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Microbiology > Rapid Fire Facts > Flashcards

Rapid Fire Facts Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What microorganism causes leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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2
Q

What microorganism causes pulmonary TB like symptoms in COPD patients?

A

Mycobacterium kansasii

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3
Q

What microorganism causes cervical lymphadenitis in children?

A

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

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4
Q

What microorganism causes disseminated disease in AIDS patients?

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI) or the

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

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5
Q

What microorganism causes hand infection in aquarium handlers?

A

Mycobacterium marinum

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6
Q

What are the 4 obligate aerobes?

A

Nagging pests must breathe:

  • Nocardia
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Bacillus
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7
Q

What are the 3 obligate intracellular organisms?

A

Rickettsia, chlamydia, and Coxiella

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8
Q

What are the 8 encapsulated organisms?

A 
Please SHiNE SKiS!
Pseudomona 
Strep pneumo 
Hemophilus influenzae 
Neisseria
E. coli
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Group B strep (agalactiae GBS)
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9
Q

Patients with asplenia have decreasing opsonizing ability and thus need vaccines to protect against:

A

N meningitis
S pneumoniae
H influenzae

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10
Q

What are the 8 urease positive organisms?

A 
Pee CHUNKSS
Proteus
Cryptococcus 
H pylori
Ureaplasma 
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S epidermidis 
S saprophyticus
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11
Q

What are the 10 CATALASE positive organisms?

A 
Nocardia
Listeria
Staphylococci
Aspergillus 
Cándida
H Pylori
Pseudomonas 
E Coli
Serratia 
B cepacia
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12
Q 
These organisms produce pigments... what colors are they:
Actinomyces israelii- 
S aureus - 
P aeruginosa - 
Serratia marcesscens -
A

Actinomyces israelii- yellow sulfur
S aureus - gold
P aeruginosa - green
Serratia marcesscens - Red

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13
Q

What organism’s toxins are more prone to undergo Specialized Transduction?

—> viral DNA incorporates into bacterial chromosome and when replicating, the cell will lyse, releasing phage capsid and can infect other bacteria.

A 
Strep toxin A
Botulinum toxin
Cholera toxin
Diphtheria toxin
Shiga toxin
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14
Q

What are the 4Ds of botulism?

A

Diplopia
Dysarthria
Dysphagia
Dyspnea

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15
Q

What is the clinical name for Enterohemorrhagic E. coli? What is its most famous complication? How is it differentiated from other E. coli?

A

O157:H7 - MC serotype in US: undercooked meat, raw leafy vegetables.
Shiga-like toxin

Complication-hemolytic-uremic Syndrome: triad of anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal failure.

Cannot ferment sorbitol

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16
Q

Patient presents with: facial nerve palsy (typically bilateral), arthritis, cardiac block, erythema migrans. what microorganism is most likely involved? What stage is this, and what is the treatment?

A

Lyme disease- Borrelia burgdorferi. This is the 2nd Stage.

1st Stage: bullseye rash (not always), and flu-like symptoms.

3rd Stage: Encephalopathy, and chronic arthritis

TX: doxycycline (1st line); amoxicillin and cefuroxime in pregnancy and children.

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17
Q

What is the classic triad of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A

Headache, fever, and rash (vasculitis).

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18
Q

What infections show rash on the palms and soles?

A

Coxsackievirus A (hand, foot, and mouth disease), Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever, and 2* Syphilis.

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19
Q

What are the 4 clinical characteristics of H. Influenzae and what is the radiologic imaging sign??

A

HaEMOPhilus influenzae

Epiglottis, meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia.

20
Q

What are the 4 clinical features of malaria???

A

Fever, headache, anemia, splenomegaly

21
Q

The ixodes tick is a reservoir for what 2 infections??

A

Babesiosis (fever and hemolytic anemia, found in east coast) and Lyme disease. Often can coinfect in humans.

22
Q

Nematode routes of infection: which are ingested?

A

EATTT!

Enterobius, Ascaris, Toxocara, Trichinella, Trichuris

23
Q

Nematode routes of infection: which are cutaneous?

A

SAN

Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Necantor

24
Q

Nematode routes of infection: which are bites?

A

LOW:

Loa loa, Onchocerca volvulus, Wuchereria bancrofti

25
Q

What are the ToRCHeS infections?? What do they cause?

CF: congenital malformations, hepatomegaly, jaundice, thrombocytopenia, growth retardation

A

Toxoplasmosis - transmitted by cat feces-chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications.
Other (parvoB19-hydrops fetalis in utero, edema),
Rubella-PDA, cataracts, deafness (blueberry muffin rash)
CMV- unilateral hearing loss, seizures, (toxoplasma symptoms),
HSV-temporal lobe encephalitis,
HIV infection- prevention Zidovudine, HAART, C-section
Syphilis-congenital malformations

26
Q

In HIV, gp160 gets cleaved to form two envelope glycoproteins. What are the functions of gp120 and gp41?

A

Gp120 - attachment to host CD4+ T cell.

Gp41 - provides fusion and entry.

27
Q

What diseases are seen with a CD4+ count <500/mm3?

A

Cándida albicans
EBV (oral hairy leukoplakia)
HHV-8 (Kaposi Sarcoma)
HPV (squamous cell carcinoma, on anus or cervix)

28
Q

What diseases are seen with a CD4+ count <200/mm3?

A 
Considered AIDS:
Histoplasma capsulatum 
HIV Dementia
JC virus reactivation 
Pneumocystis jirovecii
29
Q

What diseases are seen with a CD4+ count <100/mm3?

A 
Aspergillus
Bartonella
Candida
CMV
Cryptococcus
Cryptosporidium 
EBV
Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Toxoplasma Gondii
30
Q

What are the common causes of pneumonia: 4wk - 18yr

A 
Viruses (RSV)
Mycoplasma
C trachomatis 
C pneumoniae (school age children)
S pneumoniae
31
Q

What are the common causes of pneumonia: 18-40 y/o?

A

Mycoplasma
C pneumoniae
S pneumoniae
Viruses (influenza)

32
Q

What are the common causes of pneumonia: 40-65 y/o?

A 
S pneumoniae 
H influenzae 
Anaerobes
Viruses 
Mycoplasma
33
Q

What are the common causes of pneumonia: Elderly

A 
S pneumoniae 
Influenza virus
Anaerobes
H influenzae
Gram (-) Rods
34
Q

What are the 3 obligate anaerobes?

A

Clostridium tetani
Actinomyces
Bacteroides

35
Q

What is the classic treatment for anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

36
Q

What is being described:
Hepatosplenomegaly, elevated LFTs
Hemolytic Anemia, jaundice
Rash followed by desquamation of hands and feet
Snuffles (blood-tinged nasal secretions)
Radiographic changes at birth: metaphyseal dystrophy and periostitis

A

Congenital syphilis

If untreated after first 3 months of life:
Saddle nose, frontal bossing, Hutchinson teeth, and saber shins (anterior bowing of the tibia)

37
Q

What microorganism should you think of when you hear:

Lymphadenopathy + new kitten

A

Bartonella

38
Q

What microorganism should you think of when you hear:

Dog bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

39
Q

What microorganism should you think of when you hear:

Ixodes tick

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

40
Q

What microorganism should you think of when you hear:

Pet prairie dog

A

Yersinia pestis

41
Q

What are the main structural genes in the HIV genome?

A

gag, env, and pol

42
Q

What does the gag gene code for in HIV?

A

It codes for p24 capsid protein

And p17 for matrix protein

43
Q

What does the env gene code for in HIV?

A

It codes for the gp120 and gp41

44
Q

What does the pol gene code for in HIV?

A

It codes for the Reverse transcriptase and integrase

45
Q

What receptor is used for infection in parvovirus B19?

A

P antigen on RBC

46
Q

What receptor is used for infection in Rhinovirus?

A

ICAM-1

Microbiology (8 decks)

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