Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 1 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

A defect in FAS can lead to what disease?

A

SLE (failure to kill autoreactive t cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of necrosis is dry gangrene?

A

Liquefactive (check this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of necrosis is wet gangrene?

A

Liquefactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are nuclear chromatin clumping and nuclear granule disaggregation reversible or irreversible signs of cell injury?

A

Reversible (with O2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Are mitochondrial permeability and vacuolization reversible or irreversible signs of cell injury?

A

Irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Areas of red and pale infarcts respectively

A

Red - liver, lungs, intestine or following reperfusion. Pale - heart, kidney, spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mediators of fluid exudation in inflammation

A

Histamine, Serotonin, Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is the resolution phase in inflammation?

A

Days 3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cytokines of acute inflammation

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do acute phase cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a) lead to WBC extravasation?

A

By causing increased selectin expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neutrophil chemotactic factors

A

C5a, IL-8, LTB4, Kallikrein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Delayed separation of the umbilicus, recurrent bacterial infections

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome, problem with LFA-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Adhesion of cells to BM and ECM involves what binding to what?

A

Integrins binding to fibronectin, collagen, and laminin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common cause of dishisence (wound reopening)

A

Increased intraabdominal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Wound ulceration is usually due to what problem during healing?

A

Inadequate vascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two main cytokines in granuloma formation and what types of cells secrete them

A

Th1 secrete g-interferon which activates macrophages to secrete TNF-a (which maintains the granuloma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes cell death in iron poisoning?

A

Peroxidation of membrane lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of amyloid is associated with dialysis?

A

B2 microglobulin (derived from MHC class 1 proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define and give an example of anaplasia

A

Abnormal cells lacking differentiation. Eg muscles forming giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mediators of cachexia (3)

A

TNF-a (main one), IFN-g, IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neoplasms associated w/ Downs

A

ALL (main one), AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tuberous sclerosis features and neoplasms

A

Facial angiofibroma, seizures, MR. Astrocytoma, angiomyolipoma, cardiac rhabdomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Features and neoplasms associated w/ Plummer-Vinson

A

Atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, anemia (all due to iron def). SCC of esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neoplasms associated with acanthosis nigricans

A

Visceral cancers (stomach, lung, uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Neoplasms associated w/ radiation exposure
Sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer
26
Type of gene, associated tumor, and gene product of abl
Oncogene, CML, tyrosine kinase
27
Type of gene, associated tumor, and gene product of c-myc
Oncogene, burkitts, TF (controls transcription activation)
28
Type of gene, associated tumor, and gene product of bcl-2
Oncogene, follicular and undifferentiated lymphoma, anti-apototic
29
Type of gene, associated tumor, and gene product of ret
Oncogene, MEN IIA and IIB, tyrosine kinase
30
Type of gene, associated tumor, and gene product of c-kit
Oncogene, GIST, cytokine receptor
31
Type of gene, associated tumor, and gene product of c-jun (also called jun)
Oncogene, Breast and possibly endometrial, DNA binding protein involved in transcription control
32
Which BRCA is involved in just breast cancer and which is involved in another cancer? What is the function of BRCA?
DNA repair proteins. BRCA1 also involved in ovarian cancer
33
TS gene in melanoma
p16
34
TS gene in FAP
APC
35
TS genes in pancreatic cancer and colon cancer
DPC (pancreatic), and DCC (colon)
36
Li-Fraumeni can lead to many cancers, particularly of which kind?
Sarcomas. Especially targets the breast, brain, and adrenal cortex
37
What cancers produce CEA?
Colorectal and pancreatic. Also gastric, breast, and thyroid medullary
38
What cancers is CA-125 a marker for?
Ovarian, malignant epithelial tumors
39
What cancers is S-100 a marker for?
Melanoma, neural tumors, astrocytomas
40
Toxins associated with liver cancer (and give the cancer for each)
Aflatoxin from aspergillus (HCC), Vinyl chloride (angiosarcoma), CCl4 (centrilobular necrosis and fatty change)
41
Cancers associated with cigarette smoke (5)
Larynx - SCC, Lung - SCC and small cell, Kidney - RCC, Bladder - Transitional cell carcinoma
42
What cancer do alkylating agents most often cause?
Leukemia
43
What cancer produces antibody mediated cerebellar degeneration as a paraneoplastic effect?
Small cell ca of lung
44
What are psammoma bodies and what cancers are they found in?
Laminated concentric calficic spherules (due to dystrophic calcification). Seen in Papillary adenocarcinoma of thyroid, Serous paillary cystadenocarcinoma of ovary, Meningioma, and Malignant mesothelioma
45
Most common mets to brain
Lung, Breast, kidney, skin (in order with lung most common)
46
Most common mets to liver
Colon, stomach, pancreas (in order with colon most common)
47
Most common mets to bone
Prostate and breast, Lung, Thyroid and testes (with prostate and breast most common)
48
If you give 100 percent O2 and po2 does not go up, do you have a ventilation defect or perfussion defect?
Ventilation
49
ABG findings in CO poisoning
Hb normal, pO2 normal, O2 sat decreased
50
Methemoglobinemia findings, treatment, and scenario
O2 sat will be decreased, other ABG normal. Causes nitrates and nitrites (unclean water) or any sulfa or nitro drug (eg dapsone). Give methylene blue and vitamin c.
51
Drugs that cause G6PD hemolysis
Dapsone, primaquine, TMP-SMX, nitroglycerine and prusside. NB - they also cause methemoglobinemia
52
3 main biochemical problems caused by CO
1 - Decreased O2 sat, 2 - Left shift of curve, 3 - Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase
53
Why are aspirin and tylenol particularly toxic to the kidney?
Tylenol causes free radical damage and aspirin eliminates PGE2 (which dilates afferent arteriole) leading to ischemia (esp in medullary peritubular capillaries).
54
Where can traumatic fat necrosis be seen and what distinguishes it from other entities?
The breast. Unlike cancer (which it looks like on mammogram), traumatic fat necrosis will be painful
55
What type of hypersensitivity is at work in any palpable purpura?
Type 3
56
How do antibody complexes lead to necrosis?
By activating complement which leads to C5a, which is chemotactic to neutrophils. The neutrophils do the damage
57
Which liver zone is most susceptible to fatty change?
Zone 3
58
What causes lactic acidosis in alcoholics?
High NADH levels (from etoh metabolism) push pyruvate towards lactate
59
Why do alcoholics have fasting hypoglycemia?
Their pyruvate has been converted to lactate (due to high NADH levels) and you need pyruvate to start gluconeogenesis
60
Why do you get fatty change in the liver in alcoholism?
Excess Glycerol 3 Phosphate accumulates from glycolysis. This is converted to FAs and put in VLDL. Restricting carbs will reduce fatty change
61
Kwashiokor and its mechanism on liver
Adequate calories but inadequate protein. Failure to make apolipoproteins for LDL leads to fatty liver and ascites
62
Most common causes of hypercalcemia in hospital and community respectively
Hospital - malignancy, Community - primary hyperparathyroidism
63
How does dialysis prevent metastatic calcification?
You dialyze out the excess phosphate (which is very high in ESRD). Phosphate drives calcium into tissues (eg heart) which causes damage
64
Examples of ubiquinated proteins (3)
Mallory bodies (keratin), Lewy Bodies, Neurofibrillary tangles
65
Between glucagon and insulin, which is a phosphorylator and which is a dephosphorylator?
Glucagon is a phosphorylator and insulin is a dephosphorylator
66
What chromosomes are p53 and rb located on?
p53 - chromosome 17, rb - 13
67
Two main HPV gene products and what they target
E6 (targets p53) and E7 (targets Rb)
68
Two parasites that cause cancer and the cancers they cause
Clonesis sinensis (chinese liver fluke) - cholangiocarcinoma, and Shistosoma hematobia - transition to squamous metaplasia and then cancer in the bladder
69
If you have a farmer with a skin lesion that can be scraped off and grow back, what is it most likely?
An actinic keratosis (percursor to SCC)
70
What molecules mediate pain in inflammation?
PGE2 and Bradykinin
71
Which cells have an oxygen dependent killing system (NADPH oxidase)?
Neutrophils and monocytes (but not macrophages)
72
Most common trigger of hemolysis in G6PD deficiency
Infection. They have no myeloperoxidase (because HMP shunt not working) and are susceptible to infection
73
How can you tell the difference between chronic granulomatous disease and myeloperoxidase deficiency.
Chronic granulomatous disease - Negative (abnormal) NBT test. Myeloperoxidase deficiency - Positive (normal) NBT test.
74
Genetics of chronic granulomatous disease and myeloperoxidase deficiency
Chronic granulomatous disease - X recessive, Myeloperoxidase deficiency - AR
75
Where is NO made (primarily)?
Endothelial cells
76
Why do corticosteroids lead to an increased neutrophil count on CBC?
Because they block synthesis of adhesion molecules, which prevents neutrophils from extravasating. The count is thus artificially elevated

Step 1 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions