Rapid Fire Flashcards

1
Q

When say ‘Subglottic Hemangioma

A

You Say PHACES Syndrome

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2
Q

When say ‘PH ACES Syndrome

A

You say Cutaneous Hemangioma

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3
Q

When say ‘Ropy Appearance

A

You say Meconium Aspiration

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4
Q

When say ‘Post Term Delivery

A

You Say Meconium Aspiration

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5
Q

When say ‘Fluid in the Fissures

A

You say Transient Tachypnea

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6
Q

When say ‘History of c-scction

A

You say Transient Tachypnea

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7
Q

When say ‘Maternal sedation”,

A

You say Transient Tachypnea

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8
Q

When say ‘Granular Opacities + Premature

A

You say RDS

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9
Q

When say ‘Granular Opacities + Term + High Lung Volume

A

You say Pneumonia

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10
Q

When say “Granular Opacities + Term + Low Lung Volume

A

You say B-Hemolytic Strep

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11
Q

When say ‘Band Like Opacities

A

You say Chronic Lung Disease (BPD)

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12
Q

When say ‘Linear Lucencies

A

You say Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema

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13
Q

When say ‘Pulmonary Hypoplasia

A

You say diaphragmatic hernia

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14
Q

When say ‘Lung Cysts and Nodules

A

You Say LCH or Papillomatosis

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15
Q

When say ‘Lower lobe bronchiectasis

A

You Say Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia

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16
Q

When say ‘Upper lobe bronchiectasis

A

You Say CF

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17
Q

When say ‘Posterior mediastinal mass (under 2),”

A

You Say Neuroblastoma

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18
Q

When say ‘No air in the stomach

A

You say Esophageal Atresia

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19
Q

When say ‘Excessive air in the stomach

A

You say “H” Type TE fistula

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20
Q

When say ‘Anterior Esophageal Impression

A

You say pulmonary sling

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21
Q

When say ‘Pulmonary Sling,

A

You say tracheal stenosis.

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22
Q

When say ‘Single Bubble

A

You say Gastric (antral or pyloric) atresia

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23
Q

When say ‘Double Bubble

A

You say duodenal atresia

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24
Q

When say ‘Duodenal Atresia

A

You say Downs

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25
Q

When say ‘Single Bubble with Distal Gas

A

You say maybe Mid Gut Volvulus

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26
Q

When say ‘Non-bilious vomiting”,

A

You say Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

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27
Q

When say ‘Paradoxial aciduria”

A

You say Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

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28
Q

When say ‘Bilious vomiting - in an infant

A

You say Mid Gut Volvulus

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29
Q

When say ‘Corkscrew Duodenum

A

You say Mid Gut Volvulus

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30
Q

When say ‘Reversed SMA and SMV

A

You say Malrotation

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31
Q

When say ‘Absent Gallbladder

A

You say biliary atresia

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32
Q

When say ‘Triangle Cord Sign

A

You say biliary atresia

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33
Q

When say ‘Asplenia

A

You say “cyanotic heart disease”

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34
Q

When say ‘Infarcted Spleen

A

You say Sickle Cell

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35
Q

When say ‘Gall Stones

A

You say Sickle Cell

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36
Q

When say ‘Short Microcolon

A

You say Colonic Atresia

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37
Q

When say ‘Long Microcolon

A

You say Meconium ileus or distal ileal atresia

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38
Q

When say ‘Saw tooth colon

A

You say Hirschsprung

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39
Q

When say ‘Calcified mass in the mid abdomen o f a newborn

A

you say Meconium Peritonitis

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40
Q

When say ‘Meconium ileus equivalent

A

you say Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome (CF)

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41
Q

When say ‘Abrupt caliber change o f the aorta below the celiac axis”

A

You say Hepatic

Hemangioendothelioma,

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42
Q

When 1 say “Cystic mass in the liver o f a newborn,”

A

you say Mesenchymal Hamartoma

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43
Q

When say Elevated AFP, with mass in the liver o f a newborn

A

you say Flepatoblastoma

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44
Q

When say Common Bile Duct measures more than 10 mm

A

You say Choledochal Cyst

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45
Q

When say Lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas

A

You say CF

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46
Q

When say Unilateral Renal Agenesis

A

You say unicomuate uterus

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47
Q

When say Neonatal Renal Vein Thrombosis

A

You say maternal diabetes

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48
Q

When say Neonatal Renal Artery Thrombosis

A

You say Misplaced Umbilical Artery Catheter

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49
Q

When say Flydro on Fetal MRI

A

You say Posterior Urethral Valve

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50
Q

When say Urachus

A

You say bladder Adenocarcinoma

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51
Q

When say Nephroblastomatosis with necrosis

A

you say Wilms

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52
Q

When say Solid Renal Tumor o f Infancy,”

A

you say Mesoblastic Nephroma

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53
Q

When say Solid Renal Tumor o f Childhood

A

you say Wilms

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54
Q

When say Midline pelvic mass, in a female

A

you say Hydrometrocolpos

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55
Q

When say Right sided varicocele

A

you say abdominal pathology

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56
Q

When say Blue Dot Sign

A

you say Torsion of the Testicular Appendage

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57
Q

When say Hand or Foot Pain / Swelling in an Infant

A

You say - sickle cell with hand foot syndrome.

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58
Q

When say ixtratesticular scrotal mass

A

you say embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

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59
Q

When say Narrowing o f the interpedicular distance

A

you say Achondroplasia

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60
Q

When say Platyspondyly (flat vertebral bodies),”

A

you say Thanatophoric

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61
Q

When say Absent Tonsils after 6 months

A

You say “Immune Deficiency”

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62
Q

When say Enlarged Tonsils well after childhood (like 12-15)”

A

You say “Cancer” … probably

lymphatic

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63
Q

When say Mystery Liver Abscess in Kid

A

You say “Chronic Granulomatous Disease”

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64
Q

When say narrowed B Ring

A

You say Schatzki (Schat”B ”ki Ring)

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65
Q

When say esophageal concentric rings

A

You say Eosinophilic Esophagitis

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66
Q

When say shaggy” or “plaque like” esophagus

A

You say Candidiasis

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67
Q

When say looks like Candida, but an asymptomatic old lady

A

you say Glycogen Acanthosis

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68
Q

When say reticular mucosal pattern

A

you say Barretts

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69
Q

When say high stricture with an associated hiatal hernia

A

you say Barretts

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70
Q

When say abrupt shoulders,

A

you say cancer

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71
Q

When say Killian Dehiscence

A

you say Zenker Diverticulum

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72
Q

When say transient, fine transverse folds across the esophagus

A

you say Feline Esophagus.

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73
Q

When say bird’s beak

A

you say achalasia

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74
Q

When say solitary esophageal ulcer

A

you say CMV or AIDS

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75
Q

When say ulcers at the level o f the arch or distal esophagus

A

you say Medication induced

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76
Q

When say Breast Cancer + Bowel Hamartomas

A

you say Cowdens

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77
Q

When say Desmoid Tumors + Bowel Polyps

A

you say Gardners

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78
Q

When say Brain Tumors + Bowel Polyps

A

you say Turcots

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79
Q

When say enlarged left supraclavicular node

A

you say Virchow Node (GI Cancer)

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80
Q

When say crosses the pylorus

A

you say Gastric Lymphoma

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81
Q

When say isolated gastric varices

A

you say splenic vein thrombus

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82
Q

When say multiple gastric ulcers

A

you say Chronic Aspirin Therapy.

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83
Q

When say multiple duodenal (or jejunal) ulcers

A

you say Zollinger-Ellsion

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84
Q

When say pancreatitis after Billroth 2,

A

you say Afferent Loop Syndrome

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85
Q

When say Weight gain years after Roux-en-Y

A

you say Gastro-Gastro Fistula

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86
Q

When say Clover Leaf Sign - Duodenum

A

you say healed peptic ulcer.

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87
Q

When say ‘Sand Like Nodules in the Jejunum

A

you say Whipples

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88
Q

When say Sand Like Nodules in the Jejunum + CD4 <100

A

you say MAI

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89
Q

When say Ribbon-like bowel

A

you say graft vs host

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90
Q

When say Ribbon like Jejunum,

A

you say Long Standing Celiac

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91
Q

When say Moulage Pattern,

A

you say Celiac (moulage = loss o f jejunal folds)

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92
Q

When say Fold Reversal - of jejunum and ileum

A

you say Celiac

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93
Q

When say Cavitary (low density) Lymph nodes

A

you say Celiac

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94
Q

When say hide bound” or “Stack or coins

A

you say Scleroderma

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95
Q

When say Megaduodenum

A

you say Scleroderma

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96
Q

When say Duodenal obstruction, with recent weight loss

A

you say SMA Syndrome

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97
Q

When say Coned shaped cecum

A

you say Amebiasis

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98
Q

When say Lead Pipe

A

you say Ulcerative Colitis

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99
Q

When say String Sign

A

you say Crohns

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100
Q

When say Massive circumferential thickening, without obstruction

A

you say Lymphoma

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101
Q

When say Multiple small bowel target signs

A

you say Melanoma

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102
Q

When say Obstructing Old Lady Hernia

A

you say Femoral Hernia

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103
Q

When say sac of bowel

A

you say Paraduodenal hernia.

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104
Q

When say scalloped appearance of the liver

A

you say Pseudomyxoma Peritonei

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105
Q

When say HCC without cirrhosis

A

you say Hepatitis B (or Fibrolamellar HCC)

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106
Q

When say Capsular retraction

A

you say Cholangiocarcinoma

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107
Q

When say Periportal hypoechoic infiltration + AIDS

A

you say Kaposi’s

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108
Q

When say sparing o f the caudate lobe

A

you say Budd Chiari

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109
Q

When say large T2 bright nodes + Budd Chiari

A

you say Hyperplastic nodules

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110
Q

When say liver high signal in phase, low signal out phase

A

you say fatty liver

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111
Q

When say liver low signal in phase, and high signal out phase

A

you say hemochromatosis

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112
Q

When say multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary stricture

A

you say PSC

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113
Q

When say multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary strictures + papillary stenosis

A

you say AIDS

Cholangiopathy.

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114
Q

When say bile ducts full of stones

A

you say Recurrent Pyogenic Cholangitis

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115
Q

When say Gallbladder Comet Tail Artifact

A

ou say Adcnomyomatosis

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116
Q

When say lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas

A

you say CF

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117
Q

When say sausage shaped pancreas

A

you say autoimmune pancreatitis

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118
Q

When say autoimmune pancreatitis

A

you say IgG4

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119
Q

When say lgG4”

A

you say RP Fibrosis, Sclerosing Cholangitis, Fibrosing Mediastinitis, Inflammatory Pseudotumor

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120
Q

When say Wide duodenal sweep

A

you say Pancreatic Cancer

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121
Q

When say Grandmother Pancreatic Cyst”

A

you say Serous Cystadenoma

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122
Q

When say Mother Pancreatic Cyst

A

you say Mucinous

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123
Q

When say Daughter Pancreatic Cyst

A

you say Solid Pseudopapillary

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124
Q

When say bladder stones,”

A

you say neurogenic bladder

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125
Q

When say pine cone appearance

A

you say neurogenic bladder

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126
Q

When say urethra cancer

A

you say squamous cell CA

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127
Q

When say urethra cancer - prostatic portion

A

you say transitional cell CA

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128
Q

When say urethra cancer - in a diverticulum,”

A

you say adenocarcinoma

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129
Q

When say long term supra-pubic catheter

A

you say squamous Bladder CA

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130
Q

When say e-coli infection

A

you say Malakoplakia

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131
Q

When say vas deferens calcifications

A

you say diabetes

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132
Q

When I say “calcifications in a fatty renal mass

A

you say RCC

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133
Q

When 1 say “protrude into the renal pelvis

A

you say Multilocular cystic nephroma

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134
Q

When I say “no functional renal tissue,”

A

you say Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney

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135
Q

When 1 say “Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney

A

you say contralateral renal issues (50%)

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136
Q

When I say “Emphysematous Pyelonephritis

A

you say diabetic

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137
Q

When I say “Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis

A

you say staghom stone

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138
Q

When I say “Papillary Necrosis

A

you say diabetes

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139
Q

When I say “shrunken calcified kidney,”

A

you say TB (“putty kidney”)

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140
Q

When 1 say “bilateral medulla nephrocalcinosis

A

you say Medullary Sponge Kidney

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141
Q

When I say “big bright kidney with decreased renal function

A

you say HIV

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142
Q

When I say “history of lithotripsy

A

you say Page Kidney

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143
Q

When I say “cortical rim sign

A

you say subacute renal infarct

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144
Q

When I say “history of renal biopsy

A

you say AVF

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145
Q

When 1 say “reversed diastolic flow

A

you say renal vein thrombosis

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146
Q

When 1 say “sickle cell trait

A

you say medullary RCC

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147
Q

When 1 say “Young Adult, Renal Mass, + Severe HTN

A

you say Juxtaglomerular Cell Tumor

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148
Q

When 1 say “squamous cell bladder CA

A

you say Schistosomiasis

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149
Q

When 1 say “entire bladder calcified

A

you say Schistosomiasis

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150
Q

When 1 say “urachus

A

you say adenocarcinoma o f the bladder

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151
Q

When I say “long stricture in urethra

A

you say Gonococcal

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152
Q

When 1 say “short stricture in urethra,”

A

you say Straddle Injury

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153
Q

When 1 say “Unicomuate Uterus

A

you say Look at the kidneys

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154
Q

When 1 say “T-Shaped Uterus

A

you say DES related or Vaginal Clear Cell CA

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155
Q

When I say “Marked enlargement o f the uterus

A

you say Adenomyosis

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156
Q

When 1 say “Adenomyosis,

A

you say thickening o f the junctional zone (> 12 mm)

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157
Q

When 1 say “Wolffian duct remnant

A

you say Gartner Duct Cyst

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158
Q

When I say “Theca Lutein Cysts,”

A

you say moles and multiple gestations

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159
Q

When I say “Theca Lutein Cysts + Pleural Effusions,”

A

you say - Hyperstimulation Syndrome (patient on

fertility meds).

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160
Q

When I say “Low level internal echoes

A

you say Endometrioma

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161
Q

When I say “T2 Shortening,

A

you say - Endometrioma - “Shading Sign”

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162
Q

When 1 say “Fishnet appearance

A

you say Hemorrhagic Cyst

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163
Q

When I say “Ovarian Fibroma + Pleural Effusion

A

you say Meigs Syndrome

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164
Q

When I say “Snow Storm Uterus

A

you say Complete Mole - 1st Trimester

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165
Q

When I say “Serum (3-hCG levels that rise in the 8 to 10 weeks following evacuation o f molar pregnancy

A

you say Choriocarcinoma

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166
Q

When I say “midline cystic structure near the back of the bladder o f a man

A

you say Prostatic Utricle

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167
Q

When 1 say “lateral cystic structure near the back o f the bladder of a man

A

you say Seminal Vesicle Cyst

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168
Q

When I say “isolated orchitis

A

you say mumps

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169
Q

When 1 say “onion skin appearance

A

you say epidermoid cyst

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170
Q

When I say “multiple hypoechoic masses in the testicle

A

you say lymphoma

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171
Q

When I say “cystic elements and macro-calcifications in the testicle

A

you say Mixed Germ Cell Tumor

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172
Q

When 1 say “homogenous and microcalcifications

A

you say seminoma

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173
Q

When 1 say “gynecomastia + testicular tumor

A

you say Sertoli Leydig

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174
Q

When 1 say “fetal macrosomia,

A

you say Maternal Diabetes

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175
Q

When I say “one artery adjacent to the bladder,”

A

you say two vessel cord

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176
Q

Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema (PIE)

A

put the bad side down

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177
Q

Bronchial Foreign Body

A

put the lucency side down (if it stays that way, it’s positive)

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178
Q

Papillomatosis has a small (2%) risk o

A

scc

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179
Q

Pulmonary sling is the only variant that goes

A

between the esophagus and the trachea. This is associated

with trachea stenosis.

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180
Q

Thymic Rebound

A

Seen after stress (chemotherapy) - Can be PET-Avid

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181
Q

Lymphoma - Most common mediastinal mass

A

in child (over 10)

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182
Q

Anterior Mediastinal Mass with Calcification

A

Either treated lymphoma, or Thymic Lesion (lymphoma

doesn’t calcify unless treated).

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183
Q

Neuroblastoma is the most common

A

posterior mediastinal mass in child under 2 (primary thoracic does
better than abd)

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184
Q

Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

A

NOT at birth, NOT after 3 months (3 weeks to 3 months )

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185
Q

Criteria for HPS

A

4 mm and 14 mm (4mm single wall, 14mm length).

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186
Q

Annular Pancreas presents as

A

duodenal obstruction in children and pancreatitis in adults

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187
Q

Most common cause o f bowel obstruction in child over 4

A

Appendicitis

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188
Q

ntussusception

A

3 months to 3 years is ok, earlier or younger think lead point

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189
Q

Gastroschisis is ALWAYS

A

on the right side

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190
Q

Omphalocele has

A

associated anomalies (gastroschisis does not).

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191
Q

Physiologic Gut Hernia normal at

A

6-8 weeks

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192
Q

AFP is elevated with

A

hepatoblastoma

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193
Q

Endothelial growth factor is elevated with

A

Hemangioendothelioma

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194
Q

Most Common cause o f pancreatitis in a kid

A

trauma (seatbelt)

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195
Q

Weigert Meyer Rule

A

Duplicated ureter on top inserts inferior and medial

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196
Q

Most common tumor o f the fetus or infant

A

Sacrococcygeal Teratoma

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197
Q

Most common cause o f idiopathic scrotal edema

A

HSP

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198
Q

Most common cause o f acute scrotal pain age 7-14

A

Torsion o f Testicular Appendages

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199
Q

Bell Clapper Deformity is the etiology for

A

testicular torsion

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200
Q

SCFE is a

A

Salter Harris Type 1

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201
Q

Physiologic Periostitis o f the Newborn doesn’t occur in a newborn

A

seen around 3 months

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202
Q

Acetabular Angle should be

A

< 30, and Alpha angle should be more than 60

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203
Q

Most Common benign mucosal lesion o f the esophagus

A

papilloma

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204
Q

Esophageal Webs have increased risk for

A

cancer, and Plummer-Vinson Syndrome (anemia T web)

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205
Q

Dysphagia Lusoria is from

A

compression by a right subclavian artery (most patients with aberrant rights
don’t have symptoms).

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206
Q

Achalasia has an increased risk of

A

squamous cell cancer (20 years later)

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207
Q

Most common mesenchymal tumor o f the G1 tract

A

GIST

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208
Q

Most common location for GIST

A

Stomach

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209
Q

Abscesses are almost exclusively seen in

A

Crohns (rather than UC)

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210
Q

Nodes + UC

A

Common in the setting o f active disease

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211
Q

Nodes (larger than 1 cm) + Crohns

A

Cancer

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212
Q

Diverticulosis + Nodes

A

Cancer (maybe) -> next step endoscopy

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213
Q

Krukenberg Tumor

A

Stomach (GI) met to the ovary

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214
Q

Menetrier’s involves

A

fundus and spares the antrum

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215
Q

The stomach is the most common location for

A

sarcoid (in the Gl tract)

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216
Q

Gastric Remnants have an increased risk o f cancer years after

A

Billroth

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217
Q

Most common internal hernia

A

Left sided paraduodenal

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218
Q

Most common site o f peritoneal carcinomatosis

A

retrovesical space

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219
Q

An injury to the bare area o f the liver can cause a

A

retroperitoneal bleed

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220
Q

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis associated with

A

UC

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221
Q

Extrahepatic ducts are normal with

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

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222
Q

Anti-mitochondrial Antibodies

A

positive with primary biliary cirrhosis

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223
Q

Mirizzi Syndrome

A

the stone in the cystic duct obstructs the CBD

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224
Q

Mirizzi has a 5x increased risk of

A

GB cancer

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225
Q

Dorsal pancreatic agenesis

A

associated with diabetes and polysplenia

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226
Q

Hereditary and Tropical Pancreatitis

A

early age o f onset, increased risk o f cancer

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227
Q

Felty’s Syndrome

A

Big Spleen, RA, and Neutropenia

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228
Q

Splenic Artery Aneurysm

A
  • more common in women, and more likely to rupture in pregnant women.
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229
Q

Insulinoma is the most common

A

islet cell tumor

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230
Q

Gastrinoma is the most common

A

islet cell tumor with MEN

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231
Q

Ulcerative Colitis has an increased risk o f colon cancer

A

(if it involves colon past the splenic flexure). UC involving the rectum only does not increase risk o f CA.

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232
Q

Calcifications in a renal CA

A

are associated with an improved survival

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233
Q

RCC bone mets are “always”

A

lytic

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234
Q

There is an increased risk o f malignancy with

A

dialysis

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235
Q

Horseshoe kidneys are more susceptible to

A

trauma

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236
Q

Most common location for TCC is the

A

bladder

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237
Q

Second most common location for TCC is the

A

upper urinary tract

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238
Q

Upper Tract TCC is more commonly

A

multifocal (12%) - as opposed to bladder (4%)

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239
Q

The cysts in acquired renal cystic disease improve after renal transplant, although the risk o f renal CA in
the native kidney remains elevated.

A

In fact, the cancers tend to be more aggressive because o f the
immunosuppressive therapy needed to not reject a transplant.

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240
Q

Weigert Meyer Rule

A

Upper Pole inserts medial and inferior

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241
Q

Ectopic Ureters are associated with

A

incontinence in women (not men)

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242
Q

Leukoplakia is

A

pre-malignant

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243
Q

malakoplakia is not

A

pre-malignant

244
Q

Extraperitoneal bladder rupture

A

is more common, and managed medically

245
Q

Intraperitoneal bladder rupture

A

is less common, and managed surgically

246
Q

Indinavir (HIV medication) stones are the only ones

A

not seen on CT

247
Q

Uric Acid stones are not seen

A

plain film

248
Q

Endometrial tissue in a rudimentary horn (even one that does NOT communicate) increases the risk o f

A

miscarriage

249
Q

Arcuate Uterus does NOT have an increased risk o f

A

infertility (it’s a normal variant)

250
Q

Fibroids with higher T2 signal respond better to

A

UAE

251
Q

Hyaline Fibroid Degeneration

A

is the most common subtype

252
Q

Adenomyosis

A

favors the posterior wall, spares the cervix

253
Q

Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)

A

a 30-50x increased risk o f endometrial

cancer

254
Q

Tamoxifen increases the risk o f

A

endometrial cancer, and endometrial polyps

255
Q

Cervical Cancer that has parametrial involvement (2B)

A

is treated with chemo/radiation. Cervical

Cancer without parametrial involvement (2A) - is treated with surgery

256
Q

Vaginal cancer in adults is usually

A

squamous cell

257
Q

Vaginal Rhabdomyosarcoma occurs in

A

children / teenagers

258
Q

remenopausal ovaries can be hot on PET (depending on the phase o f cycle). Post menopausal ovaries

A

should Never be hot on PET.

259
Q

Transformation subtypes

A

Endometrioma = Clear Cell, Dermoid = Squamous

260
Q

Postpartum fever can be from

A

ovarian vein thrombophlebitis

261
Q

Fractured penis

A

rupture o f the corpus cavemosum and the surrounding tunica albuginea

262
Q

Prostate Cancer is most commonly in the

A

peripheral zone, - ADC dark

263
Q

BPH nodules are in the

A

central zone

264
Q

Hypospadias is the most common association with

A

prostatic utricle

265
Q

Seminal Vesicle cysts are associated with

A

renal agenesis, and ectopic ureters

266
Q

Cryptorchidism increases the risk o f

A

cancer (in both testicles), and the risk is not reduced by orchiopexy

267
Q

Immunosuppressed patients can get

A

testicular lymphoma -hiding behind blood testes barrier

268
Q

Most common cause o f correctable infertility in a man is a

A

varicocele

269
Q

Undescended testicles are more common in

A

premies

270
Q

Membranes disrupted before 10 weeks, increased risk for

A

amniotic bands

271
Q

The earliest visualization o f the embryo is the

A

double bleb sign

272
Q

Hematoma greater than 2/3 the circumference o f the chorion has a

A

2x increased risk o f abortion.

273
Q

Biparietal Diameter

A

Biparietal Diameter - Recorded at the level o f the thalamus from the outermost edge o f the near skull to the inner table o f the far skull.

274
Q

Abdominal Circumference

A

does not include the subcutaneous soft tissues

275
Q

Abdominal Circumference is recorded at the the level o f the

A

junction o f the umbilical vein and left

portal vein

276
Q

Abdominal Circumference is the parameter classically involved with

A

asymmetric IUGR

277
Q

Femur Length does NOT include

A

the epiphysis

278
Q

Umbilical Artery Systolic / Diastolic Ratio should NOT

A

exceed 3 at 34 weeks - makes you think preeclampsia and IUGR

279
Q

A full bladder can mimic a

A

placenta previa

280
Q

Nuchal lucency is measured between

A

12 weeks, and should be < 3 mm. More than 3mm is associated with Downs.

281
Q

Lemon sign will disappear after

A

24 weeks

282
Q

Aquaductal Stenosis is the most common cause

A

of non-communicating hydrocephalus in a neonate

283
Q

The tricuspid valve is the most

A

anterior

284
Q

The pulmonic valve is the most

A

superior

285
Q

There are 10 lung segments on the

A

right

286
Q

8 lung segments on the

A

left

287
Q

If it goes above the clavicles, it’s in the

A

osterior mediastinum (cervicothoracic sign)

288
Q

Azygos Lobe has

A

4 layers o f pleura

289
Q

Most common pulmonary vein variant is

A

a separate vein draining the right middle lobe

290
Q

Most common cause o f pneumonia in AIDS patient

A

Strep Pneumonia

291
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS

A

PCP

292
Q

Aspergilloma is seen in a

A

normal immune patient

293
Q

Invasive Aspergillus is seen in an

A

immune compromised patient

294
Q

Fleischner Society Recommendations do NOT apply to

A

patient’s with known cancers

295
Q

Eccentric calcifications in a solitary pulmonary nodule pattern is considered

A

the most suspicious

296
Q

A part solid nodule with a ground glass component is the most

A

suspicious morphology you can have

297
Q

Most common early presentation o f lung CA

A

is a solitary nodule (right upper lobe)

298
Q

Lung Fibrosis patients (UIP, e tc …) more commonly have

A

lower lobe CA

299
Q

Stage 3B lung CA is

A

unresectable (contralateral nodal in v o lv emen t; ipsilateral or contralateral
scalene or supraclavicular nodal involvement, tumor in different lobes).

300
Q

The most common cause o f unilateral lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

is bronchogenic carcinoma lung

cancer invading the lymphatics

301
Q

There is a 20 year latency between initial exposure and

A

development o f lung cancer or pleural mesothelioma

302
Q

Pleural effusion is the earliest and most common finding with

A

asbestosis exposure

303
Q

Silicosis actually raises your risk o

A

by about 3 fold.

304
Q

Nitrogen Dioxide exposure is

A

“Silo Filler’s Disease,” gives you a pulmonary edema pattern.

305
Q

Reticular pattern in the posterior costophrenic angle

A

is supposedly the first finding o f UIP on CXR

306
Q

Sarcoidosis is the most common recurrent primary disease after

A

lung transplant

307
Q

Pleural plaque o f asbestosis typically

A

spares the costophrenic angles

308
Q

Pleural effusion is the most common manifestation

A

of mets to the pleura

309
Q

There is an association with mature teratomas and

A

klinefelter syndrome

310
Q

Injury close to the carina is going to cause a

A

pneumomediastinum rather than a pneumothorax

311
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma spreads in a contiguous fashion from the

A

mediastinum and is most often unilateral.

312
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma is typically

A

bilateral with associated abdominal lymphadenopathy

313
Q

MRI is superior for assessing

A

superior sulcus tumors because you need to look at the brachial plexus.

314
Q

Leiomyoma is the most common

A

benign esophageal tumor (most common in the distal third).

315
Q

Esophageal Leiomyomatosis may be associated with

A

alports syndrome

316
Q

Bronchial / Tracheal injury must be evaluated with

A

bronchoscopy

317
Q

If you say COP also say

A

eosinophiic pneumonia

318
Q

If you say BAC also say

A

lymphoma

319
Q

Bronchial Atresia is classically in the

A

LUL

320
Q

Pericardial cysts MUST be

A

simple, Bronchogenic cysts don’t have to be simple

321
Q

PAP follows a rule o f 1 /3s post treatment

A

1/3 gets better, 1/3 doesn’t, 1/3 progresses to fibrosis

322
Q

Dysphagia Lusoria presents

A

later in life as atherosclerosis develops

323
Q

Carcinoid is COLD on

A

PET

324
Q

Wegener’s is now called

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

325
Q

The right atrium is defined by the

A

IVC

326
Q

The right ventricle is defined by the

A

moderator band

327
Q

The tricuspid papillary muscles insert

A

on the septum (mitral ones do not).

328
Q

Lipomatous Hypertrophy o f the Intra-Atrial Septum - can be

A

PET Avid (it’s brown fat)

329
Q

LAD gives o ff

A

diagonals

330
Q

RCA gives off

A

acute marginals

331
Q

LCX give off

A

obtuse marginals

332
Q

RCA perfuses

A

SA and AV nodes most of the time

333
Q

Dominance is decided by which vessel gives o ff the

A

posterior descending - it’s the right 85%

334
Q

LCA from the Right Coronary Cusp

A

always gets repaired

335
Q

RCA from the Left Coronary Cusp

A

repaired if symptoms

336
Q

Most common location o f myocardial bridging

A

is in the mid portion o f the LAD.

337
Q

Coronary Artery Aneurysm - most common cause in adult

A

atherosclerosis

338
Q

Coronary Artery Aneurysm - most common cause in child

A

kawasaki

339
Q

Left Sided SVC empties into the

A

coronary sinus

340
Q

Rheumatic heart disease is the most common cause

A

of mitral stenosis

341
Q

Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension is the most common cause of

A

tricuspid atresia

342
Q

Most common vascular ring is the

A

double aortic artch

343
Q

Most common congenital heart disease is a

A

VSD

344
Q

Most common ASD is

A

the secundum

345
Q

Infracardiac TAPVR classically shown with

A

pulmonary edema in a newborn

346
Q

“L” Transposition type is

A

congenitally corrected (they are “L”ucky).

347
Q

“D” Transposition type is

A

doomed

348
Q

Truncus is associated with

A

CATCH-22 (DiGeorge)

349
Q

Rib Notching from coarctation spares the

A

1st and 2nd Ribs

350
Q

Infarct with > 50% involvement is

A

unlikely to recover function

351
Q

Microvascular Obstruction is NOT seen in

A

chronic infarct

352
Q

Amyloid is the most common cause o f

A

restricted cariomyopathy

353
Q

Primary amyloid can be seen in

A

multiple myeloma

354
Q

Most common neoplasm to involve the cardiac valves

A

fibroelastoma

355
Q

Most commonly the congenital absence o f the pericardium

A

is partial and involves the pericardium
over the left atrium and adjacent pulmonary artery (the left atrial appendage is the most at risk to
become strangulated).

356
Q

Glenn shunt

A

SVC to pulmonary artery (vein to artery)

357
Q

Blalock-Taussig Shunt

A

Subclavian Artery to Pulmonary Artery (artery - artery)

358
Q

Ross Procedure

A

Replaces aortic valve with pulmonic, and pulmonic with a graft (done for kids).

359
Q

Aliasing is common with Cardiac MRI. You can fix it by:

A

(1) opening your FOV, (2) oversampling

the frequency encoding direction, or (3) switching phase and frequency encoding directions.

360
Q

Giant Coronary Artery Aneurysms

A

(> 8mm) d o n ’t regress, and are associated with Mis.

361
Q

Wet Beriberi

A

(thiamine def) can cause a dilated cardiomyopathy

362
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

rhabdomyoma

363
Q

2nd most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Fibroma

364
Q

Most common complication o f MI is

A

myocardial remodeling

365
Q

Unroofed coronary sinus is associated with

A

persistent left SVC

366
Q

Most common source o f cardiac mets

A

Lung Cancer (lymphoma #2).

367
Q

A-Fib is most commonly associated with

A

left atrial enlargement

368
Q

Most common cause o f tricuspid insufficiency is

A

RVH (usually from pulmonary HTN / cor

pulmonale).

369
Q

Artery o f Adamkiewicz comes o ff

A

on the left side (70%) between T8-L1 (90%)

370
Q

Arch o f Riolan

A

middle colic branch o f the SMA with the left colic o f the IMA

371
Q

Most common hepatic vascular variant

A

right hepatic artery replaced o ff the SMA

372
Q

The proper right hepatic artery is

A

anterior the right portal vein, whereas the replaced right hepatic artery is
posterior to the main portal vein.

373
Q

Accessory right inferior hepatic vein

A

most common hepatic venous variant

374
Q

Anterior tibialis is the

A

first branch o ff the popliteal

375
Q

Common Femoral Artery (CFA): Begins at the level o f

A

inguinal ligament

376
Q

Superficial Femoral Artery (SFA): Begins once the

A

CFA gives o ff the profunda femoris

377
Q

Popliteal Artery: Begins as the

A

SFA exits the adductor canal

378
Q

Popliteal Artery terminates as the

A

anterior tibial artery and the tibioperoneal trunk

379
Q

Axillary Artery: Begins at

A

the first rib

380
Q

Brachial Artery: Begins as it crosses

A

teres major

381
Q

Brachial Artery: Bifurcates to the

A

ulnar and radial artery

382
Q

lntraosseous Branch: Typically arises from the

A

ulnar artery

383
Q

Superficial Arch = From the

A

ulna

384
Q

Deep Arch = From the

A

radius

385
Q

The “coronary vein,” is the

A

left gastric vein

386
Q

Enlarged splenorenal shunts are associated with

A

hepatic encephalopathy

387
Q

Aortic Dissection, and intramural hematoma are caused by

A

HTN (70%)

388
Q

Penetrating Ulcer is from

A

atherosclerosis

389
Q

Strongest predictor o f progression o f dissection in intramural hematoma

A

Maximum aortic diameter >

5cm.

390
Q

Leriche Syndrome Triad

A

Claudication, Absent/ Decreased femoral pulses, Impotence.

391
Q

Most common associated defect with aortic coarctation

A

bicuspid aorta (80%)

392
Q

Neurogenic compression is the most common subtype of

A

thoracic outlet syndrome

393
Q

Splenic artery aneurysm

A

More common in pregnancy, more likely to rupture in pregnancy.

394
Q

Median Arcuate Compression

A

worse with expiration

395
Q

Colonic Angiodysplasia is associated with

A

aortic stenosis

396
Q

Popliteal Aneurysm

A

30-50% have AAA, 10% o f patient with AAA have popliteal aneurysm, 50-70% of
popliteal aneurysms are bilateral.

397
Q

Medial deviation o f the popliteal artery by the medial head o f the gastrocnemius

A

popliteal entrapment

398
Q

Type 3 Takayasu is the

A

most common (arch + abdominal aorta)

399
Q

Most common vasculitis in a kid

A

HSP (Henoch-Schonlein Purpura)

400
Q

Tardus Parvus infers stenosis

A

proximal to that vessel

401
Q

1CA Peak Systolic Velocity < 125

A

“No Significant Stenosis” or < 50%

402
Q

1CA Peak Systolic Velocity 125-230

A

50-69% Stenosis or “Moderate”

403
Q

ICA Peak Systolic Velocity > 230

A

70% Stenosis or “ Severe”

404
Q

18G needle will accept a

A

0.038 inch guidewire,

405
Q

19G needle will allow a

A

0.035 inch guidewire

406
Q

Notice that 0.039, 0.035, 0.018 wires are in

A

inches

407
Q

3 French

A

1mm

408
Q

French size is the (what) of the catheter and sheath

A

French size is the OUTSIDE o f a catheter and the INSIDE o f a sheath

409
Q

End Hole Only Catheters

A

hand injection only

410
Q

Side Hole + End Hole

A

Power Injection OK, Coils NOT ok

411
Q

Double Flush Technique

A

For Neuro IR — no bubbles ever

412
Q

“Significant lesion”

A

A systolic pressure gradient > 10 mm Hg at rest

413
Q

Things to NOT stick a drain in:

A

Tumors, Acute Hematoma, and those associated with acute bowel rupture and peritonitis

414
Q

Renal Artery Stenting for renal failure

A

tends to not work if the Cr is > 3.

415
Q

Persistent sciatic artery is

A

prone to aneurysm

416
Q

Even if the cholecystostomy tube instantly resolves all symptoms, you need to leave the tube in for

A

2-6 weeks (until the tract matures), otherwise you are going to get a bile leak.

417
Q

MELD scores greater than

A

24 are at risk o f early death with TIPS

418
Q

The target gradient post TIPS (for esophageal bleeding) is between

A

9 and 11

419
Q

Absolute contraindication for TIPS

A

Heart Failure, Severe Hepatic Failure

420
Q

Most common side effect o f BRTO is

A

gross hematuria

421
Q

Sensitivity = GI Bleed Scan

A
  1. lmL/min
422
Q

Sensitivity Angiography

A

1.0 mL/min

423
Q

For Gl Bleed - after performing an embolization o f the GDA (for duodenal ulcer),

A

you need to do a run o f the SMA to look at the inferior pancreaticoduodenal

424
Q

Most common cause o f lower Gl bleed is

A

diverticulosis

425
Q

TACE will prolong survival better than

A

systemic chemo

426
Q

TACE: Portal Vein Thrombosis is considered

A
a contraindication (sometimes) because o f the risk o f
infarcting the liver.
427
Q

Left Bundle Branch Block needs

A

a pacer before a Thoracic Angiogram

428
Q

Never inject contrast through a

A

Swan Ganz catheter for a thoracic angiogram

429
Q

You treat pulmonary AVMs at

A

3 mm

430
Q

Hemoptysis - Active extravasation is

A

NOT typically seen with the active bleed

431
Q

UAE - Gonadotropin-releasing medications (often prescribed for fibroids) should be

A

stopped for 3

months prior to the case

432
Q

The general rule for transgluteal is to

A

avoid the sciatic nerves and gluteal arteries by access through the
sacrospinous ligament medially (close to the sacrum, inferior to the piriformis).

433
Q

When to pull an abscess catheter; As a general rule

A

when the patient is better (no fever, WBC

normal), and output is < 20 cc over 24 hours.

434
Q

If the thyroid biopsy is non-diagnostic

A

you have to wait 3 months before you re-biopsy

435
Q

Posterior lateral approach is the move fo

A

perc nephrostomy

436
Q

You can typically pull a sheath with an ACT

A

< 150-180

437
Q

Artery calcifications (common in diabetics)

A

make compression difficult, and can lead to a false

elevation o f the AB1.

438
Q

Type 2 endoleaks are the

A

most common

439
Q

Type 1 and Type 3 endoleaks are

A

high pressure and need to be fixed stat

440
Q

Venous rupture during a fistula intervention can ofter be treated with

A
prolonged angioplasty (always leave
the balloon on the wire).
441
Q

Phlegmasia alba

A

massive DVT, without ischemia and preserved collateral veins

442
Q

Phlegmasia cerulea dolens

A

massive DVT, complete thrombosis o f the deep venous system, including the
collateral circulation.

443
Q

You are more likely to develop Venous Thromboembolism if you are

A

paraplegic vs tetraplegic

444
Q

Circumaortic left renal vein

A

the anterior one is superior, the posterior one is inferior, and the filter should be below the lowest one.

445
Q

Risk o f DVT is increased with

A

IVC filters

446
Q

Filter with clot > 1cm3 o f clot

A

Filter stays in

447
Q

Acute Budd Chiari with fulminant liver failure

A

needs a TIPS

448
Q

Pseudoaneurysm o f the pancreaticoduodenal artery

A

Sandwich technique” - distal and proximal

segments o f the artery feeding o ff the artery must be embolized

449
Q

Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome - First line is

A

surgical release of the ligament

450
Q

Massive Hemoptysis =

A

Bronchial artery - Particles bigger than 325 micrometers

451
Q

Acalculous Cholecystitis

A

Percutaneous Cholecystostomy

452
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy after TIPS

A

You can either (1) place a new covered stent constricted in the
middle by a loop o f suture - deployed in the pre-existing TIPS, (2) place two new stents - parallel to each
other (one covered self expandable, one uncovered balloon expandable).

453
Q

Recurrent variceal bleeding after placement o f a constricted stent

A

balloon dilation o f the constricted stent

454
Q

Appendiceal Abscess

A

Drain placement * just remember that a drain should be used for a mature (walled
off) abscess and no frank pertioneal symptoms

455
Q

Inadvertent catheterization o f the colon (after trying to place a drain in an abscess)

A

wait 4 weeks for the

tract to mature - verify by over the wire tractogram, and then remove tube.

456
Q

DVT with severe symptoms and no response to systemic anticoagulation

A

Catheter Directed

Thrombolysis

457
Q

Geiger Mueller

A

maximum dose it can handle is about lOOmR/h

458
Q

Activity level greater than 100 mCi o f Tc-99m is considered

A

a major spill

459
Q

Activity level greater than 100 mCi o f Tl-201 is considered

A

a major spill

460
Q

Activity level greater than 10 mCi o f In-111, is considered to represent

A

a major spill

461
Q

Activity level greater than 10 mCi o f Ga-67, is considered

A

a major spill

462
Q

An activity level greater than 1 mCi o f 1-131 is considered to constitute

A

a major spill

463
Q

Annual Dose limit o f 100 mrem to

A

the public

464
Q

Not greater than 2 mrem per hour - in an

A

unrestricted area

465
Q

Total Body Dose per Year

A

5 rem

466
Q

Total equivalent organ dose (skin is also an organ) per year

A

50 rem

467
Q

Total equivalent extremity dose per year

A

50 rem (500mSv)

468
Q

Total Dose to Embryo/fetus over entire 9 months

A

0.5 rem

469
Q

NRC allows no more than 0.15 micro Ci o f Mo per

A

1 mili Ci o f Tc, at the time o f administration

470
Q

Chemical purity (Al in Tc) is done with

A

PH paper

471
Q

The allowable amount o f Al is

A

< 10 micrograms

472
Q

Radiochemical purity (looking for Free Tc) is done with

A

thin layer chromatography

473
Q

Free Tc occurs from

A

lack o f stannous ions or accidental air injection (which oxidizes)

474
Q

Prostate Cancer bone mets are uncommon with a PSA less than

A

10 mg/ml

475
Q

Flair Phenomenon occurs 2 weeks - 3 months

A

after therapy

476
Q

Skeletal Survey is superior (more sensitive) for

A

lytic mets

477
Q

AVN - Early and Late is

A

COLD, Middle (repairing) is Hot.

478
Q

Particle size for VQ scan is

A

10-100 micrometers

479
Q

Xenon is done first during

A

the VQ scan

480
Q

Amiodarone - classic

A

thyroid uptake blocker

481
Q

Hashimotos increases risk for

A

lymphoma

482
Q

Hot nodule on Tc, shouldn’t be considered benign until you show that it’s also hot

A

on I123. This is the

concept o f the discordant nodule.

483
Q

History o f methimazole treatment (even years prior) makes 1-131 treatment

A

more difficult

484
Q

Methimazole side effect is

A

neutropenia

485
Q

In pregnancy PTU is

A

the blocker of choice

486
Q

Sestamibi in the parathyroid depends on

A

blood flow and mitochoncria

487
Q

You want to image with PET - following therapy at interval of

A

2-3 weeks for chemotherapy, and 8-12
weeks for radiation is the way to go. This avoids “ stunning” - false negatives, and inflammatory
induced false positive.

488
Q

111 In Pentetreotide is the most commonly used agent for

A

somatostatin receptor imaging. The classic

use is for carcinoid tumors

489
Q

Meningiomas take up

A

octreotide

490
Q

In 111 binds to

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes and even RBCs and platelets

491
Q

Tc99m HMPAO binds to

A

neutrophils

492
Q

WBCs may accumulate at post op surgical sites for

A

2-3 weeks

493
Q

Prior to MIBG you should

A

block the thyroid with Lugols Iodine or Perchlorate

494
Q

Scrotal Scintigraphy

A

The typical agent is Tc-99m Pertechnetate. This agent is used as both a flow
agent and a pool agent.

495
Q

Left bundle branch block can cause a

A

false positive defect in the ventricular septum (spares the apex)

496
Q

Pulmonary uptake o f Thallium is an indication o f

A

LV dysfunction

497
Q

MIBG mechanism is that o f an Analog o

A

Norepinephrine - actively transported and stored in the neurosecretory granules

498
Q

MDP mechanism is that o f a

A

Phosphate analog - which works via Chemisorption

499
Q

Sulfur Colloid mechanism

A

Particles are Phagocytized by RES

500
Q

The order o f tumor prevalence in NF2 is the same as the mnemonic

A

MSME (schwannoma >

meningioma > ependymoma).

501
Q

Maldeveloped draining veins is the etiology o f

A

sturge weber

502
Q

All phakomatosis (NF 1, NF -2, TS, and VHL) EXCEPT Sturge Weber are

A

autosomal dominant

503
Q

Most Common Primary Brain Tumor in Adult

A

astrocytoma

504
Q

“Calcifies 90% o f the time”

A

oligodendroglioma

505
Q

Restricted Diffusion in Ventricle

A

Watch out for Choroid Plexus Xanthogranuloma (not a brain

tumor, a benign normal variant)

506
Q

Pituitary - T1 Big and Bright =

A

pituitary apoplexy

507
Q

Pituitary - Normal T1 Bright =

A
Posterior Part (because o f storage o f Vasopressin , and other storage
proteins)
508
Q

Pituitary - T2 Bright =

A

rathke cleft cyst

509
Q

Pituitary - Calcified =

A

craniopharyngioma

510
Q

CP Angle - Invades Internal Auditory Canal =

A

schwannoma

511
Q

CP Angle - Invades Both Internal Auditory Canals =

A

schwannoma with NF2

512
Q

CP Angle - Restricts on Diffusion =

A

epidermoid

513
Q

Peds - Arising from Vermis =

A

medulloblastoma

514
Q

Peds - “tooth paste” out o f 4th ventricle =

A

ependymoma

515
Q

Adult myelination pattern

A

T 1 at 1 year, T2 at 2 years

516
Q

Brainstem and posterior limb o f the internal capsule are

A

are myelinated at birth.

517
Q

CN2 and CNV3 are not in the

A

cavernous sinus

518
Q

Persistent trigeminal artery (basilar to carotid) increases

A

the risk of aneurysm

519
Q

Subfalcine herniation can lead to

A

ACA infarct

520
Q

ADEM lesions

A

will NOT involve the calloso-septal interface.

521
Q

Marchiafava-Bignami progresses from

A

body -> genu -> splenium

522
Q

Post Radiation changes don’t start for

A

2 months (there is a latent period).

523
Q

Hippocampal atrophy is first with

A

alheimer dementia

524
Q

Beaked Tectum =

A

chiari 2

525
Q

Beaker Anterior Inferior LI =

A

Hurlers

526
Q

Sometimes Beaked Pons =

A

multi system atrophy

527
Q

Most common TORCH is

A

CMV

528
Q

Toxo abscess does NOT

A

restrict diffusion

529
Q

Small cortical tumors can be occult without

A

IV contrast

530
Q

JPA and Ganglioglioma can

A

enhance and are low grade

531
Q

Nasal Bone is the

A

most common fx

532
Q

Zygomaticomaxillary Complex Fracture (Tripod)

A

is the most common fracture pattern and involves

the zygoma, inferior orbit, and lateral orbit.

533
Q

Supplemental oxygen can mimic

A

SAH on FLAIR

534
Q

Putamen is the most common location for

A

hypertensive hemorrhage

535
Q

Restricted diffusion without bright signal on FLAIR should make you think

A

hyperacute (< 6 hours)

stroke.

536
Q

Enhancement o f a stroke: Rule o f 3s

A

starts at day 3, peaks at 3 weeks, gone at 3 months

537
Q

PAN is the Most Common systemic vasculitis

A

to involve the CNS

538
Q

Scaphocephaly is the most common type o f

A

scaphocephaly

539
Q

Piriform aperture stenosis is associated with

A

hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis issues.

540
Q

Cholesterol Granuloma is the most common

A

primary petrous apex lesion

541
Q

Large vestibular aqueduct syndrome has

A

absence o f the bony modiolus in 90% o f cases

542
Q

Octreotide scan will be positive for

A

esthesioneuroblastoma

543
Q

The main vascular supply to the posterior nose is the

A
sphenopalatine artery (terminal internal
maxillary artery).
544
Q

Warthins tumors take up

A

pertechnetate

545
Q

Sjogrens gets salivary gland

A

lymphoma

546
Q

Most common intra-occular lesion in an adult

A

melanoma

547
Q

Enhancement o f nerve roots for 6 weeks after spine surgery

A

is normal. After that it’s arachnoiditis

548
Q

Hemorrhage in the cord is the most important factor for

A

outcome in a traumatic cord injury

549
Q

Currarino Triad

A

Anterior Sacral Meningocele, Anorectal malformation, Sarcococcygeal osseous defect

550
Q

Type 1 Spinal AVF (dural AVF)

A

is by far the more common.

551
Q

Herpes spares the

A

basal ganglia (MCA infarcts do not)

552
Q

Most common malignant lacrimal gland tumor

A

adenoid cystic adenocarcinoma

553
Q

Arthritis at the radioscaphoid compartment is the first sign o f

A

SNAC or SLAC wrist

554
Q

SLAC wrist has a

A

DISI deformity

555
Q

Pull o f the Abductor pollucis longus tendon is what causes

A

the dorsolateral dislocation in the Bennett Fx

556
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome has an association with

A

dialysis

557
Q

Degree o f femoral head displacement predicts risk of

A

AVN

558
Q

Proximal pole o f the scaphoid is at risk fo

A

AVN with FX

559
Q

Most common cause o f sacral insufficiency fracture

A

osteoporosis in old lady

560
Q

Patella dislocation is nearly always

A

lateral

561
Q

Tibial plateau fracture is way more common

A

laterally

562
Q

SONK favors

A

medial knee (are of maximum weight bearing)

563
Q

Normal SI joints excludes

A

ankylosing spondylitis

564
Q

Looser Zones are a type o f

A

insufficiency fx

565
Q

T score o f -2.5 marks

A

osteoporosis

566
Q

First extensor compartment

A

de Quervains

567
Q

First and Second compartment

A

intersection syndrome

568
Q

Sixth extensor compartment

A

early RA

569
Q

Flexor pollicis longus goes through

A

the carpal tunnel, flexor pollicis brevis does not

570
Q

The pisiform recess and radiocarpal joint

A

normally communicate

571
Q

The periosteum is intact with both

A

Perthes and ALPSA lesions. In a true bankart it is disrupted.

572
Q

Absent anterior/superior labrum, + thickened middle glenohumeral ligament

A

buford complex

573
Q

Medial meniscus is thicker

A

posteriorly

574
Q

TB in the spine

A

spares the disc space (so can brucellosis).

575
Q

Scoliosis curvature points away from the

A

osteoid osteoma

576
Q

Osteochondroma is the only benign skeletal tumor associated with

A

radiation

577
Q

Mixed Connective Tissue Disease requires

A

serology (Ribonucleoprotein) for Dx

578
Q

Medullary Bone Infarct will

A

have fat in the middle

579
Q

Bucket Handle Meniscal tears are

A

longitudinal tears

580
Q

No grid on

A

mag views

581
Q

BR-3 =

A

< 2% chance o f cancer

582
Q

BR-5

A

> 95% chance o f cancer

583
Q

Nipple enhancement can be

A

normal on post contrast MRI - don’t call it Pagets.

584
Q

Upper outer quadrant has the highest density o f breast tissue,

A

and therefore the most breast cancers

585
Q

Majority o f blood (60%) is via the

A

internal mammary

586
Q

Majority o f lymph (97%) is to

A

axilla

587
Q

The stemalis muscle can only be seen on

A

CC view

588
Q

Most common location for ectopic breast tissue is in the

A

axilla

589
Q

The follicular phase (day 7-14) is the best time to have

A

a mammogram (and MRI).

590
Q

Breast Tenderness is max around day

A

27-30

591
Q

Tyrer Cuzick is the most

A

comprehensive risk model, but does not include breast density.

592
Q

If you had more than 20Gy o f chest radiation as a child

A

you can get a screening MRI

593
Q

BRCA 2 (more than 1) is seen with

A

male brease cancer

594
Q

BRCA 1 is more in

A

younger patients

595
Q

BRCA 2 is more in

A

post menopausal

596
Q

BRCA 1 is more often a

A

triple negative CA

597
Q

Use the LMO for

A

kyphosis, pectus excavatum, and to avoid a pacemaker / line

598
Q

Use the ML to help catch

A

milk of calcium layering

599
Q

Fine pleomorphic morphology to calcification has the

A

highest suspicion for malignancy

600
Q

Intramammary lymph nodes are NOT

A

in the fibroglandular tissue

601
Q

Surgical scars should get lighter, if they get denser

A

think about recurrent cancer.

602
Q

You CAN have isolated

A

intracapsular rupture

603
Q

You CAN NOT have isolated

A

extra (it’s always with intra).

604
Q

If you see silicone in a lymph node, you need to recommend

A

MRI to evaluate for extracapsular rupture

605
Q

The number one risk factor for implant rupture is

A

the age of the implant

606
Q

Tamoxifen causes

A

a decrease in parenchymal uptake, then a rebound

607
Q

T2 Bright things

A

these are usually benign. Don’t forget colloid cancer is T2 bright