LM

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

97
Q

WBCs that look smudged

A

CLL

98
Q

Yellow CSF

A

Xanthochromia (previous subarachnoid hemorrhage)

99
Q

Treatment for anxiety

A

Buspirone

100
Q

Treatment for arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

101
Q

Treatment for breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

A

Aromatase inhibitor

102
Q

Treatment for carcinoid syndrome

A

Otreotide

103
Q

Treatment for chalmydia trachomatis

A

Doxycycline (with cefrtiaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (for prophylaxis in infants)

104
Q

Treatment for clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

105
Q

Treatment for Crohns disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab

106
Q

Myocarditis

A

Coxsackie B

107
Q

What does an S3 indicate relative to valvular disease?

A

Bad MR

108
Q

What cardiac parameter is indicated by an S3?

A

A high LV EDP

109
Q

Formula for effective renal plasma flow

A

ERPF = [Upah] x [Urine Flow Rate] / [Ppah] = CLpah

110
Q

Calculations for 95 and 99 pct confidence intervals respectively

A

95 pct CI = Mean + 1.96 x SD/n^(1/2). For 99 pct CI replace 1.96 with 2.58

111
Q

Formula for odds ratio

A

OR = (a/b)/(c/d) = ad/bc

Step 1 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions