Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Central Sulcus

A

This anatomic landmark separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe,
and is useful to find if you haven’t learned the lazy Neuroradiolgisf s go to descriptor “fronto-parietal region.”

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2
Q

Practically speaking, this is the strategy I use for finding the central sulcus:

A

Pretty high up on the brain, maybe the 3rd or 4th cut, I find the pars marginalis. This is called the “pars bracket sign” - because the bi-hemispheric symmetric pars marginalis form an anteriorly open bracket. The bracket is immediately behind the central sulcus. This is
present about 95% o f the time - it’s actually pretty reliable.

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3
Q

Central Sulcus Trivia - Here are the other less practical ways to do it.

A

Superior frontal sulcus / Pre-central sulcus sign: The posterior end o f the superior frontal sulcus joins the pre-central sulcus

Inverted omega (sigmoid hook) corresponds to the motor hand

Bifid posterior central sulcus: Posterior CS has a bifid appearance about 85%

Thin post-central gyrus sign - The precentral gyrus is thicker than the post-central gyrus (ratio 1.5 : 1).

Intersection - The intraparietal sulcus intersects the post-central sulcus (works almost always)

Midline sulcus sign - The most prominent sulcus that reaches the midline is the central sulcus (works about 70%).

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4
Q

Superior frontal sulcus

A

often intersects the pre CS

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5
Q

inverted omega

A

On the central sulcus

represents the motor hand

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6
Q

intraparietal sulcus

A

intersects the post CS

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7
Q

precentral is

A

thick

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8
Q

postcentral is

A

thin

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9
Q

the post cs is bifid

A

about 85% of the time

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10
Q

Homunculous Trivia

A

The inverted omega (posteriorly directed knob) on the central sulcus /
gyrus designates the motor cortex controlling hand function.

ACA territory gets legs,

MCA territory hits the rest.

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11
Q

Normal Cerebral Cortex

A

As a point of trivia, the cortex is normally 6 layers thick, and the hippocampus is normally 3 layers thick. I only mention this because the hippocampus can look slightly brighter on FLAIR compared to other cortical areas, and this is the reason why (supposedly).

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12
Q

Dilated Perivascular Spaces (Virchow-Robins):

A

These are fluid filled spaces that accompany perforating vessels. They are a normal variant and very common. They can be enlarged and associated with multiple pathologies; mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurlers and Hunters) / ‘gelatinous pseudocysts” in
cryptococcal meningitis, and atrophy with advancing age. They don’t contain CSF, but instead have interstitial fluid. The common locations for these are: around the lenticulostriate arteries in the lower
third of the basal ganglia, in the centrum semiovale, and in the midbrain.

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13
Q

Cavum septum pellucidum

A

-100% of preterm infants,

  • 15% of adults.
  • Rarely, can cause hydrocephalus
  • Anterior to the foramen of Monroe
  • Between frontal horns
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14
Q

Cavum Vergae

A
  • Posterior continuation of the cavum septum pellucidum (never exists without a cavum septum pellucidum)
  • Posterior to the foramen of Monroe
  • Between bodies of lateral ventricles
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15
Q

Ventricular Anatomy

A

You have two lateral ventricles that communicate with the third ventricle via the interventricular foramen (of Monro), which in turn communicates with the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct.

The fluid in the fourth ventricle escapes via the median aperture (foramen of Magendie), and the lateral apertures (foramen of Luschka). A small amount of fluid will pass downward into the spinal subarachnoid spaces, but most will rise through the tentorial notch and over the surface of the brain where it is reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi and granulations into the venous sinus system.

Blockage at any site will cause a noncommunicating hydrocephalus. Blockage of reabsorption at the villi / granulation will also cause a noncommunicating hydrocephalus.

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16
Q

Arachnoid Granulations

A

These are regions where the arachnoid projects into the venous system
allowing for CSF to be reabsorbed. They are hypodense on CT (similar to CSF), and usually round or oval. This round shape helps distinguish them from clot in a venous sinus (which is going to be linear). On MR they are typically T2 bright (iso to CSF), but can be bright on FLAIR (although this varies a lot and therefore probably won’t be tested). These things can scallop the inner table (probably from CSF pulsation).

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17
Q

Basal Cisterns overview

A

People say the suprasellar cisterns look like a star, with the five corners lending themselves nicely to multiple choice questions. So let us do a quick review; the top of the star is the interhemispheric
fissure, the anterior points are the sylvian cisterns, and the posterior points are the ambient cisterns.
The quadrigeminal plate looks like a smile, o r … I guess it looks like a sideways moon, if you
don’t like smiles.

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18
Q

The Ambient Cistern is

A

a bridge between the

Interpeduncular C. ► Quadrigeminal C.

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19
Q

suprasellar cistern star

A

Anterior interheispheric cistern

sylvian cistern sylvian cistern

 ambient cistern        ambient cistern

         quadrigeminal plate citern (sideways moon)
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20
Q

Midbrain tectum vs tegmentum

A

Cerebral peduncle Cerebral peduncle
(usbstantia nigra) (substantia nigra)
tegmentum tegmentum
(red nucleus) (red nucleus)
tectum (aqueduct) tectum

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21
Q

Foramen rotundum

A

showing Foramen Rotundum (FR) in the coronal and sagittal planes is a very common sneaky trick.

On the coronal view, FR looks like you are staring into a gun barrel.

On the sagittal view, think about FR as being totally level or horizontal.

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22
Q

Foramen spinosum and ovale

A

With regard to the relationship between Spinosum and Ovale, I like to think of this as the footprint a
woman’s high heeled shoe might make in the snow, with the oval part being Ovale, and the pointy
heel as Spinosum.

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23
Q

Hypoglosal canal

A

The Hypoglossal Canal is very posterior
and inferior.
This makes it unique as a skull base foramen.

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24
Q

Jugular foramen overview

A

The jugular foramen has two parts which are

separated by a bony “jugular spine.”

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25
Q

Pars Nervosa

A

The nervous guy in the front. This contains the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9), along with it’s tympanic branch - the “Jacobson’s Nerve

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26
Q

Pars Vascularis

A

This is the “vascular part” which actually contains the jugular bulb, along with the Vagus nerve (CN 10), Auricular branch “Arnold’s Nerve,” and the Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN 11)

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27
Q

Bony Anatomy: Orbital Fissures and the PPF

overview

A

The relationship between the Superior Orbital Fissure (SOF), the Inferior Orbital Fissure (IOF), Foramen
Rotundum (FR), and the Pterygopalatine Fossa (PPF) is an important one, that can really lead to some
sneaky multiple choice questions (mainly what goes through what - see chart

page 17 volume 2

sagittal
top to bottom
sof
iof
fr
ppf
coronal
sof
iof
fr
ppf
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28
Q

Anatomy: Cavernous Sinus

whts in it

A

CN 3, CN 4, CN VI, CN V2, CN 6, and the carotid - run through it.

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29
Q

Anatomy: Cavernous Sinus

whats not in it

A

CN 2 and CN V3 - do NOT run through it.

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30
Q

Anatomy: Cavernous Sinus

anatomy trivia

A

The only other anatomy trivia I can think of is that CN6 runs next to the carotid, the rest of the nerves are
along the wall. This is why you can get lateral rectus palsy earlier with cavernous sinus pathologies.

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31
Q

Anatomy: Internal Auditory Canal - “IAC’

overview

A

The thing to remember is “7UP, and COKE Down”
- with the 7th cranial nerve superior to the 8th
cranial nerve (the cochlear nerve component).
As you might guess, the superior vestibular branch
is superior to the inferior one.

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32
Q

Anatomy: Internal Auditory Canal - “IAC’

ideal sequence

A

The ideal sequence to find it is a
heavily T2 weighted sequence with
super thin cuts through the IAC.

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33
Q

Anatomy: Internal Auditory Canal - “IAC’

sagittal

A

ante/superior post/superior
CN7 Superior vestibular
CN8 inferior vestibular

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34
Q

Contents

Foramen Ovale

A

CN V3, and Accessory Meningeal Artery

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35
Q

Contents

Foramen Rotundum

A

CN V2 (“R2V2”),

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36
Q

Contents```

Superior Orbital Fissure

A

C N 3 , CN 4, CN V I, CN6

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37
Q

Contents

Inferior Orbital Fissure

A

CN V2

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38
Q

Contents

Foramen Spinosum

A

Middle Meningeal Artery

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39
Q

Contents

Jugular Foramen

A

Pars Nervosa: CN 9,

Pars Vascularis: CN 10, CN 11

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40
Q

Contents

Hypoglossal Canal

A

CN 12

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41
Q

Contents

Optic Canal

A

CN 2 , and Opthalmic Artery

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42
Q

Contents

Cavernous Sinus

A

CN 3, CN 4, CN VI, CN V2, CN 6, and the carotid

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43
Q

Contents

Internal Auditory Canal

A

CN 7, CN 8 (Cochlear, Inferior Vestibular and Superior

Vestibular components). “7 Up - Coke Down”

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44
Q

Contents

Meckel Cave

A

Trigeminal Ganglion

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45
Q

Contents

Dorello’s Canal

A

Abducens Nerve (CN 6), Inferior petrosal sinus

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46
Q

Vascular Anatomy

overview

A

Arterial vascular anatomy can be thought o f in four sections. (1) The branches o f the external
carotid (commonly tested as the order in which they arise from the common carotid).
(2) Segments o f the internal carotid, with pathology at each level and variants. (3) Posterior
circulation, (4) Venous anatomy

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47
Q

(11 Branches of the External Carotid

A

Some Administrators Love Fucking Over Poor Medical Students

from first off to last branch
Superior Thyroid 9anterior)
Ascending Pharyngeal (superior
Lingual (anterior)
Facial (Anterio thens uperior)
Occipital (posterior superior)
Posterior Auricular (posterior superior)
Maxillary (anterior)
Superficial Temporal (supeior)
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48
Q

THIS VS THAT: External vs Internal Carotid via Ultrasound

internal

A

no branches

posterior

low resistance (continous diastolic)

no change in waveform with temporal tap

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49
Q

THIS VS THAT: External vs Internal Carotid via Ultrasound

external

A

branches

anterior

high resistance

waverform areacts to temporal tap

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50
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

Internal Carotid

A

• The bifurcation of the IAC and ECA usually occurs at C3-C4
• Cervical ICA has no branches in the neck - if you see branches either
(a) they are anomalous or more likely
(b) you are a dumb ass and actually looking at the external carotid.
*Remcmber finding branches is a way you can tell ICA from ECA on
ultrasound.
• Low resistance waveform with continuous forward flow during diastole
• Flow reversal in the carotid bulb is common

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51
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

Cl (Cervical)

A

Atherosclerosis: The origin is a very common location

Dissection: Can be spontaneous (women), and in Marfans or Ehlers-
Danlos, and result in a partial Homer’s (ptosis and miosis), followed by
MCA territory stroke.

Can have a retropharyngeal course and get “drained” by ENT accidentally.

Pharyngeal infection may cause pseudoaneurysm at this level.

to the level of the carotid canal

The internal carotid artery (C1 segment) enters the skull base through the carotid canal, where it begins a series of 90° turns which lead it to eventually terminate as the middle and anterior cerebral arteries.

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52
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

C2 (Petrous)

A

Not much goes on at this level.

Aneurysms here can be surprisingly big (thats what she said).

in the carotid canal

It first turns 90° anteromedially within the carotid canal as the C2 segment to run through the petrous temporal bone.

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53
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

C3 (Lacerum)

A

Not much here as far as vascular pathology. The anatomic location is
important to neurosurgeons for exposing Meckel’s cave via a transfacial
approach

from the carotid canal to the level of the petrolingual ligament

As it exits the carotid canal it lies superior to the foramen lacerum (C3 segment) and then turns 90° superiorly and then immediately another 90o turn anteriorly to groove the body of the sphenoid

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54
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

C4 (Cavernous)

A

This segment is affected by
multiple pathologies including
the development of cavernous -
carotid fistula.

Aneurysms here are strongly
associated with hypertension,

from the petrolingual liament to the dural ring

enter the medial aspect of the cavernous sinus (C4 segment). Within the cavernous sinus the abducens nerve is intimately related to the artery on its lateral side.

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55
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

C5 (Clinoid)

A

Aneurysm here could compress the
optic nerve and cause blindness.

in the dural ring

At the anterior end of the cavernous sinus, the ICA makes another 90° turn superiorly (C5 segment) and a final 90° turn posteriorly

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56
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

C6 (Ophthalmic
- Supraclinoid):

A

Origin at the “dural ring” is a
buzzword for this artery.

Common site for aneurysm formation.

to pass medial to the anterior clinoid process (C6 segment)

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57
Q

Segments of the Internal Carotid

C7
Communicating

A

Aneurysm here may compress CN
III and present with a palsy.

The terminal ICA (C7 segment) abruptly divides into the middle and anterior cerebral branches and gives off two smaller posterior branches, the anterior choroidal artery and the posterior communicating artery.

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58
Q

Internal carotid anatomy total

A

Course
The cervical segment of the ICA courses posterior to the ECA after its origin and ascends in the neck within the carotid sheath. As it ascends on the pharyngeal wall and the buccopharyngeal fascia, it is consecutively crossed laterally by the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X), glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the stylopharyngeus and styloglossus muscles.

The internal carotid artery (C1 segment) enters the skull base through the carotid canal, where it begins a series of 90° turns which lead it to eventually terminate as the middle and anterior cerebral arteries.

It first turns 90° anteromedially within the carotid canal as the C2 segment to run through the petrous temporal bone. As it exits the carotid canal it lies superior to the foramen lacerum (C3 segment) and then turns 90° superiorly and then immediately another 90o turn anteriorly to groove the body of the sphenoid and enter the medial aspect of the cavernous sinus (C4 segment). Within the cavernous sinus the abducens nerve is intimately related to the artery on its lateral side. At the anterior end of the cavernous sinus, the ICA makes another 90° turn superiorly (C5 segment) and a final 90° turn posteriorly to pass medial to the anterior clinoid process (C6 segment). The terminal ICA (C7 segment) abruptly divides into the middle and anterior cerebral branches and gives off two smaller posterior branches, the anterior choroidal artery and the posterior communicating artery.

Branches
Except for the terminal segment (C7), the odd-numbered segments usually have no branches. The even-numbered segments (C2, C4, C6) often have branches, although they are inconstant and usually small, therefore often not visualized even on high-resolution digital subtraction angiography. The exception is the ophthalmic artery, which is seen in nearly all cases

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59
Q

what branche first posterior communicating or anterior choroidal

A

p comm

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60
Q

ICA lateral vs anterior

A

ACA is antioer

MCA is lateral

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61
Q

Acute CN3 Palsy (unilateral

pupil dilation)

A

classic neurology boards question -
grab a relax hammer STAT!

The answer is PCOM aneurysm
until proven otherwise (although
it can also be caused by an
aneurysm at the apex of the
basilar artery or its junction with
the superior cerebellar /
posterior cerebral arteries).

The reason is the relationship
between the CN3 and vessels
(arrows).

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62
Q

Circle willis anatomy

A

23

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63
Q

Vascular Variants

Fetal Origin o f the PCA

A

Most common vascular variant (probably) - seen in up to 30% of general population.

Definitions vary on what a fetal PCA is. Just think of this as a situation where the PCA is feed primarily as an anterior
circulation artery (occipital lobe is feed by the ICA).

Therefore, the PCOM is large (some people define this vessel as PCOM larger than P 1).

Another piece of trivia is that anatomy with a fetal PCA has the PCOM superior / lateral to CN3 (instead o f superior / medial - in normal anatomy).

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64
Q

Vascular Variants

Persistent Trigeminal Artery

A

Persistent fetal connection between the cavernous ICA to the basilar.

A characteristic “tau sign” on Sagittal MRI has been described.

It increases the risk of aneurysm (anytime you have branch points).

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65
Q

Sag - C o n n e c ted B a s ila r an d ICA

A

L o o k s like a “T ” au

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66
Q

Anastomotic Vein of Trolard

A

Connects the Superficial Middle Cerebral Vein and the Superior Sagittal Sinus

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67
Q

Anastomotic Vein of Labbe

A

Connects the Superficial Middle Cerebral Vein and the Transverse Sinus

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68
Q

Trolard =

A

top

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69
Q

labbe =

A

lower

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70
Q

Superficial cerebral veins

A

Superior Cerebral Veins

Superior Anastomotic Vein of Trolard

Inferior Anastomotic Vein of Labbe

Superficial Middle Cerebral Veins

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71
Q

Deep cerebral veins

A

Basal Vein of Rosenthal

Vein of Galen

Inferior Petrosal Sinus

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72
Q

cerebral veins collateral pathways

A

The dural sinuses have accessory drainage pathways (other than the jugular
veins) that allow for connection to extracranial veins. These are good because they can help
regulate temperature, and equalize pressure. These are bad because they allow for passage o f
sinus infection / inflammation, which can result in venous sinus thrombosis.

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73
Q

cerebral veins inverse relationship

A

There is a relationship between the Vein o f Labbe, and the Anastomotic
Vein o f Trolard. Since these dudes share drainage o f the same territory, as one gets large the
other get small.

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74
Q

Vein o f Labbe

A

Large draining vein, connecting the superficial middle vein and the
transverse sinus

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75
Q

Vein o f Trolard

A

Smaller (usually) vein, connecting the superficial middle vein and
sagittal sinus

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76
Q

Basal veins o f Rosenthal

A

Deep veins that passes lateral to the midbrain through the

ambient cistern and drains into the vein o f Galen. Their course is similar to the PCA.

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77
Q

Vein o f Galen

A

Big vein (“great”) formed by the union o f the two internal cerebral veins.

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78
Q

Venous Gamesmanship

overview

A
An embolus o f venous gas is common and often not even noticed. The classic location is the
cavernous sinus (which is venous), but if the volume is large enough, air can also be seen in
the orbital veins, superficial temporal veins, frontal venous sinus, and petrosal sinus.
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79
Q

Venous Gamesmanship

why does this happen

A

Peripheral (or central IV) had some air in the tubing. Thats right, you can blame it on the nurse (which is always satisfying). “Nurse Induced Retrograde Venous Air Embolus ”

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80
Q

Venous Gamesmanship

significance

A

Don’t mean shit. It pretty much always goes away in 48 hours with no issues.

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81
Q

Venous Gamesmanship

most common spot

and the other sights

A

cavernous sinus

orbital veins and superficial temporal

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82
Q

The Concha Bullosa

A

This is a common variant where the middle concha is pneumatized. It’s pretty much o f no consequence clinically unless it’s fucking huge - then (rarely) it can cause obstructive symptoms.

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83
Q

CN 3 Palsy

A

Think Posterior Communicating Artery Aneurysm

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84
Q

CN 6 Palsy

A

Think increased ICP

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85
Q

Increased ICP >

A

Brain Stem Herniates Interiorly —► CN 6 Gets Stretched

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86
Q

Brain Myelination

overview

A

The baby brain has essentially the opposite signal characteristics as the adult brain. The T1 pattern
of a baby is similar to the T2 pattern of an adult. The T2 pattern o f a baby is similar to the T1
pattern of an adult. This appearance is the result o f myelination changes.
The process o f myelination occurs in a predetermined order, and
therefore lends itself easily to multiple choice testing. The basic
concept to understand first is that immature myelin has a higher
water content relative to mature myelin and therefore is brighter
on T2 and darker on T1. During the maturation process, water
will decrease and fat (brain cholesterol and glycolipids) will
increase. Therefore mature white matter will be brighter on T1
and darker on T2.

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87
Q

Brain Myelination

testable trivia

A

the T1 changes precede the T2 changes (adult T1 pattern seen around age 1, adult T2 pattern seen around age 2). Should be easy to remember (1 fo r Tl, 2 for T2).

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88
Q

Brain Myelination

take home point

A

Tl is most useful for assessing myelination in the first year (especially 0-6 months), T2 is most useful for assessing myelination in the second year (especially 6 months to 18 months).

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89
Q

Brain Myelination

order of progression

A

Just remember, inferior to superior, posterior to anterior, central to peripheral, and sensory fibers prior to motor fibers. The testable trivia is that the subcortical white matter is the last part of the brain to myelinate, with the occipital white matter around 12 months, and the frontal regions
finishing around 18 months. The “terminal zones” o f myelination occur in the subcortical frontotceporoparietal regions - finishing around 40 months.

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90
Q

Brain Myelination

another form of testable trivia

A

the brainstem, and posterior limb of the internal capsule are normally myelinated at birth.

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91
Q

Brain Myelination Pattern

A

Inferior to Superior, Posterior to Anterior

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92
Q

Immature

Myelin

A

High water
low fat
t1 dark
t2 bright

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93
Q

mature myelin

A

low water
high fat
t1 bright
t2 dark

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94
Q

Pituitary development overview

A

Both the Anterior and Posterior Pituitary are T1 Bright at Birth (anterior only T1 bright until 2 months).

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95
Q

Pituitary birth

A

Ant T1 Hyper

Posterior T1 Hyper

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96
Q

pituitary adult

A

ant t1 iso, t2 iso

posterior t1 hyper, t2 hypo

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97
Q

Brain Iron

A

Brain Iron increases with age (globus pallidus darkens up).

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98
Q

skull bone marrow signal

A

Calvarial Bone Marrow will be active (T1 hypointense) in young kids and fatty (T1 hyperintense) in older kids

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99
Q

Sinus Development

overview

A

Sinus Development:
The sinuses form in the
following order:

1- Maxillary,
2- Ethmoid,
3- Sphenoid,
4- Frontal

Most are finished
forming by around 15
years.

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100
Q

Sinus Development

detailed

A

Order Visible on CT
Maxi.l..l ary 1. Present at _5 month

Ethmoid 2 Present at birth 1. year

Frontal 4 Not Present at Birth 6 years

Sphenoid 3 not present at birth 4 years

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101
Q

Congenital Malformations overview

A

This is a very confusing and complicated topic, full o f lots o f long Latin and French sounding

words. If we want to keep it simple and somewhat high yield you can look at it in 5 basic
categories: (1) Failure to Form, (2) Failure to Cleave, (3) Failure to Migrate,
(4) Development Failure Mimics, and (5) Herniation Syndromes.

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102
Q

Failure to Form • Dysgenesis / Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum

overview

A
A classic point o f trivia is that the corpus
callosum forms front to back
(then rostrum lastl.
Therefore hypoplasia o f the corpus
callosum is usually absence o f the
splenium (with the genu intact).
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103
Q

Failure to Form • Dysgenesis / Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum

front to back

A
rostrum
genu
body
isthmus
splenium
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104
Q

Failure to Form • Dysgenesis / Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum

gamesmanship

A

With agenesis of the corpus callosum, a common
trick is to show colpocephaly (asymmetric dilation
o f the occipital homs).
When you see this picture you should think:
(1) Corpus Callosum Agenesis
(2) Pericallosal Lipoma

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105
Q

Colpocephaly

A

(asymmetric dilation of the occipital homs).

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106
Q

Failure to Form - Dysgenesis / Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum Continued

other common ways to show this

A

The steer horn appearance on coronal

vertical ventricles - widely spaced (racing car) on axial

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107
Q

Why are the lateral
ventricles widely spaced
when you have no corpus
callosum ?

A
There are these things called
“Probst bundles” which are
densely packed WM tracts -
destined to cross the CC -
but can’t (because it isn’t
there).
So instead they run parallel
to the interhemispheric
fissure - making the vents
look widely spaced.
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108
Q

Failure to Form - Associations - Intracranial Lipoma

overview

A

Dysgenesis / Agenesis o f the Corpus Callosum is associated with lots o f other syndromes/
malformations (Lipoma, Heterotopias, Schizencephaly, Lissencephaly, e tc…). Some sources
will even say it is the “most common anomaly seen with other CNS malformations. ” —
whatever the fuck that means.

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109
Q

Failure to Form - Associations - Intracranial Lipoma

trivia

A

. CNS Lipomas are congenital malformations, not true neoplasms.
• “ Maldifferenitation o f the Meninx Primitiva “ - is a meaningless French
sounding explanation for the frequent pericollasal location.
• Non Fat Sat T1 is probably the most helpful sequence (most non-bleeding
things in the brain are not T1 bright).
• These things d o n ’t cause symptoms (usually) are rarely treated.

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110
Q

Intracranial lipoma

A
The most classic association with CC Agenesis.
50% are found in the interhemispheric fissure, as
shown here. The 2nd most common location is the
quadrigeminal cistern (25%).
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111
Q

Anencephaly

overview

A

Neuro Tube Defect
(Defect at the top o f head)

The Top of the Head is Absent
(Above the Eyes)

Reduced /Absent cerebrum and cerebellum.
The hindbrain will be present.

Mercifully, not compatible with life.
Potential to he awful at Jeopardy

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112
Q

Anencephaly

Classic Image Appearance:

A

Incredibly creepy “Frog Eye” appearance on
the coronal plane (due to absent cranial bone /
brain with bulging orbits).

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113
Q

Anencephaly

Secondary Signs / Gamesmanship:

A

• Antenatal Ultrasound With Polyhydramnios
(hard to swallow without a brain)
• AFP will be elevated
(true with all open neural tube defects)

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114
Q

Iniencephaly

overview

A

Neural Tube Defect
(Defect at the level o f the cervical spine)

Deficient Occipital Bone with Defect in the Cervical Region. Inion = Back of Head / Neck

Extreme Retroflexion of the Head.
Enlarged foramen magnum.
Jacked up spines.
Often visceral problems.

Usually, not compatible with life.
When they do survive, they tend to have a
natural talent for amateur astronomy

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115
Q

Iniencephaly

classic imaging appearance

A

“Star Gazing Fetus” - contorted in a way that
makes their face turn upward (hyper-extended
cervical spine, short neck, and upturned face).

It’s every bit as horrible as the Frog Eye thing
(both would make incredible Halloween costumes.)

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116
Q

Iniencephaly

secondary sigs/gamesmanship

A

AFP will be elevated

true with all open neural tube defects

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117
Q

Failure to Form - Open Neural Tube Defects - Encephalocele ( meningoencephalocele)

A

Neural tube defect where brain + meninges herniate through a defect
in the cranium. There are lots o f different types and locations — but
most are midline in the occipital region.
There are numerous associations: - most classic = Chiari III

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118
Q

Rhombencephalosynapsis

A

vermis is absent

note the vertical lines across the cerebellum

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119
Q

Rhombencephalosynapsis

classic imaging appearance

A

Transversely oriented single lobed cerebellum as shown above (this is an Aunt Minnie).

Absence of the vermis results in an abnormal fusion of the cerebellum.

Small 4th Ventricle

Rounded Fastigial Point, Absent Primary Fissure

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120
Q

Rhombencephalosynapsis

associations

A

Holoprosencephaly Spectrum

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121
Q

Joubert Syndrome

A

Vermis is Absent (or Small)

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122
Q

Joubert Syndrome

classic imaging appearance

A

“Molar Tooth” appearance of the superior cerebellar peduncles (elongated like the roots of a tooth).

Small Cerebellum

Absence of pyramidal decussation (whatever the fuck the means)

Large 4th Ventricle “Batwing Shaped”

Absent Fastigial Point, Absent Primary Fissure

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123
Q

Joubert Syndrome

associations

A
Retinal dysplasia (50%),
Multicystic dysplastic kidneys (30%).
Liver Fibrosis (“COACH” Syndrome)
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124
Q

Failure to Form - Cerebellar Vermis

Gamesmanship:

A

If you are faced with this level of trivia (on an intermediate level exam), first start by looking for
the two markers of normal vermian development: (1) the primary fissure and (2) fastigial point -
both of which arc best seen mid sagittal. The ‘fastigial po in t” is normal angular contour (not
round) along the ventral surface of the cerebellum. The primary cerebellar fissure is a deep
trapezoid shaped cleft along the posterior cerebellum. Absence or abnormal morphology of these
landmarks should trigger a multiple choice brain reflex indicating the vermis is not normal.

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125
Q

Classic Dandy Walker

3 key findings

A
1 Hypoplasia of the Vermis
(usually the inferior part)
2 Hypoplastic Vermis is
Elevated and Rotated
3 Dilated Cystic 4th Ventricle
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126
Q

Classic Dandy Walker

axial

A

On axial, there is the nonspecific appearance o f an
enlarged posterior fossa CSF space. It can look like a
retrocerebellar cyst on axial only (although it’s not a cyst
- it’s the expanded 4th ventricle).

The cerebellar hemispheres will be displaced forward
and laterally but their overall volume and morphologic
characteristics should be preserved.

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127
Q

“TORCULAR-LAMBDOID INVERSION”

overview

A

This classic buzzword(s) describes the torcula
(confluence o f venous sinuses) above the level of the
lambdoid suture, secondary to elevation of the tentorium.
It’s worth mentioning that this inversion is often NOT
seen in the “variant” version of Dandy Walker.

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128
Q

“TORCULAR-LAMBDOID INVERSION”

quick

A
  • Normal -
    Lambdoid
    Above Torcula
  • Dandy Walker -
    Torcula Above Lambdoid
    ‘ High-Inserting
    Venous Confluence “
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129
Q

“C la s s ic ” Dandy W a lk e r

trivia

A

Often identified on OB screening US.

Otherwise, presents with symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (prior to month 1)

Most Common Manifestation = Macrocephaly (nearly all cases with the first month)

Associations: Hydrocephalus (90%), Additional CNS malformations (~ 40%) (agenesis of the corpus callosum, encephaloceles, heterotopia, polymicrogyria, etc…).

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130
Q

Failure to Form - Dandy walker and Friends

from least to most severe

A

Mega Cisterna Magna
Blake Pouch
“Variant” DWM
“Classic” DWM

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131
Q

Variant DWM name

A

hypoplastic rotated vermis

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132
Q

Mega Cisterna Magna

A

Overview: normal variant. focal enlargement of the retrocerebellar CSF space

Vermis: normal

4th Ventricle: normal

Cerebellar Hemispheres: normal

Posterior Fossa: normal

Torcula: normal

Hydrocephalus: no

Trivia: no supratentorial abnormalities

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133
Q

Blake Pouch

A

Overview: sac like cystic protrusion through the foramen of magendie into the infra/retro cerebellar region

Vermis: normally formed but upwardly displaced

4th Ventricle: dilated

Cerebellar Hemispheres: normal

Posterior Fossa: normal

Torcula: normal

Hydrocephalus: yes

Trivia: choroid from the 4th ventricle swinging into the pouch is classic (but not always present)

the pouch only communicates with the 4th ventricle not the internal CSF

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134
Q

“Variant” DWM

A

Overview: hypoplastic vermis with dilation of the 4th ventricle

Vermis: hypoplastic (less severe)

4th Ventricle: dilated

Cerebellar Hemispheres: hypoplastic

Posterior Fossa: normal

Torcula: normal

Hydrocephalus: 25% of cases

Trivia: Diagnosis on antenatal ultrasound must be done after 18 weeks (prior to 18 weeks the vermis hasnt finished forming).

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135
Q

“Classic” DWM

A

Overview: hypoplastic, elevated, rotated vermis with cystic dilation of the 4th ventricle

Vermis: hypoplastic and rotated

4th Ventricle: markedly dilated

Cerebellar Hemispheres: normal in size but diplaced anteriolaterally

Posterior Fossa: expanded

Torcula: high insertion

Hydrocephalus: 90% of cases

Trivia: Diagnosis on antenatal ultrasound must be done after 18 weeks (prior to 18 weeks the vermis hasnt finished forming).

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136
Q

Failure to Cleave - Holoprosencephaly ( HPE)

A

This entity also occurs along a spectrum with the common theme being some element of abnormal
central fusion. Although, it isn’t actually a fusion problem. Instead, it is a failure to perform the
normal midline cleaving. In the normal embryology, the fancy latin word ‘“P-lon ” starts out like a
peanut butter sandwich, then mom cuts the bread into two perfect halves (separate lateral
hemispheres). The sandwich cutting (cleavage) always occurs back to front (opposite of the
formation of the corpus callosum), so in milder forms the posterior cortex is normal and the anterior
cortex is fused.

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137
Q

Holoprosencephaly

least to most severe

A

lobar

seim-lobar

alobar

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138
Q

lobar holoprosencephaly

A

Overview: Focal areas of incomplete fusion anteriorly (usually the fomix)

Ventricles: Variable mild fusion of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles.

Thalamus: normal

Absent structures: septum pellucidum, corpus callosum (partial vs normal)

Horrible things: …..

Outcome: survive into adulthood

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139
Q

semi-lobar holoprosencephaly

A

Overview: The back is cleaved (not the front), >50% fusion of the frontal lobes.

Ventricles: the body of the lateral ventricles are 1 chamber. occipital and temporal horns are partially developed.

Thalamus: fused (partial or complete)

Absent structures: Septum Pellucidum, Corpus Callosum (partial), Anterior Interhemispheric Fissure, Anterior Falx Cerebri

Horrible things: cleft lip/palate, borat brother bilo (hes the retard)

Outcome: surbibe into adulhood but terrible at jeopardy.

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140
Q

alobar holoprosencephaly

A

Overview: Zero midline cleavage. Cerebral hemispheres are fused and there is a single midline ventricle

Ventricles: Single Ventricle (distinct lateral and third ventricles are absent)

Thalamus: Fused

Absent structures: Septum Pellucidum, Corpus Callosum, Interhemispheric Fissure, Falx Cerebri

Horrible things: Cyclops Monster Face (one eye, one nose hole, etc)

Outcome: Mercifully Bad (stillborn / dead < 1 year)

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141
Q

Face predicts Brain, BUT Brain doesn’t predict Face Possible BUZZWORDS for HPE spectrum.

A

Monster Cyclops Eyes
Cleft lips / Palates
Pyriform Aperture Stenosis (from nasal process overgrowth)
Solitary Median Maxillary Incisor (MEGA-Incisor)

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142
Q

Arhinencephaly

A

“Minor” HPE expression.

Midlinc olfactory bulbs / tracts are absent.

“Can’t Smell” - is the clinical buzzword.

Could be tested as Kallmann Syndrome
(which also has hypogonadism, & mental
retardation).

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143
Q

Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

A

Classic triad:

  1. Occipital Encephalocoele
  2. Multiple Renal Cysts
  3. Polydactyly

Also strongly associated with
Holoprosencephaly

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144
Q

Septo Optic Dysplasia

overview

A

This “Minor” HPE expression could be referred to by its French sounding name, for the sole purpose of fucking with you — ”de Morsier Syndrome ”

The classic findings are inferred by the name.

Absent Septum Pellucidum “Septo ” and
Hypoplastic “Optic ” structures such as the Optic Chiasma (circle) and Optic Nerves

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145
Q

Septo Optic Dysplasia

trivia

A

Associated with Schizenccphaly

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146
Q

Septo Optic Dysplasia

gamesmanship

A

The other thing they can show is
an azygos anterior cerebral artery - which is basically
a common trunk of the AC As. This is rare , but
associated with SOD and lobar HPE.

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147
Q

Cortical Formation

prologue

A

The brain is said to form “inside-out, ” as neurons that will eventually make up the cortex are originally birthed from a thick slurry surrounding the fetal ventricles. Sleep inducing texts will
refer to this as the “proliferative neuroepithelium.” I prefer the term “Lazarus Pit,” or just the “Pit.”
It is from this Periventricular Pit, where cells will make “the climb” to the cortex.

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148
Q

Cortical Formation

Act 1 - Proliferation

A

Before making “the climb” to the cortex the neuronal-glial stem cells are
bom into (and molded by) the darkness of the periventricular Lazarus Pit. It is there that they learn
the truth about despair, first by dividing into additional stem cells in a symmetric fashion (1 stem cell
splits into 2 stem cells). Later this process will change to asymmetric proliferation (1 stem cell splits
into 1 stem cell and 1 differentiated cell - glial cell or neuron). This process continues for several
cycles until the stem cells receive the signal to undergo apoptosis - they expect one o f us in the wreckage brother.

The number of neurons in the cortex is determined by the frequency and
number of symmetric / asymmetric divisions by these stem cells.
Disturbance in this process will therefore result in either too many, too
few, or improperly differentiated neurons.

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149
Q

Cortical Formation

Act 2 - Migration (RISE)

A

From the periventricular proliferative pit of despair, cells will make the
climb. As they climb to freedom, they are guided by structural cells, chemical signals, and the chant
“Deshi, Deshi, Basara, Basara.” They make the climb in 6 waves, with the first generation forming
the “pre-plate” and the second generation forming the more permanent “cortical plate.”
In other words, the younger cells always moving past the older ones
becoming more superficial in their final position, (hence the idea -
“inside out” or “outside last”). Disturbance in this mechanism
(guidance, timing of detachment e tc…) will result in undermigration,
over-migration, or ectopic neurons.

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150
Q

Cortical Formation

Act 3 - Organization

A

At this point you may think the cells have given
everything to the cortex, and they don’t owe them anymore. But, they haven’t
given everything… not yet. There is still the process of cortical folding
(gyrification).

The process actually occurs simultaneously with and depends heavily on the first two steps. The
differential speed of cortex expansion (relative to the deeper white matter) is probably the key
mechanism for brain folding. For this expansion to occur properly there needs to be the right
number of cells (act 1) migrated in the right order (act 2). There is the additional mechanism of
continued differentiation into structural cell types which organize into horizontal / vertical columns
creating an underlying cytoarchitecture need for structure and function. Disturbance in these
mechanisms will result in an absence of or excessive number of folds.

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151
Q

Failure to Proliferate: Hemimegalencephaly

A

Rare, but unique (Aunt Minnie), malformation characterized by enlargement (from hamartomatous
overgrowth) of all or part/s of one cerebral hemisphere. The presumed cause is a failure in the
nonnal neuronal differentiation in the involved hemisphere - resulting in an “abnormal mixture of
normal tissues” - which defines a hamartoma. This process is often mixed with other errors in
migration resulting in associated polymicrogyria, pachygyria, and heterotopia.

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152
Q

Hemimegalencephaly

A

big side with big ventricle = hemimegalencephaly

hamartomatous overgrowth of all or part of a cerebral hemisphere, seocndary to differentiation/migration failure.

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153
Q

Rasmussen’s Encephalitis

A

small side with big ventricle = atrophy

the shrunken half is atrophic resultingin ex acuo dilation ofthe ventricle

zebra viral (or maybe autoimmune disease that annihilates half the brain

just like an old grandpa brain (only thing is this is just half the braina nd the kid is usually less than 10)

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154
Q

Dyke-Davidoff-Masson (Cerebral Hemi-Atrophy):

A

This is another zebra that can look a lot like Rasmussen encephalitis - but also has weird unilateral skull thickening and expanded sinuses. The superior sagittal sinus and fissure are moved across the midline. It is supposedly caused by an in utcro or childhood stroke (supposedly).

Since literally anything is fair game on this exam. I’m including it for completeness (it’s probably low yield).

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155
Q

Lissencephaly

“Classic” Type 1

A
Smooth Surface
Thick Cortex
Colpocephaly
Figure 8 Shape
Undermigration
Failure to migrate both in
amount an in order - with a
reverse outside-in pattern. Large
numbers of neurons do not even
reaching the cortical plate,
depositing diffusely between the
ventricular and pial surfaces.
The distribution is fucked with 4
thick layers formed instead of 6
As a result of this disorganized /
inadequate migration the process
of cortical folding does not take
place.
Smooth Surface, Thick Cortex
Colpocephaly is Common.
“Figure 8” shaped brain on axial
-due to shallow, vertical Sylvan
fissures
Autosomal Inheritance (M=F)
Associated with CMV (maybe)
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156
Q

Double Cortex

Band Heterotopia

A
Undermigration
Considered the
mildest form of
Classic
Lissencephaly
Disorganized
migration results in a
second layer of
cortical neurons deep
to the more
superficial cortex.
This creates the
classic “double
cortex” appearance.
Associated with
seizure disorders.
Gyral pattern is
normal
(or mildly
simplified).
Subcortical band of
heterotopic gray
matter
X-Linked Inheritance
(F>M)
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157
Q

Lissencephaly “cobblestone” Type 2

A
Overmigration
Instead of failing to migrate
an adequate number of
neurons to the cortical
surface (as is the case in the
classic type of
lissencephaly), this
pathology is the result o f an
over migration.
This over migration results
in an additional layer o f
cortex composed on gray
matter nodules.
These nodules come in a
variety o f shapes and sizes
(unilateral, bilateral, small,
large, symmetric or
asymmetric).
Most commonly It is
commonly located adjacent
to the Sylvian fissures
Cobblestoned Cortex
(variable in size / location)
Associated with congenital
muscular dystrophy, and
retinal detachment -
"muscle- eye-brain disease
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158
Q

Periventricular nodular heterotopia

A
Failed Migration
Neurons in the
periventricular
(subependymal)
region were too
lazy to migrate to
the cortex.
The result is
nodular grey
matter deposition
along the ventricle
borders.
Most common
location for grey
matter heterotopia.
Associated with
seizure disorders.
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159
Q

THIS VS THAT:

heterotopia vs supendymal tubers of TS

A
THIS VS THAT:
Heterotopias
follow grey matter
on all sequences
and NOT enhance.
Subependymal
tubers o f TS are
usually brighter on
T2 relative to grey
matter and may
also be calcified.
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160
Q

Failure to Organize: Polymicrogyria “PIKIG”

A

I’ve heard people blame this on TORCH infections, toxic exposure, chromosomal issues, God’s wrath
for “stuff the Democrats do.” There are likely many causes. I wouldn’t expect someone to ask for
“the cause,” other than perhaps the broad category of failed organization.
Having said that. I’ve read some PhD papers saying that layer 5
gets obliterated (by infection, toxins, wrath, etc..) after
completion of normal migration. With layer 5 gone the other
more superficial layers overfold and fuse resulting in an excessive
number of small folds - the hallmark finding.

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161
Q

Failure to Organize: Polymicrogyria “PIKIG”

classic look

A

Fine undulating / bumpy cortex.
This anomaly come in a variety of shapes and sizes
(unilateral, bilateral, small, large, symmetric or asymmetric).
Most common location is adjacent to the Sylvian fissure Fine Undulations / Bumps
bilaterally.

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162
Q

Failure to Organize: Polymicrogyria “PIKIG”

trivia

A

Zika Virus is the most common cause of PMG in Brazil and South America

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163
Q

Failure to Organize: Schizencephaly— “Split Brain”

A

Just like polymicrogyria there are likely many causes and I wouldn’t expect someone to ask for “the
cause,” other than perhaps the broad category of failed organization.
Having said that, one popular theory is the idea of a vascular insult. What is this vascular insult ?
Well, you could say it’s the cortex’s reckoning (it damages the radial glial fibers). These radial glial
fibers are in charge (or at least they “feel in charge”) of the ropes used by neurons to “make the
climb.” Although, I’ve head it’s best to make the climb as the child did - without the rope. I mention
this because about 30% of patient’s with schizencephaly also have non-CNS vascular stigmata
(example = gastroschisis - which supposedly occurs from a vascular insult to the abdominal wall).

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164
Q

Failure to Organize: Schizencephaly— “Split Brain”

classic look

A

Schizencephaly literally means “split brain” with the defining feature being a cleft
(lined with grey matter) connecting the CSF spaces with the ventricular system. How wide this cleft is
depends on the flavor; Closed Lip (20%) or (2) Open Lip (80%), although in both cases the cleft
should span the full thickness of the involved hemisphere. The clefts can be unilateral or bilateral.

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165
Q

Failure to Organize: Schizencephaly— “Split Brain”

closed lip

A

Closed Lip (20%) - Less Common, Less Seve
i In this fonn, the “Lip” will
;appear closed without a
I CSF filled cleft. To make
! the call you want to look
I for is the grey matter
i running across the normally
j uniform corona radiata.
j Sometimes you can see a “nipple” o f grey mater
j pouching at the ependymal (ventricular) surface

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166
Q

Failure to Organize: Schizencephaly— “Split Brain”

open lip

A
Open Lip (80 %) - More Common, More Severe
This one is more obvious.
To make the call you want
to see a CSF-filled cleft
(lined with grey matter)
extending from the
ventricle to the pial
surface.
IThe gray matter lining is often weird looking
j(kinda nodular like a heterotopia).
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167
Q

Failure to Organize: Schizencephaly— “Split Brain”

associations

A

Absent Septum Pellucidum (70%), Focally Thinned Corpus Callosum,
Optic Nerve Hypoplasia (30%), Epilepsy (demonic possession)

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168
Q

Porencephalic Cyst

A

Least Severe

brain cleft/hole from a prior ischmic event resulting in ecneaphalomalacia.

cyst/cleft can communcate with the subarachnoid space (external) micmiching an open lip schizencephaly or communicated only with the ventricular system (internal)

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169
Q

Hydranencephaly

A

bilateral ICA occlusion causes massive destruction of both cerebral hemispheres. only the cerebellum, midbrain, andthe falx (usually) remain

hepres is the most classic, but in utero infection with toxo or CMV are also described causes

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170
Q

Developmental Failure Mimics— Hydranencephaly and the Porencephalic Cyst

These can be thought of along a
spectrum of severity

A
These things may look like a severe
developmental anomaly but the
underlying mechanism is different.
They are “acquired.” Classically by a
vascular insult - but really from
anything that can cause
encephalomalacia (focal necrosis of
both the gray matter and white matter
with eventual cystic degeneration).
This would include a trauma after birth
(this doesn’t have to happen in utero).
Understanding that the brain develops
normally first - then gets crushed,
helps to remember the key findings.
In particular, the absence of a gray
matter lining along the defect.
It’s almost like someone took an icecream
scoop to the brain. In the case
of Porenchephaly, they just took one
scoop. In the case of Hydranencephaly,
the glutinous pig took pretty much the
entire brain - leaving only the
cerebellum, midbrain, and the falx.
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171
Q

THIS v s THAT

open lip schizencephaly

A
Brain cleft / hole from a prior
event (maybe ischemic)
resulting in damage to the
structural cells needed to
properly organize the cortex.
Not Normally Formed
CSF-filled
cleft
extending
from the
ventricle to
the pial
surface.

Cleft is
Lined with
Gray
Matter

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172
Q

THIS v s THAT

porencephalic cyst

A
Brain cleft / hole from a prior
ischemic / traumatic event
resulting in encephalomalacia.
Normally formed - but massive
insult make it look
developmental.
CSF-filled
cleft
extending
from the
ventricle
and/or the pial
surface.

Cleft is
NOT Lined
with Gray
Matter

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173
Q

The brain appears screwed with corticle mantle

A

falx present - sever hydrocephalus
falx gone - Holoprosencephaly - Alobar
—Anterior falx usually missing in the semi-lobar form
—lobar (mild 1 subtype should still have the nax

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174
Q

the brain appears to be screwed without cortical mantle

A

hydranencephaly

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175
Q

“Cephalocele”

A

is an umbrella term for a herniation of the cranial contents through a defect in the
skull. While retaining the suffix “cele” they are then sub-classified based on (1) location, and (2)
what is in the herniation sac

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176
Q

cephalocele locations

A
nasal
frontoethmoid
transsphenoid
parietal
occipital
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177
Q

HERNIATION SAC CONTENTS

Meningocele

A

-CSF &
Meninges
-NO BRAIN

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178
Q

HERNIATION SAC CONTENTS

Meningo-
Encephalocele

A

Meningo-
Encephalocele
-CSF, Meninges,
and BRAIN

*For the purpose of fucking with you,
Meningoencephaloceles are sometimes
called Encephaloceles

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179
Q

Cystocele

A

CSF, Meninges,

Brain, and Ventricle

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180
Q

Myelocele

A

Spinal Cord

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181
Q

Chiari Malformations quick

type 1

A

Herniation of cerebellar
tonsils (more than 5
mm)

Classic Association
(not always present):
• Syrinx (cervical cord)

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182
Q

Chiari Malformations quick

type 2

A
Relatively less
tonsillar herniation.
Relatively more
cerebellar vermian
displacement

Classic Features

  • Low lying torcula
  • Tectal beaking
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Clival hypoplasia
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183
Q

Chiari Malformations quick

type 3

A

Features o f Chiari 2
AND
Occipital Encephalocele

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184
Q

Chiari Malformations quick

type 4

A
Historically used to describe
severe cerebellar hypoplasia
without herniation. The term
has fallen out of favor with the
powerful men and women
who control the Chiari
nomenclature.
We shall not speak of it again
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185
Q

Chiari Malformations quick

type 1.5

A

Hybrid term used to describe conditions that have features of
both type 1 and type 2.
Not associated with neural tube defects, despite the significant
downward movement of the tonsils and brain stem.

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186
Q

Chiari Type I classicly

A

Classically defined as i or
both tonsils > 5mm below
the level of the
Basion Opisthion.

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187
Q

Chiari Type I classic mechanism

A

Congenital underdevelopment
of the posterior fossa, leading
to overcrowding, and
downward displacement.

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188
Q

Chiari Type I non-classic mechanism

A

Post traumatic
defonnity - acquired later in
life.

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189
Q

Chiari Type I clinical symptoms

A
1) Occipital headache from
pressure of the cerebellar
tonsils - worse with sneezing
(2) Weakness, spasticity, and
loss of proprioception from
pressure on the cord
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190
Q

Chiari Type I classic association

A

(not always present):

• Syrinx o f the cervical cord

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191
Q

Chiari Type I less-classic association

A
(but still highly
testable) association:
-Klippel-Feil Syndrome
(congenital C-spine fusion).
NOT associated with a
neural tube defect
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192
Q

Chiari Type II

findings

A

Thinned Corpus Callosum Tectal Beak

clival hypoplasia

*Also note (^3
the long skinny
4th ventricle, and
the “towering
cerebellum.”
Interdigitated
Cerebral Gvri
(most classically
demonstrated on
axial CT)

Low Lying
Torcula
Opposite o f
Dandy Walker

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193
Q

Chiari Type II

classic mechanism

A

Neural Tube Defect
“sucks” the cerebellum downward prior to full
development o f the cerebellar tonsils.

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194
Q

Chiari Type II

classic assocation

A

-Lumbar myelomeningocele / Spina Bifida

only seen in pts with neural tube defect

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195
Q

Chiari Type III

A
Occipital Encephalocele,
(meningoencephalocele)
containing cerebellum and/
or the brainstem, occipital
lobe, and sometimes even
the fourth ventricle. PLUS
features of o f Chiari 2
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196
Q

Chiari Type III

Classic Associations

A
• Syrinx (cervical)
• Tethered cord
• Hydrocephalus
• Agenesis of the corpus
callosum
Only seen in patients with a
neural tube defect (NTD).
Encephalocele = NTD
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197
Q

Special Topic - Mesial Temporal Sclerosis

A

This is a pattern of findings (hippocampal volume loss + gliosis / scar), which classically result in
intractable seizures. The etiology is not certain, but it is most likely developmental (hence the
inclusion in this section).

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198
Q

Special Topic - Mesial Temporal Sclerosis

clinical trivia

A

This is the most common cause of partial complex epilepsy.

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199
Q

Special Topic - Mesial Temporal Sclerosis

clinical trivia 2

A

Surgical removal can “cure” the seizures / demon. Alternatively, perfect
W / i intracranial positioning of a tooth (from a red haired woman) has been described as
therapeutic in the Kazakhstani literature.

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200
Q

Special Topic - Mesial Temporal Sclerosis

imaging findings

A

• Reduced Hippocampal Volume (best seen when compared to the opposite site).
*10% o f the time volume loss is bilateral - other findings are necessary to exclude fuckerv
• Increased T2 Signal (from gliosis / scar)
• Loss of Normal Morphology (loss of normal interdigitations)
• Atrophy of the ipsilateral fornix and maxillary body
• Contralateral amygdala enlargement

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201
Q

Special Topic - Mesial Temporal Sclerosis

mri epilepsy protocol trivia

A

• T1 - Superior for Cortical Thickness, Eval of Grey / White
• FLAIR - Superior for Cortical / Subcortical Hight Signal (Gliosis)
• T2* / SWI - Superior for Blood Breakdown Products (for other things that can cause seizures;
calcifications of tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-Weber, Cavemomas, Gangliogliomas etc..)

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202
Q

Monro-Kellie Hypothesis

A

The Monro-Kellie Hypothesis is the idea that the head is a closed shell, and that the three
major components: (1) brain, (2) blood - both arterial and venous, and (3) CSF, are in a state
o f dynamic equilibrium. As the volume o f one goes up, the volume o f another must go
down

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203
Q

Intracranial Hypotension

A

if you are leaking CSF, this will decrease the overall fixed volume,
and the volume o f venous blood will increase to maintain the equilibrium. The result is
meningeal engorgement (enhancement), distention o f the dural venous sinuses, prominence
o f the intracranial vessels, and engorgement o f the pituitary (“pituitary pseudo-mass”). The
development o f subdural hematoma and hygromas is also a classic look (again, compensating
for lost volume).

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204
Q

Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (Pseudotumor Cerebril

A

Classic scenario o f a fat
middle-aged women with a headache. Etiology is not well understood (making too much
CSF, or not absorbing it correctly). It has a lot o f associations (hypothyroid, cushings,
vitamin A toxicity). The findings follow the equilibrium idea. With increased CSF the
ventricles become slit-like, the pituitary shrinks (partially empty sella), and the venous
sinuses appear compressed. You can also have the appearance o f vertical tortuosity o f the
optic nerves and flattening o f the posterior sclera.

Changes in intracranial pressure can create a downward displacement o f the brainstem
stretching the 6th cranial nerve - it is said that 1/3 o f patients with pseudotumor cerebri have
sixth nerve paresis as their only neurologic deficit

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205
Q

Hydrocephalus

communicating

A
-All Ventricles are Big
(25% o f the time the fourth
ventricle is normal)
-Level o f obstruction
between basal cisterns and
arachnoid granulations
- CSF can exit all the
ventricles
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206
Q

Hydrocephalus

communicating true obstruction

A

Blood, Pus, and Cancer - Anything that
plugs up the villi - the three most common
causes being SAH, Meningitis (TB or
Bacterial), and Carcinomatous Meningitis.

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207
Q

Hydrocephalus

communicating without obstruction

A

Brain Atrophy (ex-vacuo)

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
-see discussion below

Choroid Plexus Papilloma

  • Tumor that secretes CSF.
  • Discussed more later in the chapter
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208
Q

Hydrocephalus

non-communicating

A
-Upstream Ventricles are
Big
-Level o f Obstruction is
within the ventricle System
- CSF can NOT exit all the
ventricles
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209
Q

Hydrocephalus

non-communicating

level of obstruction

A
Foramen of Monro =
• Colloid Cyst
Aqueduct =
’ • Aqueduct Stenosis
• Tectal Glioma
4th Ventricle =
• Posterior Fossa Tumor
• Cerebellar Edema / Bleed
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210
Q

Hydrocephalus

non-communicating

level of obstruction

A
Foramen of Monro =
• Colloid Cyst
Aqueduct =
’ • Aqueduct Stenosis
• Tectal Glioma
4th Ventricle =
• Posterior Fossa Tumor
• Cerebellar Edema / Bleed
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211
Q

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

A

it s not well
understood - and idiopathic. The step 1 trivia is “wet,
wackv. and wobbly” - describing the clinical triad of
urinary incontinence, confusion, and ataxia. The key
points clinically are the patient is elderly (60s), and
the ataxia comes First and is most pronounced.

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212
Q

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

buzz phrase

A

The buzz-phrase is “ventricular size out of proportion
to atrophy.” The frontal and temporal horns of the
lateral ventricles are the most affected. “Upward
bowing of the corpus callosum” is another catch
phrase. On MR1 you may see transependyma 1 flow
and/or a flow void in the aqueduct and 3rd ventricle.
This is treated with surgical shunting

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213
Q

Syndrome of Hydrocephalus in the Young and Middle-aged Adult (SHYMA

A

Similar to NPH but in a
middle aged population - and more headaches less peeing of the pants (HA+Wacky+Wobbly).
Communicating Hydrocephalus + Middle Aged + Headache = SHYMA.

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214
Q

Communicating Hydrocephalus +

Elderly + Ataxia -

A

NPH

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215
Q

Congenital Hydrocephalus

A

There are several causes of hydrocephalus that can be present at birth or be related to fetal
development. These conditions are typically diagnosed prior to birth via routine ultrasound

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216
Q

Congenital Hydrocephalus

big 4

A

The big 4 are: (1) Aqueductal stenosis, (2) Neural tube defect - usually Chiari II, (3) Arachnoid cysts,
and (4) Dandy-Walker.

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217
Q

Aqueductal Stenosis

A

This is the most common cause of congenital obstructive hydrocephalus. Classically from a web or
diaphragm at the aqueduct (hence the name). Because of the location you get a “non-communicating”
pattern with a dilation of the lateral ventricles and 3rd ventricle with a normal sized 4th ventricle. You
can have a big noggin (macrocephaly) with thinning of the cortical mantle.

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218
Q

Aqueductal Stenosis

treatment

A

Treatment is going to be either shunting or

poking a hole in the 3rd ventricle (third ventriculostomy).

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219
Q

Aqueductal Stenosis

clinical trivia

A

Question header may describe “sunset eyes” or an upward gaze paralysis

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220
Q

Aqueductal Stenosis

clinical trivia 2

A

A male with “flexed thumbs ” should make you think about the x-linked variant.
(Bickers Adams Edwards syndrome).

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221
Q

Arachnoid Cysts

A

As the name implies, these are cysts located in the subarachnoid
space. They are CSF density, without any solid components, or
abnormal restricted diffusion. You wouldn’t even notice them
expect that they can exert mass effect on the adjacent brain, or in
the context of this discussion block a CSF pathway (obstructive
type).

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222
Q

Normal CSf shunt

A

The most basic shunt consists of a proximal tube (usually placed in
the frontal horn of the lateral ventricle just anterior to the foramen of Monro), a
valve to control flow, and a distal tip (usually dumped in the peritoneum, but
can be placed in the pleural space or right atrium).

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223
Q

Shunt Evaluation Options

A

Your first line options for shunt evaluation are going to be (a) non-con CT or
(b) rapid single shot T2 sequence - mainly looking at catheter position and ventricle size. *May need to
verify shunt settings with a plain film post magnet. If the ventricles are big (shunt is not working) you
might follow that up with a radiograph series (neck, chest, abd) to make sure the catheter is intact.
Ultrasound or CT can be used to inspect the distal tip for a fluid collection. Alternatively (if you are a
weirdo) you can inject < 0.4ml pertechnetate into the shunt reservoir and take images to look for leakage
or blockage (remember to not aspirate when you inject).

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224
Q

CSF Shunt Malfunction

undershunting

A

Proximal obstruction:

  • Proximal > Distal
  • Most common cause = ingrowth of choroid piexus and particulate debris / blood products
  • Can also be from catheter migration

Distal Obstruction:
-Pseudocyst (loculated flu id along the distal tip)
-Catheter migration
(more common in children)

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225
Q

CSF Shunt Malfunction

overshunting

A

-“Slit Like Ventricles” - can be meaningless or
suggest too much shunting.
- The big fear is that not enough CSF will cause subdural hygroma or hematoma formation via Monroe Kelly mechanics (less CSF - more
blood).

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226
Q

CSF Shunt Malfunction

infection

A

-Usually within 6 months of placement
-Blood cultures are usually negative (fluid from
the shunt should be cultured instead).
-Mild enhancement after catheter placement can
be normal - be on guard for fuckery.
-The best sign is debris within the ventricles,
ideally shown with DWI - this is the weapon of
choice for diagnosis of ventriculitis.

-Late stigmata may include ventricular
loculations - which can cause restricted flow /
obstruction and in some case isolate or “trap” the
4th ventricle — as shown in diagrams.

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227
Q

CSF Shunt Malfunction

hydrothorax

A

Either deliberately or via migration the catheter can end up in the pleural space. A little
bit of pleural fluid doesn’t mean shit. But, if the volume gets large enough and the
patient becomes symptomatic - then revision might be needed.

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228
Q

CSF Shunt Malfunction

ascites

A

Usually the ascites from a VP shunt isn’t symptomatic, although there are reports of inguinal hernias and hydroceles forming secondary to the increased abdominal pressure.

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229
Q

Cytotoxic Edema

A

This type o f edema can be thought about as intracellular swelling secondary to
malfunction o f the Na/K pump. It tends to favor the gray matter, and looks like loss of the
gray-white differentiation. This is classically seen with stroke (or trauma), and is why
EARLY signs o f stroke involve loss o f the GM-WM interface.

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230
Q

Vasogenic Edema

A

This type o f edema is extracellular, secondary to disruption o f the blood-brain
barrier. It looks like edema tracking through the white matter (which is less tightly
packed than the gray matter). This is classically seen with tumor and infection. You can
also see this type o f edema as a LATE stage o f cerebral ischemia. A response to steroids is
characteristic o f vasogenic edema.

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231
Q

Cytotoxic Edema

quick

A

Failed Na/K Pump (BBB intact)
Classic = Ischemia (EARLY)
White Matter + Gray Matter - “blurring

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232
Q

Vasogenic Edema

quick

A
Increased Capillary Permeability (BBB NOT intact)
Classic = Tumor, Infection, Ischemia (LATE)
White Matter (Spares Gray Matter
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233
Q

Subfalcine (Cingulate) Herniation

A

This is just a fancy way of saying midline shift (deviation of
ipsilateral ventricle and bowing of the falx). The trivia to know is that the ACA may be compressed,
and can result in infarct.

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234
Q

Descending Transtentorial (Uncal) Herniation

A

The uncus and hippocampus herniate through the

tentorial incisura. Effacement of the ipsilateral suprasellar cistern occurs first.

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235
Q

Descending Transtentorial (Uncal) Herniation

Things to know

A

• Perforating basilar artery branches get compressed resulting in “Duret Hemorrhages
classically located in the midline at the pontomesencephalic junction (in reality they can also
affect cerebellar peduncles).
CN 3 gets compressed between the PCA and Superior Cerebellar Artery causing ipsilateral
pupil dilation and ptosis
• “Kemohan’s Notch / Phenomenon” - The midbrain on the tentorium forming an indentation
(notch) and the physical exam finding of ipsilateral hemiparesis - which Neurologists call a
“fa ls e localizing sign. “ Of course, localization on physical exam is stupid in the age of MRI,
but it gives Neurologists a reason to carry a reflex hammer and how can one fault them for
that.

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236
Q

Ascending Transtentorial Herniation

A

Think about this in the setting of a posterior fossa mass. The
vermis will herniate upward through the tentorial incisura, often resulting in severe obstructive hydrocephalus.

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237
Q

Ascending Transtentorial Herniation

Things to know

A

The “Smile” of the
quadrigeminal cistern will
be flattened or reversed

 “Spinning Top ” is a
buzzword, for the
appearance of the midbrain
from bilateral compression
along its posterior aspect
Severe hydrocephalus (at
the level of the aqueduct).
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238
Q

Cerebellar Tonsil Herniation

A
Can be from severe herniation after
downward transtentorial herniation.
Alternatively, if in isolation you arc
thinking more along the lines of
Chiari (Chiari I = 1 tonsil - 5 mm).
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239
Q

Osmotic Demyelination or
Central Pontine Myelinolysis

most classic scenario

A

Asshole drunk Hobo shows
up to the ER with a low Na. Like most asshole
drunks in the ER, he starts out demanding a
cheeseburger and a Sprite (not a fucking Sierra
Mist!), then threatens to leave against medical advice.
.. .after finishing the burger.
Family Medicine Resident begs him to stay
(a decision he will soon regret). The Resident
eventually tires of his bullshit and decides to correct
his hyponatremia as rapidly as possible - with the
goal of expediting discharge.
2 days later the guy is still in house, acting like a
massive prick - acutely encephalopathic with spastic
quadriparesis.
Neurology gets consulted and writes “pseudobulbar
palsy” in the chart. Family Medicine Resident
doesn’t know what the fuck that means, but is humble
enough to ask. A below average 2nd year medical
student explains to him that it is slurred speech,
sensitive gag reflex, and being an even bigger cry
baby than normal- “labile emotional response”.
Coma, the above MRI, death, then a lawsuit follow
(in that order).

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240
Q

Osmotic Demyelination or
Central Pontine Myelinolysis

MRI

A

T2 bright in the central pons (spares periphery)

Earliest change: restricted diffusion in lower pons

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241
Q

Osmotic Demyelination or
Central Pontine Myelinolysis

trivia

A

Osmotic Demyelination or

Central Pontine Myelinolysis

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242
Q

Wernicke Encephalopathy

classic scenario

A

Very friendly Hobo - known
for singing songs from the 70s (mostly Supertramp’s
goodbye stranger) - starts acting squirrelly. “His
tempo seems o ff’ - notes the feminine male nurse.
An above average medical student suggests he is
exhibiting the clinical triad o f ( 1) acute confusion.
(2) ataxia, and (3) ophthalmoplegia, but is dismissed
by the Medicine intern who talks non-stop about
going into Cardiology (“Cards” - he calls it).
Only moments later the same Intern will suggest to
his Attending the same triad of findings before
stating “my medical student” seems disinterested and
may benefit from more call.
Still desperate to honor the clerkship, the student
suggests thiamine (vitamin B it deficiency as the
etiology, and says the symptoms could progress to
chronic memory loss and confabulation (Korsakoff
psychosis) or even death.
The cycle repeats - additional call is assigned, and a
formal letter of reprimand is issued to the student.

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243
Q

Wernicke Encephalopathy

imaging findings

A

• T2/FLAIR bright classically seen in medial/dorsal
thalamus (around the 3rd ventricle), periaqueductal
gray, mamillary bodies, and the tectal plate.
• Enhancement is classic in the mamillary bodies

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244
Q

Wernicke Encephalopathy

treatment

A

thiamine replacement

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245
Q

Marchiafava-Bignami

most classic scenario

A

• Swelling / T2 bright signal at the corpus callosum
(represents an acute demyelination)
• Order is progressive - typically beginning in the
body, then genu, and lastly splenium
• “Sandwich sign” on sagittal imaging - describes
the pattern of preference for central fibers with
relative sparing of the dorsal and ventrals fibers
• Chronic Phase: Thinned corpus callosum + cystic
cavities favoring in the genu and splenium

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246
Q

Marchiafava-Bignami

imaging

A

• Swelling / T2 bright signal at the corpus callosum
(represents an acute demyelination)
• Order is progressive - typically beginning in the
body, then genu, and lastly splenium
• “Sandwich sign” on sagittal imaging - describes
the pattern of preference for central fibers with
relative sparing of the dorsal and ventrals fibers
• Chronic Phase: Thinned corpus callosum + cystic
cavities favoring in the genu and splenium

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247
Q

Direct Alcoholic Injury:

A

Most Common / Classic Finding(s):
Brain Atrophy. Particularly the cerebellum
and especially the cerebellar vermis

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248
Q

Copper & Manganese Deposition

A

Tl Bright Basal Ganglia
-Non-Specific and related To Liver Disease.
-Can be seen without hepatic encephalopathy
-Also seen in TPN, Wilson’s Disease,
-Also seen in Non-Ketotic Hyperglycemia (HNK) in
which it’s often unilateral

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249
Q

Methanol Toxicity:

A

“Drinking Windshield Wiper Fluid” as an idiotic attempt to get drunk. Can also be seen from consuming “poorly adulterer moonshine” - or “West Virginia Budweiser.” Classic Findings: Optic nerve atrophy, hemorrhagic putaminal and subcortical white matter necrosis

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250
Q

H IS VS THAT: Carbon Monoxide vs Methanol

A

Carbon
Monoxide:
CT Hypodensity / T2 Bright: Globus Pallidus
(carbon monoxide causes “globus ” warming

Methanol
T2 Bright: Putaminal - which may be
hemorrhagic, and thus CT Hypcrdense.

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251
Q

PRES (Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome]:

classic features

A

• Asymmetric cortical and subcortical white matter edema (usually in parietal and occipital regions *but doesn’t have to be - superior frontal sulcus is
also common).
• Does NOT restrict on diffusion (helps tell you it’s not a stroke).

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252
Q

PRES (Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome]:

classic historr

A

Acute Hypertension or Chemotherapy

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253
Q

PRES (Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome]:

etiology

A

Poorly understood auto regulation fuck up.

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254
Q

Post Chemotherapy

two main looks

A

(1) PRES - As above, chemo is a classic cause. BUT! It tends to have a “non-classic” look relative
to the hypertension type. It will often spare the occipital lobes, and instead target the basal
ganglia, brainstem, and cerebellum.
(2) Leukoencephalopathy (treatment induced): The classic look would be centered in the
periventricular white matter - bilateral, symmetric, confluent, T2/FLAIR bright changes (history
is obviously key to the diagnosis).

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255
Q

Post Chemotherapy

A

It is fairly common. There are lots of named offenders. Methotrexate seems to be the one people
write the most papers about (especially in kids with ALL)

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256
Q

Post Chemotherapy

Other Misc trivia

A

Can progress to brain atrophy.

“Mineralizing Microangiopathy - the vocab word to use if there are calcifications

“Disseminated necrotizing leukoencephalopathy” - severe white matter changes, which
demonstrate ring enhancement, classically seen with leukemia patients undergoing radiation
and chemotherapy. It is bad news and can be fatal (it believes in nothing Lebowski).

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257
Q

Post Radiation

A

The quick and dirty version is that after radiation therapy to the brain you can see T2 bright areas
and atrophy corresponding to the radiation portal. You can also sec hemosiderin deposition and
mineralizing microangiopathy (calcifications involving the basal ganglia and subcortical white
matter). There is a latent period, so imaging findings don’t typically show up for about two months
post therapy. Now… if you want to get crazy, you can discuss changes at different time periods.

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258
Q

Post Radiation

Acute
(Days-Weeks):

A

Too rare to give a fuck about (at least for the test)

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259
Q

Post Radiation

Early Delayed
(1-6 months):

A

The classic look is similar to chcmo - high T2/FLA1R
signal in the periventricular white matter.

This is reversible
change (usually).

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260
Q

Post Radiation

Late Delayed
(6 months):

A

Described as a “mosaic” pattern with high WM signal
changes again favoring the deep white matter. Can
appear “mass-like” and expansile.

Classically sparing of the U-Fibcrs & Corpus Callosum.

Progressive… but
reversible (mostly)

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261
Q

Post Radiation

Long Term
Sequela

Radiation-Induced Vasculopathy

A

Strokes and Moya-Moya type of look

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262
Q

Post Radiation

Long Term
Sequela

Mineralizing Microangiopathy

A

1 mentioned this on the previous page. This is a
delayed finding — like two years following treatment. Think calcifications (basal
ganglia and subcortical white matter) - hence the term “mineralizing.”

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263
Q

Post Radiation

Long Term
Sequela

Radiation-Induced Vascular Malformations

A

The most classic types are capillary
telangiectasias / cavernous malformations. The most classic scenario is a kid
getting whole brain radiation for ALL. Remember the key finding is blooming on
GRE/SWI sequences.

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264
Q

Post Radiation

Long Term
Sequela

Radiation-induced Brain Cancer

A
  • XRT is the “most important risk factor” for primary CNS neoplasm.
  • Most common type is a meningiomas (70%) - usually seen ~ 15 years post XRT
  • More aggressive types Gliomas, Sarcomas, etc, have a shorter window < 10 years
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265
Q

Chasing the Dragon” - Heroin Inhalational leukoencephalopathy

A

Most toxic lcukoencephalopathies (either from chemotherapy, immunosuppressives, antibiotics,
or the aristocratic art of paint thinner huffing) all create a similar non-specific pattern of widespread
high T2/FLAIR signal in the supra and infratentorial white matter. The “Chasing the Dragon”
pattern is also not specific - but it does have a catchy name, so people love collecting cases of it to
show in conference (“catchy name” = high yield for boards).
The most classic look (diagrams are FLAIR sequences):

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266
Q

Chasing the Dragon” - Heroin Inhalational leukoencephalopathy

imaging

A

Symmetric “Butterfly” in the Centrum Semiovale

High Signal in the Posterior Limb of the Internal Capsule

High Signal in the Deep Cerebellar White Matter

Sparing of the dentate nucleus (arrows)

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267
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

overview

A

Size can be helpful. A single
lesion > 15 mm in size suggests the underlying etiology is not
vascular.
Certain locations will also make you think “not
vascular.” When you think “not vascular
pattern” you should think dcmyelinating.
When you think dcmyelinating you should think
MS first (it’s by far the most common).

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268
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

vascular

A

Size can be helpful. A single
lesion > 15 mm in size suggests the underlying etiology is not
vascular.
Certain locations will also make you think “not
vascular.” When you think “not vascular
pattern” you should think dcmyelinating.
When you think dcmyelinating you should think
MS first (it’s by far the most common).

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269
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

mcdonalds criteria

A
  • Usually targets women 20-40 (in children there is no gender difference).
  • There are multiple sub-types with the relapsing-remitting form being the most common (85%).
  • Clinical history o f “separated by time and space ” is critical.
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270
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

epidemiologial trivia

A
  • Usually targets women 20-40 (in children there is no gender difference).
  • There are multiple sub-types with the relapsing-remitting form being the most common (85%).
  • Clinical history o f “separated by time and space ” is critical.
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271
Q

MS

Vascular vs perivascular pattern

A
Vascular Pattern       Perivascular Pattern (MS
Corpus Callosum RARE COMMON
Juxtacortical RARE COMMON
Infratentorial RARE COMMON
Basal Ganglai COMMON RARE
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272
Q

Additional MS Related Trivia

A

• Most Classic Finding: T2/FLA1R oval and periventricular perpendicularly oriented lesions.
• Involvement o f the calloso-septal interface is 98% specific for MS (and helps differentiate it
from vascular lesions and ADEM).
• In children the posterior fossa is more commonly involved.
• Brain atrophy is accelerated in MS.
• Solitary spinal cord involvement can occur but it is typically seen in addition to brain lesions.
• The cervical spine is the most common location in the spine (65%).
• Spinal cord lesions tend to be peripherally located.
• FLAIR is more sensitive than T2 in detection o f juxtacortical and periventricular plaques.
• T2 is more sensitive than FLAIR for detecting infratentorial lesions
• MR spectroscopy (discussed later in the chapter) will show reduced N AA peaks within the
plaques.

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273
Q

MS Active vs Not Active

A

Acute demyelinating plaques should enhance and restrict diffusion (on
multiple choice tests and occasionally in the real world).

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274
Q

Tumor vs MS

A

You can sometimes get a big MS plaque that looks like a tumor. It will ring
enhance but classically incomplete (like a horseshoe), with a leading demyelinating edge.

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275
Q

Tumor =

A

Complete Ring

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276
Q

Demyelination =

A

Incomplete Ring

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277
Q

Multiple Sclerosis Variants

A

ADEM
Acute Hemorrhagic Leukoencephalitis
Devics
Marburg Variant

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278
Q

ADEM

A

(Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis): Typically presents in childhood or
adolescents, after a viral illness or vaccination. Classically has multiple LARGE T2 bright
lesions, which enhance in a nodular or ring pattern (open ring). Lesions do NOT involve the
calloso-septal interface.

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279
Q

Acute Hemorrhagic Leukoencephalitis

A

(Hurst Disease): This a fulminant form o f ADEM with

massive brain swelling and death. The hemorrhagic part is only seen on autopsy (not imaging).

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280
Q

Devics

A

(neuromyelitis optica): Transverse Myelitis + Optic Neuritis.
Lesions in the Cord and the Optic Nerve

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281
Q

Marburg Variant:

A

Childhood variant that is fulminant and terrible leading to rapid death. It
usually has a febrile prodrome. “MARBURG!!! ” = DEATH

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282
Q

Subcortical Arteriosclerotic Encephalopathy ISAE1

A

Also referred to as Binswangcr Disease - for the purpose of fucking with you.
It’s best thought of as a multi-infarct dementia that ONLY involves the white matter

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283
Q

Subcortical Arteriosclerotic Encephalopathy ISAE1

trivia

A

• Strong association with Hypertension.
• It’s seen in older people - 55 and up
• If they show you a case that looks exactly
like SAE but that patient is 40 and has
migraines they are leading you to the
genetically transmitted form of this disease
called CADASIL.
• It favors the white matter of the centrum
semiovale (white matter superior to the
lateral ventricles / corpus callosum).
• Classically spares the subcortical U fibers

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284
Q

WTF are “U Fib e rs” ?

A
They are the
fibers under the
cortex, that look
like “U”s.
They come up a
lot, as being
spared or not
spared.
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285
Q

CADASIL

A

(Cerebral Autosomal Dominant Arteriopathv with Subcortical Infarcts & Leukoencephalopathy)
Basically it is SAE in a slightly younger person (40), with migraines.

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286
Q

CADASIL

classic scenario

A

40 year old presenting with migraine headaches, strokes, then eventually
dementia. CADASIL is actually the most common hereditary stroke disorder.

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287
Q

CADASIL

step 1 trivia

A

NOTCH3 mutations on chromosome 19

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288
Q

CADASIL

classic imaging findings

A

Severe white matter disease (high T2/FLAIR signal) involving multiple
vascular territories, in the frontal and temporal lobe. The occipital lobes are often spared. Temporal
lobe involvement is classic.

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289
Q

Dementia Disorders

nucs

A

FDG PET for dementia is a worthless and expensive component o f the workup. Like most
imaging exams it is ordered with no regard to the impending collapse o f the health care
system under crippling rising costs (with inevitable progression into a Mad Max style
dystopian future or even better Mega-City 1). As such, it is standard practice in most
academic centers to obtain the study.
The idea is that “demented brain” will have less perfusion and will have less metabolism
relative to “not demented brain.” PET can assess perfusion ( 15O-H20) but typically it uses
l8FDG to assess metabolism (which is analogous to perfusion). Renal clearance o f 18FDG is
excellent, giving good target to background pictures. Resolution o f PET is superior to
SPECT.
HMPAO, and ECD (tracers that are discussed in more depth in the nukes chapter) can also be
used for dementia imaging and the patterns o f pathology are the same.
It’s important to remember that external factors can affect the results; bright lights
stimulating the occipital lobes, high glucose (>200) causes more competition for the tracer
and therefore less uptake, e tc .. .e tc … so on and so forth.

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290
Q

On FDG PET the motor strip is always preserved

in a

A

dgsenerative type o f dementia.

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291
Q

Alzheimer Disease

A
Most common cause
Tauopathy, Amyloid Cascade,
and Neurofibrillary Tangles are
all buzzwords people use when
they pretend to understand the
pathophysiology.
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292
Q

Alzheimer Disease

Risk Factor(s):

A
The biggest one is Age.
A more obscure one (but
certainly testable) is Downs
Syndrome. Downs patients
nearly always get AD, and they
get it earlier than normal - that
extra 21st isn’t doing them any
favors.
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293
Q

Alzheimer Disease

Most Classic Feature(s):

A
hippocampal atrophy (which
is first and out of proportion to
the rest of the brain atrophy).
They could ask temporal horn
atrophy > 3 mm , which is seen
in more than 65% of cases.
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294
Q

Alzheimer Disease

FDG Pattern

A
Low posterior
temporoparietal uptake -
"headphones ” or "ear muffs. ”
11C PiB (Pittsburgh
compound B) is an even better
way to waste money making
this diagnosis. It works as an
Amyloid Binding Tracer.
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295
Q

Multi-infarct Dementia

A

2nd most common
Also called “Vascular
Dementia” - for the purpose of
fucking with you.

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296
Q

Multi-infarct Dementia

Risk Factor(s):

A
• McDonalds, Burger King,
Taco Bell, Pizza Hut
• Hypertension,
• Smoking (tobacco), and
• CADAS1L
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297
Q

Multi-infarct Dementia

Most Classic Feature(s):

A

Cortical infarcts and lacunar
infarcts are seen on MR1. Brain
atrophy (generalized) is usually
advanced for the patients age

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298
Q

Multi-infarct Dementia

FDG Pattern:

A
Multiple scattered areas of decreased
activity. No specific lobar
predominance.
Unlike the neurodegenerative
dementias - this one could
knock out the motor strip (if the
strokes happen to involve that
region). This is different that
AD and DLB.
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299
Q

Dementia with LewyDodies

A
3rd most common
Alpha synuclein and synucleinopathy
are buzzwords people
use when they pretend to
understand the
pathophysiology
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300
Q

Dementia with LewyDodies

Clinical Scenario

A
There is a
triad of classic features.
(1) Visual hallucinations
(2) Spontaneous parkinsonism,
(3) Fluctuating ability to
concentrate / stay alert
Clinical picture can be similar
to Parkinson’s dementia - the
major difference in DLB, the
dementia comes before the
Parkinsonism
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301
Q

Dementia with LewyDodies

Most Classic Feature(s):

A
Mild generalized atrophy
without lobar predominance
(unlike multi-infarct).
Hippocampi will be normal in
size (unlike AD)
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302
Q

Dementia with LewyDodies

FDG Pattern

A
decreased FDG
uptake in the lateral occipital
cortex, with sparing of the mid
posterior cingulate gyrus
(Cingulate Island Sign).
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303
Q

Picks

A

Also be referred to a “frontotemporal dementia ’’ - for the purpose of fucking with you.

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304
Q

Picks

clinical

A

Onset is earlier than AD (like 40s-50s). Classic presentation is described as “compulsive
or inappropriate behaviors.” In other words, acting like an asshole (fucking prostitutes, and buying
miracle weight loss potions from Dr. Oz - when you aren’t even going to the gym or trying to cat
right). Just being a real Prick.

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305
Q

Picks

classic features

A

Severe symmetric atrophy of the frontal lobes (milder volume loss in the
temporal lobes).

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306
Q

Picks

FDG Pattern

A

Low uptake in the frontal and temporal lobes.

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307
Q

FDG PET-Brain quick

Alzheimers

A
Low posterior temporoparietal cortical
activity
-Identical to Parkinson Dementia
-Posterior Cingulate gyrus is
the first area abnormal
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308
Q

FDG PET-Brain quick

Multi Infarct

A

Scattered areas o f decreased

activity

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309
Q

FDG PET-Brain quick

Dementia with Lewy Bodies

A

Low in lateral occipital cortex

Preservation o f the mid
posterior cingulate gyrus
(Cingulate Island Sign

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310
Q

FDG PET-Brain quick

Picks / Frontotemporal

A

Picks / Frontotemporal

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311
Q

The Defias Brotherhood of Neurodegeneration

A

Fahr Disease
(syndrome)

Hallervorden
Spatz

Amyotrophic
Lateral
Sclerosis

Cortico-basal
Degeneration

Huntington
Disease

Leigh
Disease

Hurler
Syndrome

MELAS
Syndrome

Parkinson
Disease
(PD)

“Parkinson-
Plus”
Multi-
System
Atrophy
(MSA)
Parkinson-
Plus”
Progressive
Supranuclear
Palsy
(PSP)

Wilson Disease

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312
Q

Fahr Disease

syndrome

A
Also called “Bilateral
Striatopallidodentate Calcinosis", and
sometimes "Primary Familial Brain
Calcification ” for the sole purpose of
fucking with you on the exam.
Many are asymptomatic. Others go
insane and start stumbling around
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313
Q

Fahr Disease
(syndrome)

Imaging

A
Extensive
Calcification in the
Basal Ganglia and
Thaiami.
*Globus is typically
involved first
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314
Q

Hallervorden Spatz

A
Also called PKAN (pantothenate kinaseassociated
neuropathy) for the sole
purpose of fucking with you on the exam.
Etiology: Iron in the Globus Pallidus
T2 Dark Globus with central bright area
of necrosis “Eye o f the Tiger”. No
enhancement. No Restricted Diffusion.
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315
Q

Hallervorden Spatz

Imaging

A

T2: Dark Medial Basal Ganglia (Globus),

with centraI high signal dot (necrosis

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316
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A

Upper motor neuro loss in the brain and
spine. Most people die within 5 years
(unless you are really good at physics).

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317
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

Imaging

A

Does NOT show gross volume loss.
T2/FLAIR tends to be Normal (rarely can
be bright in the posterior internal capsule).

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318
Q

Cortico-basal Degeneration

A

Tauopathy (whatever the F that means).
Awesome clinical manifestations like the
“Alien limb phenomenon ” -50% of cases.

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319
Q

Cortico-basal Degeneration

Imaging

A

Asymmetric frontoparietal atrophy.

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320
Q

Huntington Disease

A
One of those AD repeat sequence things.
What Sequence ? 38 CAGs Mother
Fuckers. Yes, I still remember that
worthless factoid from Step 1.
Why? It’s a curse. My mind is like a bear
trap, you gotta chew your leg off to get
out. So, between Step 1 & the CORE
exam. I’ve got tons of worthless bullshit
up there.
Remember these poor guys turn into huge
assholes - then start flopping around.
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321
Q

Huntington Disease

Imaging

A

Caudate Atrophy and reduced FDG uptake.
The frontal horns will become enlarged and
outwardly convex (from the atrophy pattern)

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322
Q

Leigh Disease

A

Mitochondrial Disorder

Elevated Lactate peak at 1.3 ppm

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323
Q

Leigh Disease

Imaging

A

T2/FLA1R bright lesions in the Brainstem,
Basal Ganglia , and Cerebral Peduncles.
They can restrict, but do NOT enhance.

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324
Q

MELAS Syndrome

A

Mitochondrial Disorder
Lactic Acidosis, Seizures, and Strokes
Elevated Lactate “doublet” at 1.3 ppm

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325
Q

MELAS Syndrome

Imaging

A

with a nonvascular distribution (usually
occipital and parietal).
Underlying WM is normal

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326
Q

Hurler Syndrome

A

Lysosomal Storage Disease /

Mucopolysaccharidoses

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327
Q

Hurler Syndrome

Imaging

A

(1) Macrocephaly with Mctopic “beak”
(2) Enlarged Perivascular Spaces
(3) Beaked Inferior L 1 Vertebral Body

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328
Q

Parkinson Disease (PD)

A

Classic Clinical Hx: Resting tremor, Rigid /
Slow movements (shuffling gate, etc..).
Etiology: Reduced dopaminergic input to
striatum (whatever the fuck that means).

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329
Q

Parkinson Disease (PD)

imaging

A

DAT Scan - loflupane 123 - This exotic
Nukes study is certainly fair game for an
“intermediate level” exam., commas instead of periods

Impossible to diagnose on CT or MR alone -
but supposedly has mild midbrain volume
loss with a “butterfly” pattern (this would
have to be stated, it is too subtle to show).
Worth noting in the sparing of the midbrain
and superior cerebellar peduncles. This is a fairly high yield piece of trivia as it helps
distinction Parkinsons from multi-system
atrophy.

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330
Q

Wilson Disease

A

AR copper metabolism malfunction. Once
the liver fills up with copper it starts
spilling over into other organs including the
brain.

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331
Q

Wilson Disease

trivia

A

Trivia: “Kayser-Fleischer Rings” - seen in
95% of patients. Prepare the Slit Lamp.

Trivia: Cortical Atrophy is the most
common CT finding (although obviously
non-specific).

Trivia: T 1 Bright BG is the most common
initial MR findings (supposedly).

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332
Q

“Parkinson- Plus” Multi- System Atrophy (MSA)

A
This is a monstrously complex entity, that is
actually 3 separate renamed entities
(“P”, “ Q " an(j “A”).
The highest yield pearl is the appearance of
the Cerebellar subtype MSA-CI
Trivia: 1-123 M1BG can be used to
differentiate PD from MSA, by looking at
the cardiac/mediastinal ratio (which is
normal in MSA, and abnormal in PD)
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333
Q

“Parkinson- Plus” Multi- System Atrophy (MSA)

imaging

A

Cerebellar Hemisphere /
Peduncle Atrophy with a
Shrunken Flat Pons &
an enlarged 4th vent.

Hot Cross Bun
Sign (loss of the
transverse fibers)

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334
Q

“Parkinson- Plus” Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP)

A
• Also called Steele-Richardson-Olszewski
for the purpose of fucking with you.
• PSP = Most Common Parkinson Plus
• Unlike PD & MSA, PSP is a Tauopathy
(whatever the fuck that means).
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335
Q

“Parkinson- Plus” Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP)

imaging

A

Micky Mouse Sign: Tegmentum Atrophy
with Sparing of the Tectum & Peduncles.
*If needed anatomy refresher - page 14

Hummingbird Sign: Midbrain volume loss
with a concave upper surface + relative
sparing of the Pons

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336
Q

Wilson Disease

imaging

A

Panda Sign: T2 Bright Tegmentum with
normal dark red nuclei & substantial nigra

T1 and T2 Bright Basal Ganglia
T2 Bright Dorsal Medial Thalamus

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337
Q

Deep Brain Stimulators

A
I want to quickly touch on deep brain stimulators. These things are used in the treatment of Parkinson
disease, essential tremor, and chronic pain.
It is common to get a CT
immediately after DBS placement to
evaluate for correct positioning of
the electrode or any obvious
complications (bleeding, etc...).
Knowing the “correct” position is the
most useful piece of trivia.
For Parkinson Disease, the
electrodes are typically positioned in
the sub thalamic nucleus with the
tips of the electrons located 9 mm
from the midline (just inside the
upper most margin of the cerebral
peduncle).
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338
Q

Introduction to MRI Spectroscopy

overview

A

The general idea is that the various metabolites which exist on the cellular level (choline,
lactate, N-acetylaspartate “NAA,” etc… etc…, so on and so forth…) occur in different concentrations
depending on the pathology. For example, “NAA” is a neuronal marker. Things that destroy neurons
(like tumors) will decrease NAA. So, in general the lower the NAA the higher the grade tumor.
You will see a graph like this one, with “PPM” on the X-Axis, and “Intensity” on the Y-Axis.

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339
Q

Introduction to MRI Spectroscopy

itnensity

A
Intensity is
going to tell you
“how much” of a
thing there is.
It’s not a raw
number, and
better thought of
as a ratio.
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340
Q

Introduction to MRI Spectroscopy

PPM

A

PPM stands for parts per million. Better understood as a percent of the Larmor Frequency
(1 ppm = 1 millionth of the Larmor frequency). This is important because each metabolite will
have a unique frequency distribution. For example NAA is at 2.0 ppm.

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341
Q

Introduction to MRI Spectroscopy

why are the numbers backward ont he scall

A

I’m going to answer this with the same
explanation I received as a small child when I asked why I couldn’t just eat my dessert first, and my
vegetables last — “because I’m your mother that’s why!”

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342
Q

Introduction to MRI Spectroscopy

hunters angle

A

This is a method to quickly
decide if the MRS is normal or not. Under
normal conditions Choline, Creatine, and NAA
should ascending in that order. Using a line to
connect the tips gives you a 45 degree~ish angle.
If it slopes the other way (as shown) then it is
not normal.

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343
Q

Reversed Hunter’s

Angle in a

A

High Grade

Glioma (GBM)

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344
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Lipid

A
0.9-1.4
Product of brain
destruction -
lipids are present
in necrotic brain
tissue (necrosis
marker).
Necrotic Tissue (spilling of membrane lipids).
Elevated with high grade tumors, brain infarcts,
and brain abscess.
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345
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Lactate

A
1.3
Product of
anaerobic
metabolism.
Absent under
normal
conditions.
Brain tumor has outgrown
its blood supply - is
forced into anaerobic
pathways for metabolism.
Also elevated with
cerebral abscess.
Classic Trivia: It’s
normal to see lactate
elevated in the first
hours of life
Classic Trivia: Lactate
and Lipid peaks
superimpose - you
need to use an
intermediate TE
(around 140) to causes
an “inversion” of the
lactate peak (so you
can see it)
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346
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Alanine

A

1.48 Amino Acid Found in Meningiomas

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347
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

N-acetvlaspartate
“NAA”

A
2.0
Neuronal Marker
(Neuron
Viability).
Usually the tallest
peak.
Glial tumors have NAA.
The higher the Glial
tumor grade, the lower
the NAA
Classic Trivia: NAA
peak is super high
with Canavans
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348
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Glutamine -
“GLX”

A

2.2-2.4 Neurotransmitter Increased with Hepatic Encephalopathy

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349
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Creatine - “C r”

A

3.0 Energy

Metabolism Decreased in tumor necrosis.

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350
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Choline - “Co”

A
3.2 Cell Membrane
Turnover
More turnover more Choline
(thus elevated in high grade tumor, demyelination,
inflammation).
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351
Q

MRI Spectroscopy High Yield Pearls

Myoinositol -
“ml”

A
3.5
Cell Volume
Regulator and
Byproduct of
Glucose
Metabolism.
- Elevated in low grade
gliomas.
- Elevated in
Alzheimer’s (decreased
in other dementias)
- Elevated in Progressive
multifocal
leukoencephalopathy
(PML)
- Reduced in high
grade gliomas
- Reduced in Hepatic
Encephalopathy
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352
Q

h is vs THAT: Demyelinating vs Dysmyelinating

A

Demyelinating disease Example = MS Disease that destroys normal myelin

Dysmyelinating disease Example = Mctachromatic leukodystrophy

disease that disruptst he normal formation and turnover of myelin

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353
Q

Leukodystrophy

A

Fucked White Matter in a Kid

Leukodystrophy
(ALD)
“X-Linked

Metachromatic

Alexander Disease

Canavan Disease

Krabbe

Pelizaeus-
Merzbacher

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354
Q

Leukodystrophies & Friends

A

On the prior page, I introduced the vocab work “dysmyelinating” disease. Leukodystrophies are the classic
example o f this group o f pathologies. Technically speaking Leukodystrophies can occur from deficiencies
in lysosomal storage, peroxisomal function, or mitochondrial dysfunction. I’m gonna hit on mitochondrial
diseases separately as they tend to be more asymmetric and favor the grey matter. Where as the classic
forms target the white matter in a more symmetric and extensive manner

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355
Q

Leukodystrophy
(ALD)
“X-Linked

A
Normal
Head
Size
Parieto-occipital
Predominance
“Extends across the
Splenium of the Corpus
Callosum”
Sex-linked recessive
(peroxisomal
enzyme deficiency)
Male Predominant
Can Enhance &
Restrict
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356
Q

Metachromatic

A
Normal
Head
Size
Frontal Predominance
Periventricular and
Deep White Matter -
Tigroid Pattern
(stripes of milder
disease).
Most common
Leukodystrophy.
U-fibers are
relatively spared
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357
Q

Alexander Disease

A
Weird
Bie Head
Frontal
Predominance
Also hits the
cerebellum and
middle cerebellar
peduncles
Can Enhance
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358
Q

Canavan Disease

A
Weird
Bin Head
Diffuse Bilateral
subcortical U fibers.
“Subcortical
Predominance”
Elevated NAA
(MRS).
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359
Q

Krabbe

A
Small
Head
Centrum semiovale and
periventricular white
matter with parietooccipital
predominance
High density foci on
CT (in the thalamus,
caudate, and deep
white matter).
Earlv sparine of the
subcortical U fibers
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360
Q

Pelizaeus-

Merzbacher

A
Normal
Head
Size
Typically diffuse “total lack of normal
myelination” with extension to the subcortical
U fibers.
Patchy variant is also described as “tigroid” -
although that term is more classic for
Metachromatic
No enhancement. No restricted diffusion
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361
Q

Leukodystrophies & Friends continued

A

As discussed on the prior page Leukodystrophies can occur from deficiencies in lysosomal storage,
peroxisomal function, or mitochondrial dysfunction. The classic forms tend to target the white matter in a
more symmetric and extensive manner. This is different than mitochondrial diseases which are more
asymmetric and favor the grey matter. Grey Matter needs more oxygen than White Matter (and White
Matter needs more oxygen than trial lawyers). Inability to process oxygen (mitochondrial dysfunction) -
helps me remember the grey matter > white matter thing.

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362
Q

MELAS

A

Mitochondrial Enccphalomyopathy, Lactic
Acidosis, and Stroke-like episodes. This is a
mitochondrial disorder with lactic acidosis and stroke
like episodes.
Tends to have a parietooccipital distribution

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363
Q

MELAS BUZZWORD(s

A

migrating infarcts

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364
Q

typical MRS pattern for MELAS

A

increased lactate and decreased naa

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365
Q

Leigh Disease

A

Also called Subacute Necrotizing Encephalo-Myelopathy - for the purpose of fucking
with you.
White Matter Distribution: Focal areas of subcortical white matter.
Gray Matter Distribution: Basal ganglia and Periaquaductal Gray

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366
Q

Leigh Disease trivia

A

Head size tends to be normal.

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367
Q

Brain tumors approach

A

The strategy is as
follows; (1) decide if it’s single or multiple, (2) look at the age o f the patient - adults and kids
have different differentials, (3) look at the location - different tumors occur in different spots,
(4) now use the characteristics to separate them. The strategy centers around narrowing the
differential based off age and location till you are only dealing with 3-4 common things, then
using the imaging characteristics to separate them. It’s so much easier to do it that way.

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368
Q

Multiple Masses approach

A

multifocal primary from seeding

mets (50% at solitary)

syndromes (example nf2)

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369
Q

single mass adult approach

A

cortical

intraventricular

cp angle

infratentorial

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370
Q

single mass kid approach

A

supratentorial

skull base/dura

sella/parasella

pineal gland

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371
Q

Before we get rolling, the first thing to do is to ask yourself is this a tumor, or is it a mimic?

A

Mimics would be abscess, infarct, or a big MS plaque. This can be tricky. If you see an
incomplete ring - you should think giant MS plaque. If they show you diffusion, it is either
lymphoma or a stroke (or an abscess) - you’ll need to use enhancement to straighten that out
(remember lymphoma enhances homogeneously).
Yes… GBM can restrict, but for multiple choice it is way more likely to be lymphoma.

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372
Q

intra-Axial” vs “Extra-Axial”

A

The Brant and Helms discussion on brain tumors will have you asking “ intra-axial” vs
“extra-axial” first. This is not always that simple, but it does lend itself very well to
multiple choice test questions (therefore it’s high yield).

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373
Q

Basically yo u need to memorize the “signs o f extra-axial location “

A

• CSF Cleft
Displaced Subarachnoid Vessels
Cortical Gray matter between the mass and white matter
Displaced and expanded Subarachnoid spaces
• Broad Dural Base / Tail
• Bony Reaction

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374
Q

Why Do Things Enhance

A

Understanding the WHY is very helpful for problem solving. Let me first answer the
question “Why D O N ‘T things enhance?” They DON’T enhance because o f the blood brain
barrier. So, when things DO enhance it’s because either:
(a) They are outside the blood brain barrier (they are extra-axial), or
(b) They have melted the blood brain barrier.
In other words, extra axial things (classic example is meningioma) will enhance. High
grade tumors (and infections) enhance. Low grade tumors ju st aren’t nasty enough to
take the blood brain barrier down

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375
Q

Why Do Things Enhance

exceptions

A

Gangliogliomas and Pilocytic Astrocytomas are the exceptions - they are low-grade
tumors, but they enhance.

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376
Q

Multiple Masses

A

In adults or kids, if you see multiple masses you arc dealing with mets (or infection). Differentiating
between mets and infection is gonna be done with diffusion (infection will restrict). If they want you
to decide between those two they must show you the diffusion otherwise only one or the other will be
listed as a choice.

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377
Q

Mets — High Yield Trivia

A

• Most common CNS met in a kid = neuroblastoma (BONES, DURA, ORBIT - not brain)
• Most common location for mets = Supratentorial at the Grey-White Junction (this area has a lot of
blood flow + an abrupt vessel caliber change… so you also see hematogenous infection / septic
emboli go there first too).
• Most common morphology is “round” or “spherical”
• Remember that mets do NOT have to be multiple. In fact, 50% of mets are solitary. In an adult, a
solitary mass is much more likely to be a met than a primary CNS neoplasm.
• MRCT is the mnemonic for bleeding mets (Melanoma. Renal, Carcinoid / Choriocarcinoma,
Thyroid).
• Usually Mets have more surrounding edema than primary neoplasms of similar size.

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378
Q

Mets

gamesmanship

A

“Next Step Gamesmanship ” - Because the most common intra-axial mass in an adult is a met, if
they show you a solitary mass (or multiple masses) and want a next step it’s gonna be go hunting
for the primary (think lung, breast, colon… the common stuff).

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379
Q

Tumors that Like to be Multifocal

A

Mets — you should still think this first when you see multiple tumors
Lymphoma
Multiccntric GBM
Gliomatosis Cerebri

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380
Q

Tumors that are Multifocal from Seeding

A

Mcdulloblastoma
Ependymoma
GBM
Oligodendroglioma

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381
Q

SYNDROMES - Tumors in Syndromes are more likely to be Multifocal

A

NF 1 NF 2 “MSME” Tuberous Sclerosis VHL

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382
Q

NF 1

A

Optic Gliomas

Astrocytomas

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383
Q

NF 2 MSME

A

Multiple Schwannomas
Meningiomas
Ependymomas

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384
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis

A

Subependymal Tubers
IV Giant Cell
Astrocytomas

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385
Q

VHL

A

Hcmangioblastomas

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386
Q

Cortically Based

A

Most intra-axial tumors arc located in the
white matter. So when a tumor spreads to or
is primarily located in the gray matter, you
get a shorter DDx. High yield piece of trivia
regarding the cortical tumor / cortical met is
that they often have very little edema and so
a small cortical met can be occult without IV
contrast.

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387
Q

Cortically Based

ddx

A
P-DOG:
Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma (PXA)
Dysembryoplastic Neuroepithelial Tumor (DNET)
Oligodendroglioma,
Ganglioglioma
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388
Q

PXA (Pleomorphic Xanthroastrocytoma

A

Superficial tumor that is ALWAYS supratentorial and
usually involves the temporal lobe. They are often in
the cyst with a nodule category (50%). There is usually
no pcritumeral T2 signal. The tumor frequently invades
the leptomeninges. Looks just like a Desmoplastic
Infantile Ganglioglioma - but is not in an infant

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389
Q

PXA (Pleomorphic Xanthroastrocytoma

quick

A
PEDS (10-20)
Will Enhance
Dural Tail***
Cyst with Nodule
Temporal Lobe
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390
Q

D N E T (Dysembryoplastic Neuroepithelial Tumor)

A

Kid with drug resistant seizures. The mass will always be in
the temporal lobe (on the test - real life 60% temporal).
Focal cortical dysplasia is seen in 80% of the cases. It is
hypodense on CT, and on MRI there will
be little if any surrounding edema.
High T2 signal “bubbly lesion.”
Bright Rim Sign -

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391
Q

Bright Rim Sign

A

Persistent rim of FLAIR signal
* Looks Similar to T2-FLAIR
Mismatch of Astrocytomas
**discussed later

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392
Q

DNET quick

A
PEDS (< 20)
No enhancement
High T2 Signal
with Bright
FLAIR Rim
“Bubbly”
Temporal Lobe
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393
Q

Oligodendroglioma

A

Remember this is the guy that calcifies 90% of the time. It’s
most common in the frontal lobe and the buzzword is
“expands the cortex”. This takes after its most specific
feature of cortical infiltration and marked thickening. It’s 0
likely you could get asked about this Ip/I9q deletion which I ^
will discuss later when I go into detail about Gliomas

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394
Q

Oligodendroglioma

quick

A
ADULT - (40s-50s)
Can Enhance
Calcification Common
“Expands the Cortex”
Frontal Lobe
1p /19q

ribbon calcifications

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395
Q

Ganglioglioma

A

This guy can occur at any age, anywhere (usually temporal
lobe), and look like anything. However, for the purpose of
multiple choice testing the classic scenario would be a 13
year old with seizures, and a temporal lobe mass that is
cystic and solid with focal calcifications. There may be
overlying bony remodeling.

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396
Q

Ganglioglioma

quick

A
Any Age
Can Enhance
Can look like Anything
Temporal Lobe
Not bubly

Mixed Cystic
& Solid

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397
Q

Ventricular wall and septum pellucidum ddx

A
F.pendvmoma (TEDS)
Medulloblastoma (TEDS)
SEGA (Subependymal
Giant Cell Astrocytoma) =
PEDS
Subependymoma (ADULT)
Central Neurocytoma
(YOUNG ADULT)
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398
Q

choroid plexus ddx

A
Choroid Plexus Papilloma
(PEDS in Trigone)
(ADULT in 4th Vent)
Choroid PlexusCarcinoma (TEDS)
Xanthogranuloma
t “Found“ in ADULTS)
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399
Q

misc intraventricular ddx

A

mets

meningioma

colloid cyst

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400
Q

Ependymoma

overview

A

Bimodal distribution on this one (large peak around 6 years o f age,
tiny peak around 30 years o f age). I would basically think o f this as a PEDS tumor.
They come in two flavors:

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401
Q

Ependymoma

4th ventricle

A

4th Ventricle - which is about 70% o f the time. There is frequent extension into the
foramen o f Luschka and Magendie. They are the so-called “plastic tumor” or
“toothpaste ” tumor because they squeeze out o f the base o f the 4 th ventricle.

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402
Q

Ependymoma

parenchymal supratentorial

A

Parenchymal Supratentorial - which is about 30% o f the time.
These are usually big (> 4cm at presentation).

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403
Q

Medulloblastoma

overview

A

Let us just assume we are talking about the “Classic Medulloblastoma”
which is a type o f PNET. If you want to understand the genetic spectrum o f these things, read
Osborn’s Brain — seriously don’t subject yourself to that.

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404
Q

Medulloblastoma

epidiomology and location

A

This is a pediatric tumor - with most occurring before age 10 (technically there is a second
peak at 20-40 but for the purpose o f multiple choice tests I’m going to ignore it). These guys
are cerebellar arising from vermis / ROOF o f the 4th ventricle - project into 4th ventricle. They
are much more common than their chief differential consideration the Ependymoma (which
originates from the FLOOR o f the 4th ventricle).

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405
Q

Medulloblastoma

classic look

A

The classic look is a dense mass on CT, heterogeneous on T1 and T2, and enhances
homogeneously. They are hypercellular and may restrict. They calcify 20% o f the time (less
than Ependymoma).

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406
Q

Medulloblastoma

mets to

A

This is a tumor that loves to met via CSF pathways — they like to “drop met.” The buzzword is
“zuckerguss” which apparently is German for sugar icing, as seen on post contrast imaging of
the brain and spinal cord (leptomeningeal carcinomatosis). As a point of absolute trivia, they
are associated with Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome and Turcots Syndrome.

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407
Q

Gorlin Syndrome

A

Gorlin Syndrome - If you see a Medulloblastoma next look for dural calcs.
If you see thick dural calcs you might be dealing with this syndrome.
»’v i ‘\ They get basal cell skin cancer after radiation, and have odontogenic cysts.

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408
Q

Medulloblastoma next step

A

Preoperative imaging o f the entire spinal axis should be done in
any child with a posterior fossa neoplasm, especially if Medulloblastoma or
Ependymoma is suspected. Evidence o f tumor spread is a statistically significant
predictor o f outcome.

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409
Q

M e d u llo b la s tom a

quick

A

More common
Originate from Vermis /ROOF o f the 4th Ventricle
Can project into 4th ventricle, do NOT usually
extend into basal cisterns
Enhance Homogeneously
(more so than Ependymoma anyway)
Calcify Less (20%)
Linear “icing-like” enhancement o f the brain
surface is referred to as “Zuckerguss”

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410
Q

Ependymoma

quick

A

Less Common
Originate from the vermis/ floor of the 4th ventricle
Can extend into basal cisterns like tooth
paste pushing though foramina o f
Luschka and Magendie
Enhance Heterogeneously
Calcify More (50%)

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411
Q

Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma (SEGA):

A

This is going to be shown
in the setting o f TS. They will more than likely show you renal AMLs or tell you the kid has
seizures / developmental delay.

Because it’s syndromic, you see it in kids (average age 11).
It will arise from the lateral wall o f the ventricle (near the foramen o f Monro), often causing
hydrocephalus. It enhances homogeneously.

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412
Q

THIS vs THAT: SEGA vs Subependymal Nodule (SEN)

A

The SEN will stay stable in size,
the SEGA will grow. The SEGA is found in the lateral ventricle near the foramen o f
Monroe, the SEN can occur anywhere along the ventricle. SENs are way more common.
Both SEN and SEGA can calcify.

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413
Q

THIS vs THAT: SEGA vs Subependymal Nodule (SEN)

pearl

A

Enhancing, partially calcified lesion at the foramen o f Monro, bigger than 5 mm is a SEGA not a SEN.

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414
Q

Subependymoma

A

Found in ADULTS. Well-circumscribed IV mass most commonly
at the foramen of Monro and the 4th ventricle. They can cause hydrocephalus. They
typically don’t enhance. They are T2 bright (like most tumors).

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415
Q

Central Neurocytoma

A
This is the most common IV
mass in an ADULT aged
20-40. The buzzword is
“swiss cheese,” because o f
the numerous cystic spaces
on T2. They calcify a lot
(almost like
oligodendrogliomas).
Swiss Cheese +
Calcification in the
Ventricle
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416
Q

Choroid Plexus Papilloma / Carcinoma

A

Can occur in peds (85% under the age o f 5) or
adults. They make up about 15% o f brain tumors in kids under one. Basically you are
dealing with an intraventricular mass, which is often making CSF, so it causes
hydrocephalus.

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417
Q

Choroid Plexus Papilloma / Carcinoma

here is the trick

A

Brain tumors are usually supratentorial in adults and posterior fossa
▼ in kids. This tumor is an exception. Remember exceptions to rules are testable.

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418
Q

Choroid Plexus Papilloma / Carcinoma

trivia

A

• In Adults it’s in the 4th Ventricle, in Kids it’s in the lateral ventricle (usually trigone).
• Carcinoma type is ONLY SEEN IN KIDS - and are therefore basically ONLY SEEN IN
LATERAL VENTRICLE / TRIGONE
• Carcinoma association with Li-Fraumeni syndrome (bad p53)
• Angiography may show enlarged choroidal arteries which shunt blood to the tumor,
• Carcinoma type o f this tumor looks very similar (unless it’s invading the parenchyma) and
is almost exclusively seen in kids.
• The tumor is typically solitary but in rare instances you can have CSF dissemination

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419
Q

Xanthogranuloma

A

This is a benign choroid plexus
mass. You see it all the time (7%)
and don’t even notice it.

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420
Q

Xanthogranuloma

trick

A
The trick is that they
restrict on diffusion, so
they are trying to trick you into working them up.
They are benign... leave
them alone.
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421
Q

Intraventricular mets

A

The most common location o f intraventricular metastasis is the trigone o f lateral
ventricles (because o f the vascular supply o f the choroid). The most common primary is
controversial - and either lung or renal. I f forced to pick I’d go Lung because it’s more
common overall. I think all things equal renal goes more - but there are less renal cancers.
It all depends on how the question is worded

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422
Q

Colloid C yst

A

These are found almost
exclusively in the anterior part o f the 3rd
ventricle behind the foramen o f Monro.
They can cause sudden death via acute onset
hydrocephalus.

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423
Q

Colloid C yst

appearance

A

Their appearance is somewhat variable and
depends on what they are made of. If they have
cholesterol they will be T1 bright, T2 dark. If
they do n ’t, they can be T2 bright. The trick is a
round well circumscribed mass in the anterior
3rd ventricle. If shown on CT, it will be pretty
dense.

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424
Q

Colloid C yst

quick

A
  • Anterior 3rd Ventricle

- Hyperdense on CT

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425
Q

Intraventricular meningioa

A

Can occur in an intraventricular location, most commonly (80%) at the
trigone of the lateral ventricles (slightly more on the left). Details on meningiomas are
discussed on the following page.

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426
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

A

Age is actually less o f an issue here because the DDx isn’t that big. Most of these are adult
tumors, but in the setting of NF-2 you could have earlier onset.

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427
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Epidemiology

A

Vestibular Schwannoma is #1 - making up 75% o f the CPA masses, #2 is the
meningioma making up 10%, and the Epidermoid is #3 making up about 5%. The rest are
uncommon.

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428
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Schwannoma (Vestibular)

A

These guys
account for 75% of CPA masses. When they are bilateral
you should immediately think NF-2 (one fo r each side).
Enhances strongly but more heterogeneous than
meningomas. May widen the porus acousticus resulting
in a “trumpet shaped” IAC. “Ice Cream Cone IAC. ”

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429
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Meningioma

A

Second more common CPA
mass. One o f the few brain tumors that is more common
in women. They can calcify, and if you are lucky they
will have a dural tail (which is pretty close to
pathognomonic - with a few rare exceptions). Because
they are extradural they will enhance strongly. Radiation
o f the head is known to cause meningiomas

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430
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Meningioma trivia

A

•Most common location of a meningioma is over the cerebral convexity.
^Meningiomas take up octreotide and Tc-MDP on Nuclear Medicine tests (sneaky).

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431
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)Epidermoid

A

Can be congenital or acquired (after trauma - classically after LP
in the spine). Unlike dermoids they are usually off midlinc.
They will follow CSF density and intensity on CT and MR1
(the exception is this zebra called a “white epidermoid” which is
T1 b r ig h t- just forget I ever mentioned it).

(5%)

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432
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Epidermoid key points

A

(1) Unlike an arachnoid cyst they are bright on FLAIR
(sometimes warm - they don’t completely null), and
(2)They will restrict diffusion.

Epidermoid - Follows CSF
Signal - Restricts Diffusion

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433
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Schwannoma quick

A
Enhance Less
Homogeneously
Invade IAC
IAC can have
“trumpeted”
appearance
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434
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Meningioma quick

A
Enhance
Homogeneously
Don't Usually
Invade IAC
Calcify more
often
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435
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Dermoid C yst

A
This is about 4x
less common than an epidermoid. It’s
more common in kids / young adults.
Usually midline, and usually are
found in the 3rd decade. They contain
lipoid material and are usually
hypodense on CT and very bright on
T l. They are associated with NF2.
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436
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

Dermoid C yst trivia

A

•These are usually midline
• Most common location for a
A dermoid cyst is the suprasellar
4 9 1 1 cistern (posterior fossa is #2)

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437
Q

Cerebellar Pontine Angle (CPA)

The Ruptured Dermoid

A

It is possible for a dermoid cyst to explode
-rare in real life, common on multiple choice.
Sometimes this is after a trauma, but usually
it’s spontaneous. The most common clinical
scenario is “headache and seizure” - which is
pretty much every brain tumor, so that is not
helpful.

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438
Q

The Ruptured Dermoid

buzzword

A

“Chemical Meningitis ”

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439
Q

The Ruptured Dermoid

aunt minnie

A

Fat droplets
(typically shown as low density on CT, or
High Signal on T i l floating in the ventricles
and/or subarachnoid space.

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440
Q

THIS vs THAT: Dermoid vs Epidermoid

A

The easy way to think o f this is that the

Epidermoid behaves like CSF, and the Dermoid behaves like fat.

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441
Q

I AC Lipoma

A

It can occur, and is basically the only reason you get a Tl when you are
working up CPA masses. It will fat sat out - because it’s a lipoma. There is an association
with sensorineural hearing loss, as the vestibulocochlear nerve often courses through it

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442
Q

Arachnoid C yst

A

Common benign lesion that is
located within the subarachnoid space and contains
CSF. They are increased in frequency in
mucopolysaccharidoses (as are perivascular spaces).
They are dark on FLAIR (like CSF), and will NOT
restrict diffusion.

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443
Q

How can yo u tell an epidermoid

from an arachnoid cyst?

A

The epidermoid restricts,

the arachnoid cyst does NOT.

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444
Q

Infratentorial

A

Most are PEDS (Hemangioblastoma is the exception).

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445
Q

Infratentorial

Atypical Teratoma I Rhabdoid Tumor
“AT/RT”

A

Highly malignant tumors (WHO IV), and
rarely occur in patients older than 6 years. The average
age is actually 2 years, but they certainly occur in the
first year of life.
They can occur in supra and infratentorial locations
(most common in the cerebellum). These are usually
large, pissed off looking tumors with necrosis and
heterogeneous enhancement. They believe in nothing
Lebowski. They fuck you up. They take the money

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446
Q

Infratentorial

THIS vs THAT:
AT/RT v s Medulloblastoma

A
Both are WHO Grade 4 destroyers
(AT/RT is worse) that are often seen in the
posterior fossa of a kid.
Technically they are both subtypes of
Medulloblastoma - but that’s the kind of
knowledge that causes you to miss
multiple choice questions. For the
purpose of multiple choice:
• AT/RT is a 2 year old
• Medulloblastoma is a 6 year old
• AT/RT has calcifications
• Medulloblastoma does not
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447
Q

Infratentorial

Medulloblastoma & Ependymoma

A

discussed with intraventricular

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448
Q

Infratentorial

Juvenile Pilocytic Astrocytoma
(JPA):

A

Just think cyst with a nodule in a kid.
They are WHO grade 1, but the nodule will still
enhance. This will be located in the posterior
fossa (or optic chiasm).

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449
Q

Infratentorial

Hemangioblastoma:

A

First things first - immediately think
about this when you see a cyst with a nodule in an ADULT. Then
think Von Hippel Lindau, especially if they are multiple. These
things are slow growing, indolent vascular tumors, that can cause
hydrocephalus from mass effect. 70% of the time you will see flow
voids along the periphery of the cyst. About 90% of the time they
are found in the cerebellum. There is an association with polycythemia

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450
Q

Infratentorial

Ganglioglioma

A

Occurs at any age, anywhere, can look like anything - see cortical lesions

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451
Q

Infratentorial

Diffuse Pontine Glioma (DPG):

A

Seen in kids age 3-10. Most common location is the pons,
which is usually a high grade fibrillary glioma. It’s going to be T2 bright with subtle or no
enhancement. 4th ventricle will be flattened. Imaging features arc so classic that no biopsy is needed

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452
Q

Atypical Teratoma I Rhabdoid Tumor
(“AT/RT”)

buzzword

A

“Increased Head Circum ference ”

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453
Q

Juvenile Pilocytic Astrocytoma
(JPA):

gamesmanship

A

if they don’t tell you the age, you can look for enhancement of the cystic wall which
JPA can have (-50%) but Hemangioblastomas don’t

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454
Q

Pilocytic Astrocytoma quick

A

Cyst + Nodule in Kid

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455
Q

I Say Posterior Fossa Cyst

with a Nodule - PEDS,

A

JPA

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456
Q

I say Posterior Fossa Cyst

with a Nodule - ADULT

A

Hemangioblastoma

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457
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Astrocytomas

A

Most common primary brain tumor in adults. There is a trend towards “genetically
classifying” tumors - this actually changes the way they arc treated and could be the source of trivia.
I’m going to attempt to simply this - because it can get pretty fucking complicated

The new way to think about these things is a spectrum of severity
based on genetic classification - and the treatment and prognosis
follows that.

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458
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Astrocytomas simple terms

A

In the simplest terms, you have the neurons and you have the glial
cells. The glial cells are the “support staff’ — there are lots of them
and lots of different kinds. Astrocytes and Oligocytes share a
common origin (both are support staff - “glial cells”) and have a lot
of similarities. In other words, they are both “Gliomas” and are
going to get lumped together in this discussion.

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459
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Ribbon pattern of
calcification
Classic for

A

Oligodendroglioma

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460
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Astrocytoma

IDH Mutation
(earliest genomic event) yes

A

Yes (10%)

Astrocytoma
Grade 4 -
Glioblastoma
- Younger Patients
-Better prognosis
-Probably
“Secondary GBM”
from progression of
a previous lowergrade
tumor

1p/19qd deletion positive

Oligodendroglioma
Calcification on
preoperative CT is
associated with
codeletion (Ip/I9q)

1p/19qd deletion negative
Astrocytoma
Low Grade

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461
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Astrocytoma

IDH Mutation
(earliest genomic event) no

A

no 990%0

Astrocytoma
Grade 4 -
Glioblastoma
-Older Patients
-The Worst
Prognosis
-Probably
“Primary GBM”
Astrocytoma
Higher Grade
-Grade 2 - Diffuse
-Grade 3 - Anaplastic
T 2 - FLAIR
Mismatch Sign
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462
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Astrocytoma prognosis

A

You probably noticed me using this WHO classification (1-4). All brain tumors are bad, but 4 is the
worst - this is your GBM. On the following page, I’ll get into a few more details on each type but as a
general rule low grade tumors don’t typically enhance (WHO 2) and higher grades do (mild for grade
3, and intense for grade 4 GBM). The exception to this rule is the pilocytic astrocytoma which often
has an enhancing nodule, and the Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytomas which enhances because of
its location (Intraventricular).
GBM is the beast that cannot be stopped. It believes in nothing Lebowski. It grows rapidly, it can
necrose (creating the ring of enhancement, with a non-enhancing central necrotic co re), it can cross
the midline, and it can restrict diffusion. Remember Turcot Syndrome (that GIpolyp thing), and NF
1 are associated with GBMs.

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463
Q

Astrocytoma
Grade 1

Subependymal Giant
Cell Astrocytomas

A
Intraventricular mass
near the foramen of
Monro in a young
patient with tuberous
sclerosis.
-Can cause obstructive
hydrocephalus
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464
Q

Astrocytoma
Grade 1

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

A
- Cyst with nodule in
the posterior fossa of a
kid
Remember these
tumors break the rule -
and enhance despite
being low grade.
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465
Q

Astrocytoma

Grade 2 - Diffuse

A
White Matter is
Preferred
NO ENHANCEMENT
T2 Bright - FLAIR Iso
(mismatch sign)
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466
Q

Astrocytoma

Grade 3 - Anaplastic

A
White Matter is
Preferred
Mild ENHANCEMENT
T2 Bright-FLAIR Iso
(mismatch sign)
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467
Q

Astrocytoma

Grade 4- GBM

A
White Matter is
Preferred - can cross
the midline.
RING ENHANCEMENT
(can also be diffuse
heterogenous
enhancement)
T2 & FLAIR Bright
Central locations (like
the thalamus) are
worse than normal.
NF type 1,
Turcot syndrome, Li Fraumeni syndrome
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468
Q

T2 / FLAIR Mismatch

A

Seen with WHO 2
(diffuse) and 3 (anaplastic) astrocytoma, not
with WHO 1. T2 tumor has high signal with
surrounding vasogenic edema. On FLAIR the
tumor signal become isointense

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469
Q

Siupratentorial adults

Gliomatosis Cerebri

A

A diffuse glioma with extensive infiltration. It involves at least 3 lobes
and is often bilateral. The finding is usually mild blurring of the gray-white differentiation on CT, with
extensive T2 hyperintensity and little mass effect on MR. It’s low grade, so it doesn’t typically
enhance.

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470
Q

Siupratentorial adults

mets

A

The most common supratentorial mass. Just like mets favor the lower lobes in the lungs, the
cerebrum is favored over the cerebellum (it is a blood flow thing). They arc usually multiple, but can
be solitary — some sources say 50% of the time, so don’t be fooled a solitary lesion can totally be a
met. Some other trivia worth knowing — melanoma can be T1 bright even if it doesn’t bleed.
CT-MR is a good way to remember the ones that like to bleed (Choriocarcinoma / Carcinoid, Thyroid,
Melanoma, Renal).

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471
Q

Siupratentorial mets quick adults

A

Irregular
Margin

-Multifocal
(25-50% solitary)
-Favors
Grey-White Junction

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472
Q

Siupratentorial GBM quick adults

A

Spherical

-Solitary
) (25%> multifocal)
-Favors Deep White Matter

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473
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Primary CNS Lymphoma:

A

Seen in end stage AIDS patients, and those post-transplant. EB
virus plays a role. Most common type is Non-Hodgkin B cell.

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474
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

Primary CNS Lymphoma: classic

A

Classic picture would be an intensely enhancing homogeneous solid mass in the periventricular
region, with restricted diffusion. However, it can literally look like and do anything.
Classic Multiple choice test question is that it is Thallium Positive on SPECT
(toxo is not).

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475
Q

Supratentorial - Adults Tumors

I say restricting brain tumor, you say

A

Lymphoma (although GBM can do this also)

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476
Q

THIS vs THAT: P e r iv e n tr icu la r / Ep e n d ym a l E n h a n c em e n t P a tte rn s

A

thin smooth and linear

Ependymitis - £
(Classic Example
= CMV)

thick and irregular

lymphoma (rim phoma)

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477
Q

Supratentorial - Peds Tumors

DNET & PXA (Pleomorphic Xanthroastrocytoma):

A

Discussed under the cortical tumors .

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478
Q

Supratentorial - Peds Tumors

D e smo p la s t ic Infantile Ganglioglioma I As tro cy toma “DIG”:

A

These guys arc large cystic tumors that like to involve the superficial
cerebral cortex and leptomeninges. Unlike the Atypical Teratoma /
Rhabdoid, these have an ok prognosis (WHO 1). They ALWAYS arise in
the supratentorial location, usually involve more than one lobe (frontal
and parietal most commonly), and usually present before the first birthday.

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479
Q

Supratentorial - Peds Tumors

D e smo p la s t ic Infantile Ganglioglioma I As tro cy toma “DIG”: buzzword

A

“rapidly increasing head circumference.”

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480
Q

Skull Base

Chordoma

A

This is a locally aggressive tumor that originates from the notochord.
WTF is the “notochord” ? It’s an embryology thing that is related to spine development.
The thing you need to know is that the notochord is a midlinc structure. Therefore all
Chordomas are midline - either in the clivus, vertebral bodies (especially C2), or Sacrum. You
can NOT get them in the hips, ribs, legs, arms, or any other structure that is not totally midline
along the axis o f the axial skeleton.

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481
Q

Skull Base

Chordoma facts

A

*lt is most common in the sacrum (#2 is the clivus)
*When it involves the spine, it’s most common at C2 - but typically extends across a disc
space to involve the adjacent vertebral body.
.It’S T2 Bright
*Ifs ALWAYS Midline. — it is never in a leg, arm, e tc … ONLY MIDLINE structures.

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482
Q

Ch on d ro sa r coma

skull base

A

This is the main differential o f the chordoma in the clivus. The thing
to know is that it is nearly always lateral to midline (chordoma is midline). These are also T2
bright, but will have the classic “arcs and rings” matrix o f a chondrosarcoma. Obviously you’ll
need a CT to describe that matrix.

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483
Q

Dura

Meningioma

A

As described above, it is common and enhances homogeneously. The most
common location is over the cerebral convexity and it has been known to cause hyperostosis.

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484
Q

Dura

H em an g iop e r ic y toma

A

This is a soft tissue sarcoma that can mimic an aggressive
meningioma because they both enhance homogeneously. They also can mimic a dural tail, with a
narrow base of dural attachment. They won’t calcify or cause hyperostosis , but will invade the
skull.

485
Q

Dura

metd

A

The most common met to the dura is from breast cancer. 80% will be at the gray-white
junction. They will have more edema than a primary tumor o f similar size.

486
Q

Sella I Parasella - Adults

Pituitary Adenoma

A

The most common tumor o f the sella. They are seen 97% o f the
time in adults. If they are greater than 1 cm they are “macroadenomas.” When functional,
most are prolactin secreting (especially in women). Symptoms are easy to pick up in women
(menstrual irregularity, galactorrhea). Men tend to present later because their symptoms are
more vague (decreased libido). On MR, 80% are T1 dark and T2 bright. They take up contrast
more slowly than normal brain parenchyma. Next step = Dynamic contrast enhanced MR.

487
Q

Sella I Parasella - Adults

Pituitary Adenoma thingsj to know

A

• Microadenoma under 10 mm,
• Macroadenoma over 10 mm.
m • Microadenomas typically form in the adenohypophysis (anterior 2/3).
• Prolactinoma is the most common functional type.
• Typically they enhance less than normal pituitary.

488
Q

Sella I Parasella - Adults

Pituitary Apoplexy

A

Hemorrhage or Infarction o f the pituitary, usually into an enlarged
gland (either from pregnancy or a macroadenoma). Here are the multiple choice trivia
association: taking bromocriptine (or other prolactin drugs), “Sheehan Syndrome” in
postpartum woman, Cerebral Angiography. They will be T1 bright (remember adenoma is
usually T1 dark). Supposedly this is an emergent finding because the lack o f hormones can
cause hypotension.

489
Q

Sella I Parasella - Adults

Rathke Cleft Cyst

A

Usually an incidental finding. Rarely symptomatic. The “cleft” is
between the anterior and posterior pituitary. They are variable on T1 and T2, but are usually
very bright on T2. They do NOT enhance

490
Q

Sella I Parasella - Adults

Epidermoid

A

Discussed on page 80. Remember these guys restrict diffusion.
I say “Midline Suprasellar Mass that Restricts Diffusion ”, You say Epidermoid.

491
Q

Sella I Parasella - Adults

Craniopharyngioma

A

They come in two flavors: (a) Papillary - 10% and (b)
Adamantinomatous - 90%. The Papillary type is the adult type (Papi for Pappi). They are solid
and do not have calcifications. They recur less frequently than the Adamantinomatous form
(because they are encapsulated). They strongly enhance. The relationship to the optic chiasm is
key for surgery. These things occur along the infundibulum. Pediatric type is discussed below
(under on the next page with the peds tumors).

492
Q

Sella I Parasella - Peds

Craniopharyngioma

A

As stated above, they
come in two flavors: (a) Papillary and
(b) Adamantinomatous. The kid type is the
Adamantinomatous form. These guys are calcified
(papillary is not). These guys recur more (Papillary
does less - because it has a capsule).

493
Q

Sella I Parasella - Peds

Craniopharyngioma buzzword

A

“machinery oil. “

494
Q

Sella I Parasella - Peds

Craniopharyngioma imaging

A
  • Tl Bright
  • T2 Bright
  • CT / GRE = Calcifications
  • Enhance Strongly (in the solid parts)
495
Q

Sella I Parasella - Peds

Hypo tha lamic Hamar toma

A

A classic Aunt
Minnie. This is a hamartoma o f the tuber cinereum (part
o f the hypothalamus located between the mammillary
bodies and the optic chiasm). The location is the key

496
Q

Sella I Parasella - Peds

imaging

A

Tl Iso
T2 Iso
Do NOT enhance.

497
Q

Sella I Parasella - Peds

Hypo tha lamic Hamar toma classic history

A

The Classic History is Gelastic Seizures

although precocious puberty’ is actually more common

498
Q

Pineal Region

A

There are 3 main characters here, all o f which can present

with “vertical gaze palsy” (dorsal Parinaud syndrome).

499
Q

Pineal Region

G e rm in om a :

A

The most common o f the 3, and seen
almost exclusively in boys (Germinomas in the suprasellar
region are usually in girls). Precocious puberty may occur
from secretion o f hCG. Characteristic findings are a mass
containing fat and calcification with variable contrast
enhancement. It is heterogeneous on T1 and T2 (because
o f its mixed components).

500
Q

Pineal Region

G e rm in om a : quick

A

“Engulfed” Calcification Pattern

501
Q

Pineal Region

P in eo b la s tom a

A

Does occur in childhood. Unlike the
pineocytoma, these guys are highly invasive. Some people
like to think o f these as PNETs in the pineal gland. They
are associated with retinoblastoma (“trilateral” ). They”
are heterogeneous and enhance vividly.

502
Q

Pineal Region

Pineoblastoma & Pineocytoma quick

A

“Expanded’’ Calcification Pattern

503
Q

Pineal Region

P in eo c y tom a

A

Rare in childhood. Well-circumscribed,
and non-invasive. Tend to be more solid, and the solid
components do typically enhance.

504
Q

Pineal Region

P in e a l Cys t

A

An incidental findings that is
meaningless… although frequently obsessed over. They can
have thin enhancement. Calcifications occur in 25%.

505
Q

Pineal Region

P in e a l Cys t quick

A

Classically— looks like a cyst

506
Q

A Few Extra Tips op Characterization

“Restriction”

A

If they show a supratentorial case with restriction it’s likely to be one o f two things
(1) Abscess or (2) Lymphoma. Technically any hypercellular tumor can restrict
(GBM & Medulloblastoma), but lymphoma is the one they classically show restricting.
If it’s a CP angle case, then it’s an Epidermoid.
Lastly, a dirty move could be to show Herpes encephalitis restricting in the temporal horns.

507
Q

A Few Extra Tips op Characterization

“Midline Crossing”

A

If they show it crossing the midline, it’s most likely going to be a GBM or Lymphoma.
Alternative sneaky things they could show doing this would be radiation necrosis, a big
MS plaque in the coipus callosum, or Meningioma o f the falx simulating a midline cross.

508
Q

A Few Extra Tips op Characterization

“Calcification”

A

If they show it in the brain it is probably an Oligodendroglioma. The trick is that
Oligodendrogliomas calcify 90% o f the time by CT (and 100% by histopathology),
whereas astrocytomas only calcify 20% o f the time. But astrocytoma is very common and
oligodendroglioma is not. So in other words, in real life it’s probably still an astrocytoma.

509
Q

A Few Extra Tips op Characterization

“T1 Bright”

A

Most tumors are T l dark (or intermediate).
Exceptions might include a tumor that has bled
(Pituitary apoplexy or hemorrhagic mets).
Hemorrhagic mets are classically seen on MR and
CT (Melanoma, Renal, Carcinoid /
Choriocarcinoma, Thyroid). Tumors with fat will
also be Tl bright (Lipoma, Dermoid). Melanin is
Tl bright (Melanoma). Lastly think about
cholesterol in a colloid cyst.

510
Q

A Few Extra Tips op Characterization

“T1 Bright” quick

A

Fat: Dermoid, Lipoma
Melanin: Melanoma
Blood: Bleeding Met or Tumor
Cholesterol: Colloid Cyst

511
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

NF-1

A

Optic Nerve Gliomas

512
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

NF-2

A

MSME: Multiple Schwannomas, Meningiomas, Ependymomas

513
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

VHL

A

Hemangioblastoma (brain and retina)

514
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

TS

A

Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma, Cortical Tubers

515
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

Nevoid Basal Cell
Syndrome (Gorlin)

A

Medulloblastoma

516
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

Turcot

A

GBM, Medulloblastoma, Intestinal Polyposis

517
Q

Special Topics - Syndromes

Cowdens- “COLD”

A

Lhermitte-Duclos (Dysplastic Cerebellar Gangliocytoma)

518
Q

MSME

A

If you see tumors EVERYWHERE then you are
dealing with NF-2. Ironically there are no
neurofibromas in neurofibromatosis type 2 (obviously
that would make a great distractor).
Just remember MSME
Multiple Schwannomas,
Meningiomas.
Ependymomas

519
Q

L h e rm itte -D u c lo s (Dysplastic Cerebellar Gangliocytoma)

A

This thing is very uncommon, but when you see it you need to have the following thoughts:
- Hey! That is Lhermittc Dulcos….
- I guess she has Cowdcns syndrome….
- I guess she has breast CA
Next Step? - Mammogram
The appearance is classic, with a “tiger stripe” mass, typically
contained in one cerebellar hemisphere (occasionally crosses
the vermis). It’s not a “cancer”, but actually a hamartoma -
which makes sense since Cowdens is a hamartoma syndrome.

520
Q

Brain Tumors - MRS Pearls

A

As cell walls get broken down NAA (a maker for neuronal viability) will go down,
Creatine (marker for cellular metabolism) will go down, and Choline (a maker for cell
membrane turnover) will go up. This is why the ratios o f NAA/Cho, Cho/Cr and NAA/Cr
get throw around.

521
Q

Brain Tumors - MRS Pearls

Other relevant marker changes:

A

• Lactate may go up. You see this in the scenario o f a high grade tumor outgrowing its
blood supply and changing over to anaerobic pathways.
• Lipids may go up. You see this in the scenario o f a necrotic tumor. Lipids are associated
with necrosis.
• Alanine - is associated with meningiomas.
• NAA - This is a glioma maker. Non gliomas tend to have little or no NAA.

522
Q

Brain Tumors - MRS Pearls

um o r Grade:

A
Higher Grade Tumors will
have more cellular
destruction, inflammation,
and more ischemia /
necrosis.
Higher Grade Will Have:
Less NAA
Less Creatine
More Lactate
More Choline
More Lipids
Relative to a lower grade
tumor.
523
Q

Brain Tumors - MRS Pearls

R e c u rre n t T um o r vs
R ad ia tio n N e c ro s is

A
Recurrent Tumor: Rising
choline infers that cell walls
are being turned over
(something is growing).
Mo Choline, Mo Problems
Radiation Necrosis: When
you think necrosis you should
think elevated lipids (found in
necrotic tissue) and elevated
lactate. You could also reason
that NAA, Creatinine, and
Choline (makers o f cell
integrity, metabolism, and
turnover) would also be low -
if the tissue in that region was
fried like chicken (or bananas
- if you enjoy denying your
true nature as the apex
predator)
524
Q

Brain Tumors - MRS Pearls

GBM vs Met:

A
Both can look gnarly on
conventional MR (big
enhancing tumor).
The GBM is classically
underestimated on brain MRI
(if you are ju st looking at the
solid enhancing tumor). The
surround T2 edema often
contains infiltrative mircotumor.
By using a multiple
voxel analysis (looking at the
tumor, and also surrounding
tissue) MRS supposedly adds
value (allegedly).
For the puipose o f multiple
choice, elevated Choline in
the T2 signal surrounding the
tumor = infiltrating glioma
(rather than a met)
525
Q

Brain Tumors - MRS Pearls

Voxel Selection

A

It is important to choose an area o f interest with enhancing tumor (avoid
cystic parts o f the tumor, calcifications, blood, or frank necrosis).

526
Q

Neonatal Infections

A

Wc are talking about TORCH infections. The first critical thing is that they only really matter in
the first two trimesters (doesn’t cause as much harm in the third trimester). Calcifications and
microcephaly are basically present in all o f them.

527
Q

Neonatal Infections

CMV Trivia

A
Most Common
TORCH
(3x more
common than
Toxo - which is
the second
most common).
528
Q

Neonatal Infections

CMV Classic Look

A

It prefers to target the germinal matrix
resulting in periventricular tissue necrosis.
The result is the most likely test question =
Periventricular calcifications.
Of the TORCHs CMV has the highest
association with polymicrogyria.

529
Q

Neonatal Infections

CMV Highest Yield Trivia

A
Most Common
TORCH
Periventricular
Calcifications
Polymicrogyria
530
Q

Neonatal Infections

Toxoplasmosis Trivia

A

This is the
second most
common
TORCH.

531
Q

Neonatal Infections

Toxoplasmosis Classic Look

A

The calcification pattern is more random,
and targets the basal ganglia (like most
other TORCH infections).
The frequency is increased in the 3rd
trimester (but only causes a problem in the
first two).
Associated with Hydrocephalus

532
Q

Neonatal Infections

Toxoplasmosis Highest Yield Trivia

A

Hydrocephalus,
Basal Ganglia
Calcifications

533
Q

Neonatal Infections

Rubella Trivia

A

Less common
because of
vaccines

534
Q

Neonatal Infections

Rubella Classic Look

A
Calcifications are less common than in
other TORCHs.
Focal high T2 signal might be seen in
white matter (related to vasculopathy and
ischemic injury).
535
Q

Neonatal Infections

Rubella Highest Yield Trivia

A

Ischemia.
High T2 signal
Fewer
Calcifications

536
Q

Neonatal Infections

HSV Trivia

A

It’s HSV-2 in

90% of cases

537
Q

Neonatal Infections

HSV Classic Look

A

Unlike adults, the virus does not primarily
target the limbic system but instead prefers
the endothelial cells resulting in thrombus
and hemorrhagic infarction with
resulting encephalomalacia and atrophy

538
Q

Neonatal Infections

HSV Highest Yield Trivia

A
Hemorrhagic
Infarct, with
resulting Bad
Encephalomalacia
(Hydranencephaly)
539
Q

Neonatal Infections

HIV Trivia

A
Not a TORCH
but does occur
during
pregnancy, at
delivery, or via
breast feeding.
540
Q

Neonatal Infections

HIV Classic Look

A
You may have faint basal ganglia
enhancement seen on CT and MRI
preceding the appearance of basal ganglia
calcification.
Brain atrophy pattern favors the Frontal
Lobes
541
Q

Neonatal Infections

HIV Highest Yield Trivia

A

Brain Atrophy,
predominantly in
the Frontal Lobes

542
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

A

The most common opportunistic infection in patients with AIDS is
toxo. The most common fungal infection (in people with AIDS) is .
Cryptococcus. Two other infections worth talking about are JC .
Virus, and CMV.

543
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

Gamesmanship

A

nipple rings = aids

from south africa = aids

544
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

HIV Encephalitis

A
The encephalitis that people
with AIDS get. This is
actually pretty common and
affects about 50% of AIDS
patients.

We are talking about a
situation with a CD4 < 200.

These tend to spare the
subcortical U-Fibers (PML
will involve them).

545
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

HIV Encephalitis imaging

A
Symmetric increased T2 /
FLAIR signal in the deep
white matter.
T1 will be normal.
The lesions will not enhance.
There may be associated brain
atrophy.
546
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

Progressive Multifoca l Leukoencephalopathy (PML):

A

Caused by the JC virus. We are talking about a
situation with a CD4 < 50

Will involve
subcortical U-fibers

547
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

Progressive Multifoca l Leukoencephalopathy (PML): imaging

A
CT will show single or
multiple scattered
Hypodensitics, with
corresponding T1
hypointensity (remember
HIV was T1 normal),
T2/FLAIR hyperintensities
out of proportion to mass
effect - buzzword
548
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

C M V

A

Think about brain atrophy, periventricular
hypodensities (that are T2/FLAIR bright), and thin
ependymal enhancement

549
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

C ry p to co c cu s

A

The most common fungal infection in AIDS. The most common
presentation is meningitis that involves the base o f the brain (leptomeningeal enhancement).
The most likely way this will be shown on a multiple choice exam is dilated perivascular
spaces filled with mucoid gelatinous crap (these will not enhance). The second most likely
way this will be shown is lesions in the basal ganglia “cryptococcomas” - these are T1 dark,
T2 bright, and may ring enhance.

550
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Ependymal cells are the cells that line
the ventricles and central portion o f
the spinal cord.

551
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

toxo

A

Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS. Classically we are talking about T1
dark, T2 bright, ring enhancing (when larger than 1 cm) lesions. These guys will NOT show
restricted diffusion. Just think “ ring enhancing lesion, with LOTS o f edema

552
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

toxo high yeild trivia

A

Toxo is Thallium Cold, and Lymphoma is Thallium hot

553
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed

imaging

A

Tl+C Ring Enhancing T2 Lots of Edema DWI: NO Restriction

554
Q

WTF ?!
i thought abscesses
restrict diffusion

A
Typical they do.
However, atypical
infections like Toxo or
fungal don’t always
follow this rule
555
Q

THIS vs THAT

toxo and lymphoma

A
toxo:
Ring Enhancing
Hemorrhage more common after treatment
Thallium Cold
PET Cold (acts like necrosis) 
MR Perfusion: Decreased CBV
Lymphoma:
Ring Enhancing
Hemorrhage less common after treatment
Thallium HOT
PET Hot (acts like a tumor)
MR Perfusion: Increased (or Decreased) CBV
556
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed quick

AIDS
Encephalitis

A

Symmetric T2
Bright

Spare U Fibers

557
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed quick

PML

A

Asymmetric T2
Bright

t1 daark

involve u fibers

558
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed quick

CMV

A

periventricular t2 birght

thin pendymal nhancement

559
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed quick

toxo

A

ring enhancement plus lots of edema

no restricted diffusion

thallium cold

560
Q

Infections of the Immunosuppressed quick

cryptoccis

A

dilated perivascular spaces

basila meningitis

561
Q

TB M en in g itis

A

Has a predilection for the basal cisterns
(enhancement o f the basilar meninges
with minimal nodularity).
May have dystrophic calcifications.
Enhancement o f the Basilar Meninges + Hydrocephalus = TB
*Sarcoid can have a nearly identical appearance.
If it looks like TB - but that isn ’t a choice, it’s probably Sarcoid

562
Q

TB M en in g itis

complications

A

Complications include vasculitis which may
result in infarct (more common in children).
Obstructive hydrocephalus is common

563
Q

HSV - “Herpes” or “The Dirty Herp

A
HSV 1 in adults and HSV 2 in neonates.
I mention that because
(1) It seems like testable trivia and
(2) They actually have different imaging
appearances (as previously
mentioned, type 1 prefers the limbic
system).
564
Q

HSV - “Herpes” or “The Dirty Herp

imaging

A
Earliest Sign = Restricted Diffusion -
related to vasogenic edema.
This could be tested by asking
“What sequence is more sensitive? ”,
with the answer being that diffusion is
more sensitive than T2.
Blooming on gradient means it’s bleeding
(common in adults, rare in neonate form).
565
Q

HSV - “Herpes” or “The Dirty Herp

THIS vs THAT:

A

HSV spares the
basal ganglia
(distinguishes it
from MCA stroke).

566
Q

HSV - “Herpes” or “The Dirty Herp”

quick

A
For the purpose of
a multiple choice
test think swollen
T2 bright
(unilateral or
bilateral) medial
temporal lobe.
567
Q

Lim b ic E n c e p h a litis :

A
Not an infection, but a commonly tested mimic.
It is a paraneoplastic syndrome (usually
small cell lung cancer), that looks very
similar to HSV.
This could be asked by showing a classic
HSV image, but then saying the HSV titer
is negative. The second order question
would be to ask for lung cancer screening.
568
Q

W e s t Nile

A

Several viruses characteristically involve the
basal ganglia (Japanese Encephalitis, Murray
Valley Fever, West Nile…), the only one
realistically testable is West Nile

569
Q

W e s t Nile

classic look

A

Classic Look: T2 bright basal ganglia and
thalamus, with corresponding restricted
diffusion. Hemorrhage is sometimes seen.

570
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

A

The imaging features arc variable
and can be unilateral, bilateral,
symmetric, or asymmetric

571
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

random facts

A
- Characteristic look on EEG
the “periodic sharp wave ”
(whatever the fuck that is).
- “ 14-3-3” protein assay is a
CSF test neurologists order.
572
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

3 types

A
  • Sporadic (80-90%),
  • Variant “Mad Cow” (rare)
  • Familial (10%).
573
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

dwi

A
DWI Cortical Gyriform
Restricted Diffusion-
Supposedly diffusion is the most
sensitive sign. & the cortex is the most
common early site of manifestation.
Basal Ganglia may also be involved
574
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

hockey stick sign

A
  • Bilateral FLAIR bright dorsal
    medial thalamus
  • Described in the variant
    subtype.
575
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

pulvinar sign

A
  • Bilateral FLAIR bright
    pulvinar thalamic nuclei
    (posterior thalamus).
  • Classic in the variant subtype
576
Q

CJD: C re u tz fe ld t-J a k o b D is e a s e

another way to show

A

Another way to show this (which would be more work for the test writer - and is therefore less
likely) would be a series of MRs or CTs showing rapidly progressive atrophy.

577
Q

N e u ro c y s tic e rc o s is

A

Caused by eating pig shit (or undercooked pork).
The bug is tinea solium (pork tapeworm).
Trivia: Involvement of the basal cisterns carries the
worst outcome.

578
Q

N e u ro c y s tic e rc o s is

Most common locations (in descending order):

A

1- Subarachnoid over the cerebral hemispheres,
2- Basal cisterns,
3- Brain parenchyma,
4- Ventricles

579
Q

N e u ro c y s tic e rc o s is

stage 1

A

Stage I: Vesicular
Cyst + Scolex
No Enhancement

580
Q

N e u ro c y s tic e rc o s is

stage 2

A

Stage 2: Colloidal
CT: Hyperdense Cyst
MR: Edema + Enhancement

581
Q

N e u ro c y s tic e rc o s is

stage 3

A
Stage 3: Granular
CT: Early Calcification
MR: Smaller Cysts,
Less Edema,
Less Enhancement
582
Q

N e u ro c y s tic e rc o s is

stage 4

A
Stage 4: Calcified /
Involution
CT: Calcification
MR: Blooming on SWI
(T2* etc..)
583
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

A

You can think of meningitis in 4 main categories:
bacterial (acute pyogenic), viral (lymphocytic), chronic
(TB or Fungal), and non-infectious (sarcoid).

584
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

vocab

A

Leptomeningeal: Pial +Arachnoid
Pachymeningcal: Dural

585
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

Complications include

A
Venous thrombosis,
Vasospasm (leading to the stroke),
Empyema,
Ventriculitis,
Hydrocephalus,
Abscess
586
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

lumpy and thicker

A

Fungal and Carcinomatous
meningitis tend to be “more lumpy”
and “thicker”

587
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

essentially

A
Essentially, we
are talking
about thick
leptomeningeal
enhancement, in
the appropriate
clinical setting
This pattern
can be seen
with Bacterial
Meningitis or
Carcinomatous
Meningitis
588
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

Leptomeningeal (Pia-Arachnoid)
Enhancement

A

Fills the subarachnoid

spaces & extends into the sulci & cisterns

589
Q

M e n in g itis and C e re b ra l A b s c es s

trivia

A

A very testable piece of trivia is that infants will often get
sterile reactive subdurals (much less common in adults).

590
Q

Abscess Facts (trivia)

A
  • DW1 - Restricts
  • MRS - Lactate High
  • FDG PET - Increased Metabolic
591
Q

a ch ym e n in g e a l (D u ra l) E n h a n c em e n t

A

Key Feature: Enhancement does NOT extend into the sulci
Seen this with lots of stuff: Intracranial Hypotension, Dural attachment of
a Meningioma , Sarcoid, TB, Wegener’s , Fugal Infections.
Both Breast and Prostate Cancer can deposit a solitary dural met.
Secondary CNS Lymphoma is often extra-axial and can be dural based or
fill the subarachnoid space ( “Rim Phoma ”)

592
Q

Empyema

A

Can be subdural or epidural (just like blood).
Follows the same rules as far as crossing dural
attachments (epidurals don’t) and crossing the
falx (subdurals don’t).
Subdurals are more common and have more
complications relative to epidurals.
The vast majority of subdurals are the sequela of
frontal sinusitis. The same is true of epidurals
with some sources claiming 2/3 of epidurals are
secondary to sinusitis.

593
Q

empyema classic look

A

T1 bright and restrict diffusion.

594
Q

Tl+C

Subdural Empyema

A

Dural Enhancement

595
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Abscess

A

A cerebral abscess is a cavity that contains pus, debris, and necrotic tissue. These can
develop secondary to to bacterial, fungal, or parasitic infection - most commonly via
hematogenous spread. For the purpose of multiple choice, remember to think about right-to-left
shunts and pulmonary AVMs. Direct spread (example = sinus) is possible, but just less common
because of the dura.

596
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Abscess ct

A
Focal area of
low density with
surrounding low
density vasogenic
edema.
597
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Abscess t1+c

A

Smooth Ring
Enhancement with
Multiple Lesions -
Suggests Abscesses

598
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Abscess t2

A

Multiple Lesions
with Vasogenic Edema
— this is nonspecific
(could be mets)

599
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Abscess DWI

A
Typical Abscess
(bacteria) will restrict.
Remember Atypical
(Toxo etc..) doesn’t
always restrict
600
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Cerebritis

A

is the early form of intra-axial
infection, which can lead to Abscess if not
treated. The typical look is the vasogenic
edema without the well defined central
enhancing lesion. There may be spotty
restricted diffusion.

601
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Ventriculitis

A

Usually the result of a shunt
placement or intrathecal chemo - as discussed
on page 51. The ventricle will enhance and you
can sometimes see ventricular fluid-fluid levels
If septa start to develop you can end up with
obstructive patterns of hydrocephalus.
The intraventricular extension of abscess is a
very serious / ominous “pre-terminal event

602
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Multiple Rings Mets vs Abscess

A

The smooth margin suggests Abscess, but
doesn’t exclude mets. The difference is that
tumor usually starts out as a solid enhancing
mass then becomes ring enhancing with
necrosis. Also, Abscesses tend to be smaller
(usually less than 10mm).

603
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Smooth Ring =

A

Abscess

Abscess Rings tend to be
thicker on the “Oxygen
Side” or "Grey Matter
Side" of the Brain - and
thinner towards the
ventricle.
604
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Irregular Ring

A

tumor

“Bumpy” or “Shaggy”
inner lip of the ring is
supposed to suggest
necrosis

605
Q

Intraaxial Infections

Both Tumor & Abscess will have

A

vasogenic edema

606
Q

MRl Gamesmanship - Enhancement Patterns

A

In general, to solve MR puzzles you will need to be able to work through some MR sequences.
The trick is to have a list o f things that are T1 bright, T2 bright, Restrict diffusion, and Enhance.
Plus you should know the basic enhancement patterns (homogenous, heterogenous, ring, and
incomplete ring).

607
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

T2

A

For the most part, T2 is not super helpful for lesion characterization
- as stroke, tumors, abscess, MS, all have edema.

608
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

DWI

A

This is helpful only if they follow the classic rules. Out o f those 4 (stroke, tumors, abscess,
MS) the classical diffusion restrictors are: Abscess, and Stroke. Certain hypercellular tumors
(classically lymphoma) can restrict, and demyelinating lesions with acute features can restrict

609
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

Enchancement

A

In this situation this is probably the most helpful.
Out o f those 4 (Tumor, Abscess. MS, and Stroke) each should have a different pattern.
• Tumor usually heterogeneous or homogenous if high
grade (or none if low grade). Technically ring
enhancement can also be seen with Gliomas, and Mets
(though I expect this is less likely to be shown on multiple
choice).
• Abscess will classically have RING pattern.
• MS will classically have an INCOMPLETE RING pattern.
• Stroke will have cortical ribbon (GYRIFORM) type
enhancement in the sub-acute time period (around 1
week).

610
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

Enchancement

how many rings

A

The number of rings can be a
helpful strategy. A single ring is more likely to be tumor
(around half of mets and 3/4
of gliomas are solitary).

Abscess and MS Lesions are
almost always (like 75-85%)
multiple.

611
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

Enchancement

heterogenous

A

-Most likely Tumor

higher grade

612
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

Enchancement

ring

A

-Can be lots of
stuff: Abscess and
Tumor are both
prime suspects

613
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

Enchancement

incomplete ring

A

-Can be lots of
stuff: Abscess and
Tumor are both
prime suspects

614
Q

STROKE vs TUMOR vs ABSCESS vs MS Plaque

Enchancement

gyriform

A
-Classic for
subacute stroke
(can also be seen
with P R E S or
encephalopathy /
encephalitis)
615
Q

Parenchymal Contusion

A

The rough part of the skull base ean scrape the brain as it slides
around in a high speed MVA. Typical locations include the anterior temporal lobes and inferior frontal
lobes. The concept of coup (site of direct injury) and contre-coup (opposite side of brain along vector
of force). Contusion can look like blood with associated edema in the expected regions.

616
Q

Diffuse Axonal Injury/Shear Injury

A

There are multiple theories on why this happens
(different density of white and gray matter etc…) they don’t matter for practical purposes or for
multiple choice.

617
Q

Diffuse Axonal Injury/Shear Injury

Things Worth Knowing

A

• Initial Head CT is often normal
• Favorite sites of DAI are the posterior corpus callosum, and
GM-WM junction in the frontal and temporal lobes
• Multiple small T2 bright foci on MRI

618
Q

Diffuse Axonal Injury/Shear Injury

DAI Grading

A

Grade 1 = Grey-White Interface
Grade 2 = Corpus Callosum
Grade 3 = Brainstem

619
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Trauma is the most common cause. FLAIR is the most

sensitive sequence. This is discussed in more later in the chapter.

620
Q

THIS vs THAT: Subdural v s Epidural

Epidura l

A

Classic History:
Trauma Patient - with a
skull fracture

“Bi-convex” or
Lenticular

can cross micline

cannot cross a suture

usually arterial

can rapidly expand kill you

621
Q

THIS vs THAT: Subdural v s Epidural

Sub dural

A
Classic History: Elderly alcoholic with
a shriveled up atrophic brain spent the
evening with a bottle of
“Rotgut - Hobo Tranquilizer” brand
whiskey, then fell over stretching &
tearing his cortical bridging veins.
A week later he seems to be acting
progressively more confused.

“Bi-concave”

Does not cross the midline, may extend
into interhemispheric fissure

Can cross a suture

Usually venous

More mass effect than expected for size

622
Q

Subdural quick

A
- Crescent
Shape
-No Respect
For the
Sutures
623
Q

epidural quick

A
- Lentiform
Shape
-Skull
Fracture
-Respect for
the Sutures
624
Q

How Old is that Blood

CT

A

This is an extremely high yield topic. Maybe the most high yield topic in all o f neuro,
with regard to multiple choice. The question can be asked with CT or MRI (MRI more
likely). If they do ask the question with CT it’s most likely to be the subacute subdural that is
isointense to brain, with loss o f sulci along the margins. They could also show the “swirl
sign” - see below.

625
Q

Blood on CT

Flyperacute Acute (< 1 hour)

A

Hypodense

626
Q

Blood on CT

Acute (1 hour - 3 days)

A

Hypodense

627
Q

Blood on CT

Subacute (4 days - 3 weeks)

A

Progressively less dense, eventually becoming
isodense to brain. Peripheral rim enhancement
may occur with contrast.

628
Q

Blood on CT

Chronic (> 3 weeks)

A

Hypodense

629
Q

Sw irl Sign

A

This is an ominous sign o f active
bleeding. The central low attenuation blood
represents hyper-acute non-clotted blood, with
surrounding acute clotted blood.

630
Q

Blood Age V ia MR

A

MRI is more difficult to remember. Some people use the mnemonic “IB, ID, BD, BB, DD” or “ It Be Iddy Biddy, BaBy, Doo-Doo” which I find very irritating. I prefer mnemonics that employ known words (just my opinion). Another one with actual words is “George Washington Bridge” For T1 (Gray, White, Black), and Oreo Cookie for T2 (Black, White, Black).

631
Q

Blood Age V ia MR (c o n tin u e d ):

A

Another strategy (which is somewhat unconventional) is to actually try and understand the
MRI changes (I strongly discourage this). If you insist on trying to understand this I have a 40
min lecture on TitanRadiology.com explaining it (this lecture is also free on my YouTube
Channel — google “Prometheus Lionhart Blood Age”).

632
Q

Blood Age V ia MR

Hyperacute

A

24 hours
Oxyhemoglobin, Intracellular

T l- Iso, T2 Bright

633
Q

Blood Age V ia MR

acute

A

1 -3 days

Deoxyhemoglobin, Intracellular

T1 - Iso, T2 Dark

634
Q

Blood Age V ia MR

Early Subacute

A

> 3 days

Methemoglobin, Intracellular

Tl Bright, T2 Dark

635
Q

Blood Age V ia MR

Late Subacute

A

> 7 days

Methemoglobin, Extracellular

Tl Bright, T2 Bright

636
Q

Blood Age V ia MR

Chronic

A

> 14 days

Ferritin and Hemosiderin, Extracellular

T1/T2 Dark Peripherally,
Center may be T2 bright

637
Q

Atraumatic Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Yes, the most common cause is trauma. A common point
o f trivia is that the most sensitive sequence on MRI for
acute SAH is FLAIR (because it wo n ’t suppress out -
making it hyperintense). Be aware that supplemental
oxygen (usually 50-100%) can give you a fake out that
looks like SAH on FLAIR.

638
Q

Sequela of SAH

A

(1) Hydrocephalus - Early
(2) Vasospasm - 7-10 days
(3) Superficial Siderosis - Late

639
Q

When the blood is real, in the absence o f trauma, there are a few other things to think about

A

Aneurysm

Benign Non-Aneurysm Perimesencephalic hemorrhage

Superficial Siderosis

640
Q

Benign Non-Aneurysm Perimesencephalic hemorrhage

A

This is a well described entity (although not well
understood). This is NOT associated with aneurysm
(usually - 95%), and may be associated with a venous
bleed. *You have to prove that - you need a negative CTA.
The location o f the blood - around the midbrain and pons
without extension into the lateral Sylvian cisterns or
interhemispheric fissures is classic. Just think anterior to
the brainstem. Re-bleeding and ischemia are rare- and
they do extremely well

641
Q

Superficial Siderosis

A
This
is a si^e effect o f repeated
episodes o f SAH. I like to
think about this as “staining
the surface o f the brain with
hemosiderin. ” The classic
look is curvilinear low
signal on gradient coating
the surface of the brain.
The classic history is
sensorineural hearing loss
and ataxia.
642
Q

P s eu d o -S u b a ra ch n o id H em o rrh a g e

A

This is a described mimic of SAH that is seen in
the setting of diffuse cerebral edema (most
commonly anoxic brain injury). Near
drowning, or suicide attempt by hanging would
be classic clinical vignettes

643
Q

P s eu d o -S u b a ra ch n o id H em o rrh a g e

qwhat youre actually seeing

A

What you are seeing is actually two things at
once. (1) You are seeing diffuse edema which
lowers the attenuation of the brain (makes it
darker). (2) You are seeing compression and
collapse of the sub arachnoid spaces which
gives them a hyper dense appearance. The
combination of these factors gives the
suggestions of hyper density in the cerebral
sulci, fissures, and cisterns which can mimic
SAH (hence the name).

644
Q

THIS vs THAT: Pseudo SAH vs Real SAH

A

If they give you history that should help (anoxic brain
injury vs headache / trauma). The absence of any intraventricular bleeding can suggest pseudo SAH.
Lastly density of the Pseudo SAH will be less than 40. Acute blood tends to be around 60-70 HU.

645
Q

Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage

A

Hypertensive Hemorrhage
Amyloid Angiopathy
Septic Emboli
Other Random Causes

646
Q

Hypertensive Hemorrhage

A

Common locations arc the basal ganglia, pons, and cerebellum.
For the purpose of multiple choice tests, the basal ganglia is the most common location
(specifically the putamen). You typically have intraventricular extension of blood.

647
Q

Amyloid Angiopathy

A

History of an old dialysis patient (or some other history to think
Amyloid). The classic look is multiple lobes at different ages with scattered microbleeds on
gradient.

648
Q

Septic Emboli

A

These are seen in certain clinical scenarios (IV drug user, organ transplant,
cyanotic heart disease, AIDS patients, people with lung AVMs). The classic look is
numerous small foci of restricted diffusion. Septic emboli to the brain result in abscess
and mycotic aneurysms (most commonly in the distal MCAs), The location favors the
gray-white interface and the basal ganglia. There will be surrounding edema around the tiny
abscesses. The classic scenario should be parenchymal bleed in a patient with infection.

649
Q

Other Random Causes of intraparenchymal hemorrhage

A

These would include AVMs, vasculitis, brain tumors (primary and
mets) - these are discussed in greater detail in various sections of the text

650
Q

Intraventricular Hemorrhage

A

Not as exciting. Just think about trauma, tumor, hypertension, AVMs, and aneurysms - all
the usual players.

651
Q

Epidural I Subdural Hemorrhage

A

Obviously these are usually post-traumatic.
Dural AVFs and High Flow AVMs can bleed causing subdurals / subarachnoid hemorrhage.
These are discussed further later in the chapter.

652
Q

Stroke

A

Stroke is a high yield topic. You can broadly categorize stroke into ischemic (80%) and
hemorrhagic (20%). It’s critical to remember that stroke is a clinical diagnosis and that imaging
findings compliment the diagnosis (and help exclude clinical mimic o f stroke - tumor etc..).

653
Q

Stroke

Vascular Territories

A

Below is a diagram showing the various vascular territories. The junction
between these zones is sometimes referred to as a “watershed’. These areas are prone to ischemic
injury, especially in the setting o f hypotension or low oxygen states (near drowning or Roger
Gracie’s mounted cross choke or a Marcello Garcia high elbow guillotine).

aca
mca
pca
lenticulostriate
anterior choroidal
654
Q

Watershed Ischemia

A
favors the border
zones o f different vascular territories (just
like the bowel).
Border Zone
Between AC A
and MCA
The classic clinical scenario for watershed
infarcts would be severe hypotension
(shock / CPR / E tc ..), severe carotid
stenosis, or a 2009 IBFFJ worlds match
up with Roger Gracic.

looks up borders betweent he aca, mca, and pca

655
Q

Watershed Ischemia

gamesmanship

A

Watershed Infarcts
in a Kid = Moyamoya (Idiopathic
supraclinoid ICA vasculo-occlusive
disease)

656
Q

Subacute Infarct

A

Unique that it Enhances but creates NO Mass Effect

657
Q

Stroke Imaging S ign s on CT

A
Dense MCA Sign
Insular Ribbon Sign
Loss of GM-WM
differentiation
Mass Effect
Enhancement
658
Q

Stroke Imaging S ign s on CT

Dense MCA SigDn

A

Intraluminal thrombus is dense, usually in the M1 and/or M2 segments

659
Q

Stroke Imaging S ign s on CT

Insular Ribbon Sign

A

Loss of normal high density insular cortex from cytotoxic edema

660
Q

Stroke Imaging S ign s on CT

Loss of GM-WM
differentiation

A

Basal Ganglia / Internal Capsular Region and Subcortical regions

661
Q

Stroke Imaging S ign s on CT

Mass Effect

A

Peaks at 3-5 days

662
Q

Stroke Imaging S ign s on CT

Enhancement

A

Rule of 3s: Starts in 3 days, peaks in 3 weeks, gone by 3 months.

663
Q

Fogging

A

This is a phase in the evolution of stroke when the infarcted
brain looks like normal tissue. This is seen around 2-3 weeks
post infarct, as the edema improves.

664
Q

“Fogging” is classically

described with

A
non-contrast CT,
but T2 MRI sequences have a
similar effect (typically
occurring around day 10). In the
real world, you could give IV
contrast to demarcate the area of
infarct or just understand that
fogging occurs.
665
Q

Artery of Percheron Stroke

A

Classic V Shaped bilateral infarct o f the paramedian thalami.
This can only occur in the setting of the Artery o f Percheron
vascular variant. This variant is characterized by a solitary trunk
originating from one of the two PCAs to feed the rostral midbrain
and both thalami (normally there are several bilateral paramedic
arteries originating from the PCAs).

666
Q

Recurrent Artery of

Heubner Stroke

A
Classic Caudate Infarct
The Artery of H is a deep branch off
the proximal AC A
This thing can get “bagged” during the
clipping of ACOM artery aneurysm.
667
Q

Cardioembolic Stroke:Cardioembolic Stroke:

A
This has the classic pattern of
multiple foci of restricted diffusion
scattered bilaterally along multiple
vascular territories.
The clinical history is usually A-Fib or
endocarditis.
668
Q

Fetal PCOM Stroke Pattern

A
This pattern demonstrates infarcts
in both the anterior and posterior
circulation of the same
hemisphere.
This pattern is possible as the
variant anatomy with the PCA
feeds primarily from the ICA.
669
Q

Not Everything That Restricts

is a Stroke

A

Bacterial Abscess, CJD (cortical), Herpes,
Epidermoids, Hypercellular Brain Tumors
(Classic is lymphoma), Acute MS lesions,
Oxyhemoglobin, and Post Ictal States. Also
artifacts (susceptibility and T2 shine through).

670
Q

stroke restricted diffusion

A

Acute infarcts usually arc bright from about 30
mins after the stroke to about 2 weeks.
Restricted diffusion without bright signal on
FLAIR should make you think
hyperacute (< 6 hours).

671
Q

Stroke enhancement

A

The rule of 3’s is still useful. Starts day 3, peaks ~ 3 weeks, gone by 3 months

672
Q

Stroke enhancement

Diffusion
0-6 hours 6-24 hours 24 hours -1 week

A

Bright Bright Bright

673
Q

Stroke enhancement

FLAIR
0-6 hours 6-24 hours 24 hours -1 week

A

NOT BRIGHT Bright Bright

674
Q

Stroke enhancement

T1
0-6 hours 6-24 hours 24 hours -1 week

A

Iso Dark Dark, with Bright Cortical Necrosis

675
Q

Stroke enhancement

T2
0-6 hours 6-24 hours 24 hours -1 week

A

Iso Bright Bright

676
Q

H em o rrh a g ic T ra n s fo rm a tio n :

A

This occurs in about 50% of infarcts, with the typical time period
between 6 hours and 4 days. If you got TPA it’s usually within 24
hours of treatment.
People break these into (1) tiny specs in the gray matter called
“petechial” which is the majority (90%) and (2) full on hematoma
- about 10%.

677
Q

H em o rrh a g ic T ra n s fo rm a tio n

Who gets it

A

People on anticoagulation, people who get TPA,
people with embolic strokes (especially large ones), people with
venous infarcts.

678
Q

Venous Infarct

A

Not all infarcts are arterial, you can also stroke secondary to venous occlusion (usually the sequelae
of dural venous sinus thrombosis or deep cerebral vein thrombosis). In general, venous infarcts arc at
higher risk for hemorrhagic transformation. In little babies think dehydration, in older children think
about mastoiditis, in adults think about coagulopathies (protein C & S dcf) and oral contraceptives.
The most common site of thrombosis is the superior sagittal sinus, with associated infarct occurring
75% of the time

679
Q

Venous thrombosis signs

A

Venous thrombosis can present as a dense sinus (on non-contrast CT) or “empty delta” (on contrast
enhanced CT). Venous infarcts tend to have heterogeneous restricted diffusion. Venous thrombosis
can result in vasogenic edema that eventually progresses to stroke and cytotoxic edema.

680
Q

Arterial stroke

A

Cytotoxic Edema

681
Q

Venous Stroke

A

Vasogenic Edema + Cytotoxic Edema

682
Q

Stigmata of chronic venous thrombosis

A

the development of a dural AVF, and/or

increased CSF pressure from impaired drainage.

683
Q

ASPECTS

A

Alberta Stroke Program Earty CT Score)

684
Q

ASPECTS

overview

A

This was developed to give “providers” a more specific guideline for giving TPA - as an
alternative to the previous 1/3 vascular territory rule. The idea being that the greater the vascular
territory involved, the worse the clinical outcome (post TPA bleed etc..).
The way this works is that you start out with 10 points, and lose points based on findings of acute
cytotoxic ischemia to various locations (example: minus 1 for caudate, or lentiform nucleus, or
insular ribbon, etc.. etc.. so on and so forth).

685
Q

ASPECTS

testable pearls

A

• This is for MCA ONLY (not other vascular territories)
• This is for ACUTE ischemia (don’t subtract points for chronic lacunar infarcts etc..)
• A score of 8 or greater has a better chance of a good outcome (score of 7 or less may
contraindicate TPA — depending on the institutional policy.

686
Q

CT Perfusion - Crash Course

A

After an arterial occlusion perfusion pressure is going to be rapidly reduced. Millions of neurons will
suddenly cry out in terror then suddenly silenced, unless they are lucky to have arteriolar dilation with
capillary recruitment to bring in as much blood to that area of brain as possible. This process is called
physiologic auto-regulation and should result in an increase in capillary blood pool. The key point is
that you need live neurons (penumbra) to cry out for help. If they cry out and are suddenly silenced
(infarct core) you won’t see any auto regulation attempts. This physiology makes up the basis of
perfusion for stroke.

687
Q

CT Perfusion - Crash Course

parameters

A

• Cerebral Blood Flow (CBF): Represents instantaneous capillary flow in tissue.
• Cerebral Blood Volume (CBV): Describes the blood volume of the cerebral capillaries and venules
per cerebral tissue volume.
• Mean Transit Time (MIT) = CBV divided by CBF ; it is the average length of time a certain
volume of blood is present in the capillary circulation.
• Time to Peak (TTP): This is the opposite of CBF. Less flow = Longer Time to reach maximum
concentration of contrast.

688
Q

The primary role of perfusion is to distinguish between

A
salvagable brain (penumbra), and dead brain.
The penumbra may benefit from therapy. The dead brain will not- "He s Dead Jim ’’ - Dr. McCoy
689
Q

Peniumbra

A

decreased CBF, increased CBV, increased MTT

690
Q

Infarct core

A

Decreased CBF (alot), Decreased CBV

691
Q

Aneurysm

Who gets them

A

People who smoke, people with
polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders
(Marfans, Ehlers-Danlos), aortic coarctation, NF, FMD,
and AVMs.

692
Q

Aneurysm

Where do they occur

A

They occur at branch points (why
do persistent trigeminals get more aneurysms ? -
because they have more branch points). They favor the
anterior circulation (90%) - with the anterior
communicating artery being the most common site.
As a piece of random trivia, the basilar is the most
common posterior circulation location (PICA origin is
the second most common).

693
Q

Aneurysm

When do they rupture

A

Rupture risk is increased with
size, a posterior location, history of prior SAH, smoking
history, and female gender.

694
Q

Aneurysm

Which one did it

A

A common dilemma is SAFI in the
setting of multiple aneurysms. The things that can help
you are location of the SAH/Clot, location of the
vasospasm, size, and which one is the most irregular
Focal out-pouching - “Murphy s tit ”)

695
Q

Dolichoectasia of the

Basilar Artery

A
This refers to a widened elongated
twisty appearance of the basilar
artery. This is probably the result
of chronic hypertension (abnormal
vessel remodeling).
The height of the bifurcation and
the more lateral the position of the
vessel (relative to the clivus) the
more severe - so says the Smoker
criteria.
696
Q

Dolichoectasia of the
Basilar Artery

complications

A

Complications include: nothing
(most have no symptoms),
dissection, compression of cranial
nerves (hcmi-facial spasm), stroke

697
Q

Aneurysm locations

A

ACA~ 35%

M1/M2
Junction
~ 30%

ICA / PComm Junction ~ 30%

Basilar Tip ~ 3%

PICA - 2%

698
Q

Saccular (Berry):

A
The most common type and the
most common cause o f nontraumatic
SAH. They are commonly
seen at bifurcations.
The underlying pathology may be a
congenital deficiency o f the internal
elastic lamina and tunica media
(at branch points).
Remember that most are idiopathic
(with the associations listed above).
They arc multiple 15-20% o f the
time.
699
Q

Fusiform Aneurysm

A

Associated with PAN,
Connective Tissue Disorders, or Syphilis. These
more commonly affect the posterior circulation.
May mimic a CPA mass

700
Q

Pseudoaneurysm

A

Think about this with an
irregular (often saccular) arterial out-pouching
at a strange / atypical location. You may see
focal hematoma next to the vessel on noncontrast.

701
Q

Pseudoaneurysm

traumatic

A

Often distal secondary to

penetrating trauma or adjacent fracture.

702
Q

Pseudoaneurysm

mycotic

A
Often distal (most commonly in the
MCA), with the associated history of
endocarditis, meningitis, or thrombophlebitis
703
Q

Blister Aneurysm

A

This is a sneaky little dude
(the angio is often negative). It’s broad-based
at a non-branch point (supraclinoid ICA is the
most common site).

704
Q

Infundibular Widening

A

Not a true
aneurysm, but instead a funnel-shaped
enlargement at the origin o f the Posterior
Communicating Artery at the junction with the
ICA. Thing to know is “not greater than 3
mm. ”

705
Q

AVM A s s o c ia te d

P e d ic le A n eu ry sm :

A

Aneurysm associated with an AVM.
The trivia to know is that it’s found on the
artery feeding the AVM (15% of the time).
These may be higher risk to bleed than the
AVM itself (because they are high flow).

706
Q

Aneurysm Rupture Trivia:

A
• Aneurysm > 10mm have a 1% risk of
rupture per year.
• Although controversial, 7 mm is often
thrown around as a treatment threshold
for anterior circulation aneurysms
• In general, posterior circulation
aneurysms have a higher rate of
rupture per mm in size.
707
Q

A neury sm S u b typ es S um m a ry

A

Saccular Branch Points - in the
(Berry) Anterior Circulation

Fusiform Posterior Circulation

Pedicle
Aneurysm
Artery feeding the AVM

Mycotic Distal MCAs

Blister Broad Based Non-Branch
Aneurysm Point (Supraclinoid ICA)
708
Q

M a x im um B le ed in g

- A n e u ry sm L o c a tio n

A

ACOM Interhemispheric Fissure
PCOM Ipsilateral Basal Cistern

MCA trifurcation
Sylvian fissure

Basilar tip intrapeduncular cistern or intraventricular

PICA
Posterior Fossa or
Intraventricular

709
Q

H i g h F l o w

A VM

A

• Most Common Most Common Type of High Flow
• Congenital malformation
• Supratentorial location (Usually)
• Most common complication = bleeding (3% annual)
• Risk increased with: Smaller AVMs (they are under
higher pressure), Small Draining Veins (can’t reduce
pressure), Perinidal Aneurysm, and Basal Ganglia
location
. Symptoms: Headache (#1), Seizure (#2)

710
Q

H i g h F l o w
A VM

imaging

A

Arterial Component
Nidus
Draining veins

Adjacent brain may
be gliotic (T2 bright)
and atrophic.

711
Q

Dural AVF

A

• Flow Rate is Variable (can be high or low flow)
• SPINAL AVFs are actually the most common type of
AVFs - a helpful hint is the classic clinical history of
“gradual onset LE weakness”
• Risk of Bleeding - increased with direct cortical venous
drainage.
• These aren’t congenital (like AVMs) but instead are
acquired — classically from dural sinus thrombosis
• Symptoms: Tinnitus — especially if the sigmoid sinus
is involved

712
Q

Dural AVF

imaging

A
• No Nidus
• Can be occult on
MR1/MRA - need
catheter angio if
suspicion high
713
Q

DVA

A

• Variation in normal venous drainage
• Resection is a bad idea = venous infarct
• Associated with cavernous malformations.
• They almost never bleed in isolation. If you see
evidence of prior bleeding (blooming on gradient) there
is probably an associated cavernoma.

714
Q

DVA

Imaging

A
• “Caput medusa” or
“large tree with
multiple small
branches” -
collection of vessels
converging towards
an enlarged vein
(seen on venous
phase only).
• Can have a halo of
T2 bright gliosis
715
Q

Cavernous
Malformation
(cavernoma, or
cavernous angioma)

A

• Low Flow - WITHOUT intervening normal tissue
• Can be induced from radiotherapy
• Can ooze some blood, but typically don’t have full-on
catastrophic bleeds. Presence of a “fluid-fluid” level
suggests recent intralesional hemorrhage
• Single or multiple (more common in Hispanics).
• Classic gamesmanship is to show you a nearby DVA

716
Q

Cavernous
Malformation
(cavernoma, or
cavernous angioma)

imaging

A

Popcorn like with “Peripheral Rim of
Hemosiderin.”

Best seen on
gradient

717
Q

Capillary

Telangiectasia

A

• Low Flow - WITH intervening normal tissue
• Can also be radiation induced
• Usually don’t bleed (thought of as an incidental
finding)
• Classic Look = Single lesion in the Pons

718
Q

Capillary
Telangiectasia

imaging

A
• Brush-like” or
“Stippled pattern”
of enhancement
• Best seen on
gradient (slow flow
and
deoxyhemoglobin)
719
Q

Mixed vascular malformations

A

• Wastebasket term, most often used for DVA with AV

shunting or DVAs with telangiectasias

720
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Pineal Gland

A
  • Common in adults, Rare in kids. If you see
    calcification in a kid under 7, it could suggest underlying neoplasm.
    —Germinoma = “Engulfed” Pattern “ 1”
    —Pineoblastoma & Pineocvtoma: “Expanded” Pattern “2”
721
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Habenular

A

Curvilinear structure (solid white arrow) located a few
millimeters anterior to the pineal body (open arrow). About 1 in 5
normal adults will have calcification here. The trivia is an increased
association with schizophrenia

722
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Choroid plexus

A

Common in adults. Remember there is no choroid
plexus in the frontal/occipital horn of the lateral ventricles or the
cerebral aqueduct.

723
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Dural Calcifications

A

Common in adults. If the calcs are bulky and
there are a bunch of tooth cysts (Odontogenic keratocysts) think Gorlin
Syndrome.

724
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Basal Ganglia

A

Very common with age, favors the globus pallidus. If

extensive & symmetrical think Fahr disease

725
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Tuberous Sclerosis

A

Calcifications of the subependymal
nodules are pathognomonic typically found at the
caudothalamic groove and atrium. You can see calcified
subcortical tubers - more typical in older patients.

726
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Sturge-Weber

A

Tram
track / double-lined
gyriform pattern parallel to
the cerebral folds.
Tuberous Sclerosis - Calcifications of the subependymal
nodules are pathognomonic typically found at the
caudothalamic groove and atrium. You can see calcified
subcortical tubers - more typical in older patients.
Etiology = subcortical
ischemia secondary to pial
angiomatosis.

727
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Congenital CMV

A

Periventricular calcifications.

Can also have brain atrophy

728
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Congenital Toxo

A

Basal Ganglia Calcifications +

Hydrocephalus,

729
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Neurocysticercos

A

Etiology: Eating Mexican pork
sandwiches -end-stage will have scattered quiescent
calcified cyst remnants.

730
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary
Cavernoma
Cavernoma

A

scattered
dots or stippled
“popcorn” calcification

731
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

AVM

A

calcifications in
the tortuous veins or the
nidus

732
Q

Calcification Rapid Review I Summary

Brain Tumors can calcify. The ones most people talk about are

A

Old Elephants Age Gracefully
O: Oligodendroglioma - variable, but “ribbon” pattern is most commoon
E: Ependymoma (Medulloblastomas can also calcify - just less often)
A: Astrocytoma
G: Glioblastoma - mural calcified nodule
Even though more Oligodendrogliomas calcify, Astrocytoma is still the
most common calcified tumor (because there are alot more of them).
Craniopharyngioma, Meningioma, Choroid plexus tumors are all known
to calcify as well. Osteosarcoma mets famously calcify.

733
Q

Vasospasm

A

Vessels do not like to be bathed in blood (SAH), it makes them freak out (spasm). The
classic timing for this is 4-14 days after SAH (NOT immediately). It usually looks like
smooth, long segments o f stenosis. It typically involves multiple vascular territories. It can
lead to stroke.

734
Q

Vasospasm

Who gets it?

A

It’s usually in patients with SAH and the more volume o f SAH the greater the
risk. In 1980 some neurosurgeon came up with this thing called the Fisher Score, which
grades vasospasm risk. The gist o f it is greater than 1 mm in thickness or intraventricular /
parenchymal extension is at higher risk

735
Q

Vasospasm

Are there Non-SAH causes o f vasospasm?

A

Yep. Meningitis, PRES, and Migraine Headache.

736
Q

Vasospasm

A

Vasospasm is a delayed side effect o f SAH. It does NOT occur
immediately after a bleed. You see it 4-14 days after SAH.

737
Q

“Crescent Sign”oi Dissection

A
  • it’s the T1 bright intramural blood.
738
Q

Vascular Dissection

A

Vascular dissection can occur from a variety
o f etiologies (usually penetrating trauma, or a
trip to the chiropractor). /
Penetrating trauma tends to favor the
carotids, and blunt trauma tends to favor the * * mm
vertebrals.
This would be way too easy to show on CT
as a flap, so if it’s shown it’s much more •
likely to be the T1 bright “crescent sign”, or
intramural hematoma.

739
Q

Vasculitis

A
You can have a variety o f causes o f CNS vasculitis. One way to think about it is by clumping
it into (a) Primary CNS vasculitis, (b) Secondary CNS vasculitis from infection, or sarcoid,
(c) systemic vasculitis with CNS involvement, and (d) CNS vasculitis from a systemic  disease
They all pretty much look the same with multiple segmental areas o f vessel narrowing, with
alternating dilation (“beaded appearance"). You can have focal areas o f vascular occlusion
740
Q

PAN is the Most Common systemic vasculitis to involve

A

the CNS

741
Q

SLE is the Most Common

A

Collagen Vascular Disease

742
Q

Primary CNS Vasculitis

A

Primary Angiitis o f the CNS (PACNS)

743
Q

Secondary CNS vasculitis

from infection, or sarcoid

A

Meningitis (bacterial, TB, Fungal),

Septic, Embolus, Sarcoid,

744
Q

Systemic vasculitis with
CNS involvement
CNS vasculitis from

A

PAN, Temporal Arteritis, Wegeners, Takayasu’s,

745
Q

CNS vasculitis from a

Systemic Disease

A

Cocaine Use, RA, SLE, Lyme’s

746
Q

Moyamoya

A

This poorly understood entity (originally described in Japan - hence the name),
is characterized by progressive non-atherosclerotic stenosis o f the supraclinoid ICA, eventually
leading to occlusion. The progressive stenosis results in an enlargement o f the basal
perforating arteries.

747
Q

Moyamoya

trivia

A

Buzzword = “P u ff o f Smoke ” - for angiographic appearance
Watershed Distribution
In a child think sickle cell
Other notable associations include: NF, prior radiation, Downs syndrome
Bi-Modal Age Distribution (early childhood and middle age)
Children Stroke, Adults Bleed

748
Q

Crossed C e re b e lla r D ia s ch is is (CCD

A

Depressed blood flow and metabolism affecting the cerebellar hemisphere after a
contralateral supratentorial insult (infarct, tumor resection, radiation).
Creates an Aunt Minnie Appearance

749
Q

Crossed C e re b e lla r D ia s ch is is (CCD

mechanism/gamesmanship

A

When I was a medical student, I
had to memorize a bunch o f tiny little tracks and pathways all over
the brain, cerebellum, and spine. It (like many things in medical
school) made me super angry because it was such a colossal waste
o f time. More PhD bullshit, lumped right in with those step 1
‘‘what chromosome is that on ? ” questions.

750
Q

Crossed C e re b e lla r D ia s ch is is (CCD

corticopontine-cerebellar pathway

A

Redemption for the PhDs has arrived. Apparently, one o f these
pathways, the “corticopontine-cerebellar pathway,” is actually
important. S orta….
Allegedly, this pathway connects one cerebral hemisphere to the
opposite cerebellar hemisphere. If the pathway gets disrupted (by
tumor, radiation, e tc …), then metabolism shuts down in the
opposite cerebellum even though there is nothing structurally
wrong with it. That is why you get this criss-crossed hypometabolic
appearance on FDG-PET.
The trick is to show you the FDG-PET picture, and try and get
you to say there is a pathology in the cerebellum. There isn ’t! The
cerebellum is normal - the problem is in the opposite cerebrum
where the pathway starts.

751
Q

NASCET Criteria

A

The North American
Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy Trial
(NASCET) criteria, are used for carotid
stenosis.
The rule is: measure the degree o f stenosis
using the maximum internal carotid artery
stenosis ( “A ”) compared to a parallel (noncurved)
segment o f the distal cervical
internal carotid artery (“B ”).
You then use the formula:
[1- A/B] X 100% = % stenosis
Carotid endarterectomy (CEA) is often performed
for symptomatic patients with > 50% stenosis.

752
Q

LeFort Fracture

Buzzwords 1

A

“The Palate
Separated from the Maxilla”
or “Floating Palate

753
Q

LeFort Fracture

Buzzwords 2

A

2:“The Maxilla
Separated from the Face” or
“Pyramidal”

754
Q

LeFort Fracture

Buzzwords 3

A

“The Face
Separated from the
Cranium”

755
Q

LeFort Fracture

E s s en tia l E lem en ts

A

All three fracture types share the pterygoid process fracture. If the
pterygoid process is not involved, you do n ’t have a LeFort. Each has a unique feature (which
lends itself easily to multiple choice).

756
Q

LeFort Fracture

E s s en tia l E lem en ts 1

A
  • LeFort 1: Lateral Nasal Aperture
757
Q

LeFort Fracture

E s s en tia l E lem en ts 2

A
  • LeFort 2: Inferior Orbital Rim and Orbital Floor
758
Q

LeFort Fracture

E s s en tia l E lem en ts 3

A
  • LeFort 3: Zygomatic Arch and Lateral Orbital Rim/Wall
759
Q

M u co c e le

A

If you have a fracture that disrupts the frontal sinus outflow tract (usually
nasal-orbital-ethmoid types) you can develop adhesions, which obstruct the sinus and result
in mucocele development. The buzzword is “airless, expanded sinus.” They are usually Tl
bright, with a thin rim o f enhancement (tumors more often have solid enhancement). The
frontal sinus is the most common location - occurring secondary to trauma (as described
above).

760
Q

CSF L e ak

A

Fractures o f the facial bones, sinus walls, and anterior skull base can all lead
to CSF leak. The most common fracture site to result in a CSF leak is the anterior skull base.
“Recurrent bacterial meningitis ” is a known association with CSF leak.

761
Q

T bone fractures

A

The traditional way to classify these is longitudinal and transverse, and this is almost
certainly how the questions will be written. In the real world that system is old and
worthless, as most fractures are complex with components o f both. The real predictive
finding o f value is violation o f the otic capsule - as described in more modern papers

762
Q

T bone fractures

longitudinal

A
Long Axis of T-Bone
More Common
More Ossicular Dislocation
Less Facial Nerve Damage (around 20%)
More Conductive Hearing Loss
763
Q

T bone fractures

transverse

A
Short Axis of T-Bone
Less Common
More Vascular Injury (Carotid / Jugular)
More Facial Nerve Damage (>30%)
More Sensorineural hearing Loss
764
Q

Th in g s to K n ow A b o u t F a c ia l F ra c tu re s

A

• Nasal Bone is the most common fracture
• Zygomaticomaxillary Complex Fracture (Tripod) is the most common fracture
pattern, and involves the zygoma, inferior orbit, and lateral orbit.
• Le-Fort Fractures are both a stupid and a high yield topic in facial trauma - for
multiple choice. Floating Palate = 1, Pyramidal = 2, Separated Face = 3
• Transverse vs Longitudinal Temporal Bone Fractures - this classification system
is stupid and outdated since most are mixed and otic capsule violation is a way
better predictive factor… but this is still extremely high yield

765
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

A

It would be very easy to get completely carried away with this anatomy and spend the next
20 pages talking about all the little bumps and variants. I’m gonna resist that urge and instead
try and give you some basic framework. Then as we go through the various pathologies I ’ll
try and give “normal” anatomy comparisons and point out some landmarks that are relevant
for pathology. Additionally, I’m gonna do a full anatomy T-Bone talk for RadiologyRonin
this year - so if your really want to understand this deeper, that might be helpful

766
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

A

At the most basic level you can think about 3

general locations: External, Middle, and Inner

767
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

The External car

A
is everything superficial to the
ear drum (tympanic membrane).
768
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

The Inner ear is everything

A

deep to the medial

wall of the tympanic cavity.

769
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

The Middle ear is

A

is everything in-between

770
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

The Epitympanum

A

also called “the attic” is

basically everything above the tip of the scutum

771
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

The Hypotympanum

A

is everything below the
tympanic membrane. This is where the
Eustachian tube arises.

772
Q

TEMPORAL BONE

anatomy

The Mesotympanum

A

The Mesotympanum is everything in-between

or everything directly behind the ear drum

773
Q

The scutum

A

is a “shield” like osseous spur formed
via the lateral wall of the tympanic cavity. This anatomic
land mark is often brought up with discussion of the
erosion pattern of Cholesteatomas.

774
Q

Cholesteatoma

A

The simple way to think about this is “a bunch o f exfoliated skin
debris growing in the wrong place.” It creates a big inflammation ball which wrecks the
temporal bone and the ossicles.
There are two parts to the ear drum, a flimsy whimpy part “Pars
Flaccida” , and a tougher part “Pars Tensa.” The flimsy flaccida
is at the top, and the tensa is at the bottom.
If you “acquire” a hole with some
inflammation / infection involving the Pars
Flaccida you can end up with this ball o f
epithelial crap growing and causing
inflammation in the wrong place.

775
Q

Cholesteatoma

dwi

A

restrict

776
Q

Cholesteatoma

Pars Flaccida Type

A

Acquired Types are more common - typically involving
the pars flaccida. They grow into Prussak’s Space

The Scutum is eroded early (maybe first)- considered
a very specific sign o f acquired cholesteatoma

The Malleus head is displaced medially

The long process o f the incus is the most common
segment o f the ossicular chain to be eroded.

Fistula to the semi-circular canal most commonly
involves the lateral segment

777
Q

Cholesteatoma

Pars Tensa Type:

A
•The inner ear structures are
involved earlier and more
often
•This is less common than
the Flaccida Type
778
Q

P ru s s a k ’s S p a c e and S cu tum Erosion

A

The membrane is usually too thin to see, but it’s right around
there. Remember the flimsy Flacida is at the top and the
thicker Tensa is at the bottom.
There are two white arrows here.
The top arrow is pointing to a space between an ossicle
(incus) and the lateral temporal bone. This is called
“Prussak’s space” and is the most common location of
a Pars Flacida Cholesteatoma. Remember the incus was
the most common ossicle eroded.
The bottom arrow is pointing to a bony shield shaped
bone - “the scutum” which will be the first bone eroded
by a pars flaccida.

779
Q

L a b y rin th in e F is tu la (p e rilym p h a tic fis tula

A

This is a potential complication o f
cholesteatoma (or other things - iatrogenic,
trauma, e tc …). What we are talking about here
is a bony defect creating an abnormal
communication between the normally fluid
filled inner ear and normally air filled tympanic
cavity. In the case o f cholesteatoma, the
lateral semicircular canal (arrows) is most
often involved.

780
Q

L a b y rin th in e F is tu la (p e rilym p h a tic fis tula

classic history

A

The classic clinical history is “sudden fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo.’

781
Q

L a b y rin th in e F is tu la (p e rilym p h a tic fis tu

CT

A
On CT, you want to see the soft
tissue density o f the cholesteatoma
eating through the otic capsule into
the semicircular canal. The
presence o f air in the semicircular
canal (pneumolabyrinth) is
definitive evidence o f a fistula
(although it’s not often seen in the
real world).
782
Q

Otitis Media (OM)

A

This is a common childhood disease with effusion and infection of the
middle ear. It’s more common in children and patients with Down Syndrome because of a more
horizontal configuration of the Eustachian tube. It’s defined as chronic if you have fluid persisting for
more than six weeks.
It can look a lot like a cholesteatoma (soft tissue density in the middle cart

783
Q

Complications of OM

Coalescent
Mastoiditis

A

Erosion of the mastoid septae with or

without intramastoid abscess

784
Q

Complications of OM

Facial Nerve
Palsy

A
Secondary to inflammation of the
tympanic segment (more on this later in
the chapter).
Adjacent inflammation may cause
thrombophlebitis or thrombosis of the
sinus. This in itself can lead to
complications:
785
Q

Complications of OM

Dural Sinus
Thrombosis

A
Venous Infarct:
This can occur
secondary to
dural sinus
thrombosis
Otitic
Hydrocephal us:
Lateral sinus
thrombosis can
alter resorption of
CSF and lead to
hydrocephalus
786
Q

Complications of OM

Meningitis,
and
Labyrinthitis

A

it can happen

787
Q

L a b y rin th itis O s s ific a n s

A

• Gamesmanship - “history o f childhood meningitis. ”
• You see it in kids (ages 2-18 months).
• Classic Appearance on CT - Ossification o f the
membranous labyrinth.
• They present with sensorineural hearing loss.
• Calcification in the cochlea is often considered a
contraindication for cochlear implant.

788
Q

WTF is a “membranous labyrinth ” ?

A
The world “Labyrinth” most commonly
refers to the timeless 1986 science
fiction adventure staring
David Bowie as Jareth the Mother
Fucking Goblin King.
Another less popular use o f the word
“Labyrinth” is the anatomical blanket
term encompassing the Vestibule,
Cochlea, and Semicircular Canals.
Under the umbrella o f the “Labyrinth”
you can have the bony portion (the
series o f canals tunneled out o f the tbone),
and the membraneous portion
(which is basically the soft tissue lining
inside the bony part).
You can then further divide the
“membranous” portion into the
cochlear & vestibular labyrinths.
789
Q

Chronic Otitis
Media

Mastoids:

Middle Ear Opacification:

For the purpose of multiple choice this could be a hing:

Erossions (scutum and ossicular chain):

Displacement of the ossicular chain:

A

Mastoids: poorlypneumatized

Middle Ear Opacification:Can completely
opacity

For the purpose of multiple choice this could be a hing:Thickened
mucosa

Erossions (scutum and ossicular chain):Rare (< 10%)

Displacement of the ossicular chain:NEVEr

790
Q

Cholesteatoma

Mastoids:

Middle Ear Opacification:

For the purpose of multiple choice this could be a hing:

Erossions (scutum and ossicular chain):

Displacement of the ossicular chain:

A

Mastoids:poorlypneumatized

Middle Ear Opacification:Can completely
opacity

For the purpose of multiple choice this could be a hing:Non-
Dependent
Mass

Erossions (scutum and ossicular chain):Common
(75%)

Displacement of the ossicular chain:It can happen

791
Q

L a b y rin th itis

A

This is an inflammation o f the
membranous labyrinth, probably most commonly the
result o f a viral respiratory track infection. Acute
otomastoiditis can also spread directly to the inner ear
(this is usually unilateral). Bacterial meningitis can
cause bilateral labyrinthitis.

792
Q

L a b y rin th itis

classic look

A

The cochlea and semicircular canals

will be shown enhancing on Tl post contrast imaging.

793
Q

the F a c ia l N e rv e (CN 7)

segments

A

• Intracranial (“Cisternal”) segment
• Meatal (“Canalicular”) segment - the part inside the
Internal Auditory Canal “IAC”).
• Labyrinthine segment (LS) - from the IAC to
geniculate ganglion (GG).
• Tympanic segment (TS) - GG to pyramidal eminence
• Mastoid segment (MS) - from pyramidal eminence
to stylomastoid foramen “SMF”
• Extratemporal segment - Distal to the SMF

794
Q

the F a c ia l N e rv e (CN 7)

enhancement

A
The facial nerve is unique in that
portions of it can enhance normally.
The trick is which parts are normal
and which parts arc NOT.
Normal Enhancement: Tympanic &
Mastoid Segments including the
Geniculate Ganglia. The
Labyrinthine segment can also
sometimes.
No normal enhancement = Cisternal,
Canalicular, or Extratemporal
795
Q

the F a c ia l N e rv e (CN 7)

IVhat
causes abnormal enhancement?

A

Big one is Bell’s Palsy. Lymes, Ramsay

Hunt, and Cancer can do it too.

796
Q

the F a c ia l N e rv e (CN 7)

When do yo u think Cancer

A

Nodular Enhancement

797
Q

the F a c ia l N e rv e (CN 7)

When do yo u damage the facial nerve

A

T-Bone fracture (transverse > longitudinal).

798
Q

Axial CT- Level of I AC

-the bend at the GG =

A

anterior genu

799
Q

Axial MR T2 - Cisternal Segment

A

-CN8 is posterior also

entering the IAC

800
Q

Bells

A

Etiology is probably viral. Usually a
clinical diagnosis. Abnormal enhancement in
the Canalicular Segment (in the IAC) is
probably the most classic finding.

801
Q

RH

A

Caused by reactivation varicella zoster
virus. Classic rash around ear. CN 5 is
usually also involved.

802
Q

O to s c le ro s is (F e n e s tra l and R e tro fe n e s tra l):

A

A better term would actually be “otospongiosis,” as the bone becomes more lytic (instead of sclerotic).
When I say conductive hearing loss in an adult female, you say this

803
Q

Fenestral

A

This is bony resorption anterior to the oval widow at the fissula ante fenestram.
If not addressed, the footplate will fuse to the oval window.

804
Q

Retro-fenestral

A

This is a more severe form, which has progressed to have demineralization around
the cochlea. This form usually has a sensorineural component, and is bilateral and symmetric nearly
100% of the time.

805
Q

to s c le ro s is (F e n e s tra l and R e tro fe n e s tra l):

treatment optoins

A

Early on (if the focus is small) dietary supplementation with Fluoride
may be useful. Although this is controversial - may or may not w o rk …
and may or may not be part o f a new world order David Icke Reptilian
conspiracy to lower IQs (Alex Jones has the documents).
Later on they might try a stapedectomy (partial removal o f the stapes
with implantation o f a prosthetic device) or a Cochlear implant

806
Q

S u p e r io r S em ic ir cu la r Canal D e h is c e n c e

A

This is an Aunt Minnie. It’s supposedly from long standing elevated
ICP. The most likely way this will be asked is either (1) what is it? with
a picture or (2) “Noise Induced Vertigo” or “Tullio’s Phenomenon.”

807
Q

Pietro Tullio

A
Mad scientist who drilled
holes in the semicircular
canals of pigeons then
observed that they became
off balance when he
exposed them to loud
sounds.
He also created a “pigeon
rat” like Hugo Simpson did
in the 1996 Simpsons
Halloween Special.
808
Q

Large V e s tib u la r A q u ed u c t S y n d rom e

A

The vestibular aqueduct is a bony canal that connects the vestibule (inner ear) with the endolymphatic
sac. The enlargement of the aqueduct (> 1.5 mm) has an Aunt Minnie appearance. The classic
history is progressive sensorineural hearing loss. Supposedly the underlying etiology is a failure of
the endolymphatic sac to resorb endolymph, leading to endolymphatic hydrops and dilation.

809
Q

Large V e s tib u la r A q u ed u c t S y n d rom e

trivia

A

«This is the most common cause of congenital sensorineural hearing loss
•The finding is often (usually) bilateral,
j l v ‘There is an association with cochlear deformity - near 100%
4y r l (absence o f the bony modiolus in more than 90%)
•Progressive Sensorineural Hearing Loss (they arc NOT bom deaf)

810
Q

The normaI Vestibular Aqueduct (VA) is

NEVER

A

larger than the adjacent

Posterior Semicircular Canal (PSCC)

811
Q

Congenital malformations o f the inner ear

A

Along those lines, we can discuss two disorders on opposite ends o f that severity spectrum
with the Michel’s Aplasia being the earliest and most severe, and the Classic Mondini’s
Malformation (incomplete partition II) being the latest and least severe

812
Q

Mondini Malformation

A

Type o f cochlear hypoplasia where the basal turn is normal, but
the middle and apical turns fuse into a cystic apex. This is usually written as “only 1.5 turns” -
instead o f the normal 2.5. There is an association with an enlarged vestibule, and enlarged
vestibular aqueduct. They have sensorineural hearing loss, although high frequency sounds are
typically preserved (as the basal turn is normal).

813
Q

Michel’s A p la sia

A

This is also referred to as complete labyrinthine aplasia or “CLA.” As
above, this represents the most severe o f the congenital abnormalities o f the inner ear - with
absence o f the cochlea, vestibule, and vestibular aqueduct. No surprise these kids are
completely deaf.

814
Q

Michel’s A p la sia

associations

A

Anencephaly, Thalidomide Exposure

815
Q

Michel’s A p la sia

gamesmanship

A

Some people think this looks like labyrinthitis ossificans. Look for the
absent vestibular aqueduct to help differentiate.

816
Q

h i s vs THAT: Mondini vs Michel

mondine

Timing:

Severity:

Cochlea:

Vestibule:

Vestibular Aqueduct:

Frequency:

A

Timing:Late (7th Week

Severity:Some Preserved High Frequency Hearing

Cochlea:Cystic Apex (basilar turn is normal)

Vestibule:Sometimes Enlarged (can be normal)

Vestibular Aqueduct:Large

Frequency:Common
(relative to other malformations)

817
Q

h i s vs THAT: Mondini vs Michel

michel

Timing:

Severity:

Cochlea:

Vestibule:

Vestibular Aqueduct:

Frequency:

A

Timing:Early (3rd Week)

Severity:Total Deafness

Cochlea:Absent

Vestibule:Absent

Vestibular Aqueduct:Absent

Frequency:Rare As Fuck

818
Q

E n d o lym p h a tic S a c Tumor

A

Rare tumor o f the endolymphatic sac and duct. Although most are sporadic, when you see this
tumor you should immediately think Von-Hippel-Lindau.

819
Q

E n d o lym p h a tic S a c Tumor

classic look

A

They almost always have internal amorphous calcifications on CT. There are
T2 bright, with intense enhancement. They are very vascular often with flow voids, and
tumor blush on angiography.

820
Q

P a r a g a n g liom a

A

On occasion, paraganglioma o f the jugular fossa (glomus jugulare or jugulotympanic tumors)
can invade the occipital bone and adjacent petrous apex

821
Q

P a r a g a n g liom a

trivia

A

»40% o f the time it’s hereditary, and they are multiple.
»The most common presenting symptom is hoarseness from vagal nerve compression.
A »They are very vascular masses and enhance avidly with a “salt and pepper”
appearance on post contrast MRI, with flow voids.
*They are FDG avid.

822
Q

Petrous Apex - Anatomic Variations

A sym m e tr ic Marrow

A

Typically the petrous apex contains significant fat, closely
following the scalp and orbital fat (T1 and T2 bright). When it’s asymmetric you can have
two problems (1) falsely thinking y o u ’ve got an infiltrative process when you d o n ’t, and (2)
overlooking a T1 bright thing (cholesterol granuloma) thinking it’s fat. The key is to use
STIR or some other fat saturating sequence

823
Q

Petrous Apex - Anatomic Variations

C e p h a lo c e le s

A

A cephalocoele describes a herniation o f CNS content through a defect
in the cranium. In the petrous apex they are a slightly different animal. They d o n ’t contain any
brain tissue, and simply represent cystic expansion and herniation o f the posterolateral portion
o f Meckel’s cave into the superomedial aspect o f the petrous apex. Describing it as a
herniation o f Meckel’s Cave would be more accurate. These are usually unilateral and are
classically described as “smoothly marginated lohulated cystic expansion o f the petrous
apex. ”

824
Q

Petrous Apex - Anatomic Variations

Aberrant in te rn a l ca ro tid .

A

The classic history is pulsatile tinnitus (although other
things can cause that). This term is used to describe the situation where the Cl (cervical)
segment o f the ICA has involuted/underdeveloped, and middle ear collaterals develop
(enlarged caroticotympanic artery) to pick up the slack. The hypertrophied vessel runs
through the tympanic cavity and joins the horizontal carotid canal. The ENT exam will show a
vascular mass pulsing behind the ear drum (don’t expect them to make it that easy for you).
The oldest trick in the book is to try and fool you
into calling it a paraganglioma.
Look for the connection to the horizontal carotid
canal - that is the most classic way to show this.
DO NOT BIOPSY !

825
Q

A p ica l P e tr o s itis

A

Infection o f the petrous apex is a rare complication o f infectious otomastoiditis. It can have
some bad complications if it progresses including osteomyelitis o f the skull base, vasospasm o f
the ICA (if it involves the carotid canal), subdural empyema, venous sinus thrombosis, temporal
lobe stroke, and full on meningitis.
In children, it can present as a primary process. In adults it’s usually in the setting o f chronic
otomastoiditis or recent mastoid surgery

826
Q

G rad en ig o S yn d rom e

A

This is a complication o f apical petrositis, when Dorello’s canal
(CN 6) is involved. They will show you (or tell you) that the patient
has a lateral rectus palsy

827
Q

G rad en ig o S yn d rom e

classic triad

A

• Otomastoiditis,
• Face pain (trigeminal
neuropathy), and
• Lateral Rectus Palsy

828
Q

Dorello’s Canal

A
The most medial point
of the pertrous ridge -
between the pontine
cistern and cavernous
sinus
829
Q

Petrous Apex - Inflammatory Lesions

C h o le s te r o l Granuloma

A

The most common primary petrous apex lesion. Mechanism is likely obstruction o f the air
cell, with repeated cycles o f hemorrhage and inflammation leading to expansion and bone
remodeling. The most common symptom is hearing loss.

830
Q

Petrous Apex - Inflammatory Lesions

Choelsteatoma

A

This is basically an epidermoid (ectopic epithelial tissue). Unlike the ones in the middle ear,
these are congenital (not acquired) in the petrous apex. They are typically slow growing, and
produce bony changes similar to cholesterol granuloma.
The difference is their MRI findings; T l dark. T2 bright, and restricted diffusion

831
Q

C h o le s te r o l Granuloma

imaging

A
On CT the margins will be
sharply defined. On MRI
it’s gonna be T l and T2
bright, with a T2 dark
hemosiderin rim, and faint
peripheral enhancement
832
Q

C h o le s te r o l Granuloma

key point

A

Cholesterol Granuloma =

Tl and T2 Bright.

833
Q

THIS vs THAT:

Cholesterol Granuloma Cholesteatoma

A

Cholesterol Granuloma Cholesteatoma
T l Bright Tl Dark
T2 Bright T2 Bright
Doesn’t Restrict Does Restrict
Smooth Expansile Bony Change Smooth Expansile Bony Change

834
Q

R egu la r and N e c r o tiz in g O titis Externa

A

Otitis Externa - the so called “swimmers ear” is an infection (usually bacterial) o f the
external auditory canal. The more testable version Necrotizing Otitis Externa (also called
“Malignant” Otitis Externa - for the purpose o f fucking with you) is a more aggressive
version seen almost exclusively in diabetics.
You are going to see swollen EAC soft tissues, probably with a bunch o f small abscesses, and
adjacent bony destruction.
They always (95%) have diabetes and the causative agent is always (98%) Pseudomonas

835
Q

E x te rn a l Auditory Canal E x o s t o s is (“Sw im m e r s Ear”)

A

This is an
overgrowth o f tissue in the ear canal, classically seen in Surfers who get repeated bouts o f ear
infections. It’s usually bilateral, and when chronic will look like bone. Unlike Necrotizing
Otitis, these patients are immunocompetent and non-diabetes (although they are dirty hippie
surfers).

836
Q

E x te rn a l Auditory Canal O s te om a

A

This is a benign bone tumor, maybe best
thought o f as an overgrowth o f normal bone. They are usually incidental and unilateral
(,remember exostosis was bilateral) occurring near the junction o f cartilage and bone in the
ear canal.

837
Q

E x te rn a l Auditory Canal A tr e sia

A

This is a developmental anomaly where the external
auditory canal (secondary crayon storage
compartment) doesn’t form. As you might imagine,
this results in a hearing deficit (conductive subtype).
There may or may not be a mashed up ossicular
chain.

838
Q

E x te rn a l Auditory Canal A tr e sia

trivia

A

ENT will want to know: (1) if the tissue covering the normally open ear hole (atretic
plate) is soft tissue or bone, and (2) if there is an aberrant course o f the facial nerve.

839
Q

Pagets

A

This is discussed in great depth in the MSK chapter. Having said that, I want to
remind you o f the Paget skull changes. You can have osteolysis as a well-defined large
radiolucent region favoring the frontal and occipital bones. Both the inner and outer table are
involved.

840
Q

pagets buzzwork

A

osteolysis circumscripta.

841
Q

pagets skull related complications

A
  • Deafness is the most common complication
  • Cranial Nerve Paresis
  • Basilar Invagination -> Hydrocephalus -> Brainstem Compression
  • Secondary (high grade) osteosarcoma.
842
Q

Fibrous D y sp la s ia

A

The ground-glass lesion. If you are getting ready to call it Pagets,
stop and look at the age. Pagets is typically an older person (8% at 80), whereas fibrous
dysplasia is usually in someone less than 30.

843
Q

Fibrous D y sp la s ia

findings

A

• Classically, fibrous dysplasia o f the skull spares the otic capsule
• McCune Albright Syndrome - Multifocal fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots, and
precocious puberty.
• The outer table is favored (Pagets tends to favor in the inner table)

844
Q

Sinus D isea se Strategy Intro

A

You will see C’T and MRI used in the evaluation of sinus
disease. It is useful to have some basic ideas as to why one modality might be preferred over the
other (for gamesmanship and distractor elimination). CT is typically used for orbital and sinus
infections. In particular it is useful to see if the spread of infection involves the anterior 2/3 of the
orbit. If you wanted to know if the patient has cavernous sinus involvement, or involvement of the
posterior 1/3 (orbital apex) MRI will be superior.
CT also has the ability to differentiate common benign disease
(inspissated secretion and allergic fungal sinusitis) from the more
rare sinus tumors. The trick being that a hyperdense opacified sinus
is nearly always benign (tumor will not be dense). In addition to
that CT is useful for characterization of anatomical variation
(justification of endoscopic nasal surgery for recurrent sinusitis).
MRI is going to be more valuable for tumor progression / extension (perineural spread, marrow
involvement etc..).

845
Q
  • Hyper Dense Sinus
A

• Blood
• Dense (inspissated)
Secretions
• Fungus

846
Q

Fungal Sinusitis

A

This comes in two flavors; the good one (allergic) and the bad one (invasive). The chart below will
contrast the testable differences:

847
Q

Allergic Fungal Sinusitis

A

Opacification of multiple sinuses, ususually bilateral
favoring the ethmoid and maxillary sinuses.
Normal Immune System (Asthma is common)
CT: Hyperdense centrally or with layers. Can
erode and remodel sinus walls if chronic.
MRI: T1-T2 Dark - because of the high protein
content / heavy metals. Can mimic an aerated sinus.
Inflamed (T2 bright) mucosa which will enhance.
The glob of fungus snot will not enhance (thats how
you know it is not a tumor).

848
Q

Acute Invasive Fugal Sinusitis

A

Opacification of multiple sinuses. Stranding /
Extension into the fat around the sinuses in the key
finding.
Immunocompromised
- Neutropenic = Aspergillus
- Diabetic in DKA = Zygomycetes / Mucor
CT: Opacified Sinus with is NOT hyperdense. Fat
stranding in the orbit, masticator fat, pre-antral fat,
or PPF suggests invasion. This does NOT require
bone destruction.
MRI: Also can be T1/T2 Dark. However, the
mucosa may not enhance (suggesting it is necrotic).
The extension of disease out of the sinus will be
bright on STIR and enhance.

849
Q

C h r o n ic In f lam m a to r y S in o n a s a l D i s e a s e

A

This is typically thought of as an inflammation of the paranasal sinuses
that lasts at least 12 weeks. The causes arc complex and people write
long boring papers about the various cytokines and T-Cell mediation
pathways are involved but from the Radiologist’s point of view the issue
is primarily anatomical patency of sinus Ostia

Infundibular
Pa tte rn .

O s tiom e a ta l U nit P a tte rn

Sinonasal Polyposis
P a tte rn .

850
Q

Infundibular

Pa tte rn .

A
The most common
pattern.
In this pattern,
disease is limited to
the maxillary sinus
and occurs from the
obstruction at the
ipsilateral ostium /
infundibulum (star).
851
Q

O s tiom e a ta l U nit P a tte rn

A
Second most common pattern. I’m
not going to get into depth on the
various subtypes -
just think about
this as more
centered at the
middle
meatus (star)
with disease
involving the
ipsilateral
maxillary,
frontal and
ethmoid
sinuses.
The contributors to this pattern
involve all the usually suspects
(hypertrophied turbinates, anatomic
variants - concha bullosa, middle
turbinates which curl the wrong way
“paradoxical”, and septal deviation).
852
Q

Sinonasal Polyposis

P a tte rn .

A
The pattern is characterized by a
combination of soft tissue nasal
polyps (found throughout the nasal
cavity) and variable degrees of sinus
opacification. About half the time
fluid levels will also be present.
A key feature is the bony remodeling
and erosion. In particular the
“widening of the infiindibula” is the
classic description. This erosion and
remodeling is important to distinguish
between the “expansion” o f the sinus
- which is more classic for a
mucocele.
Testable associations include CF and
Aspirin Sensitivity.
853
Q

Mu co ce le

A

This is how I think about these things. You have an obstructed sinus.
Maybe you had trauma which fucked the drainage pathway or you’ve got
CF and the secretions just clog things up. Mucus continues to accumulate
in the sinus, but it can’t clear (because it’s obstructed). Over time the sinus
become totally filled and then starts to expand circumferentially. Hence the
buzzword “expanded airless sinus.” The frontal sinus is the most common
location. It won’t enhance centrally (it is not a tumor), but the periphery
may enhance from the adjacent inflamed mucosa

854
Q

A n tro c h o a n a l Polyp

A

Seen in young adults (30s-40s), classically presenting with nasal congestion / obstruction symptoms. Arises
within the maxillary sinuses and passes through and enlarges the sinus ostium (or accessory ostium).

855
Q

A n tro c h o a n a l Polyp

buzzword

A

“widening of the maxillary ostium/’

856
Q

A n tro c h o a n a l Polyp

clasically

A

Classically, there is no associated bony destruction but instead smooth enlargement o f the sinus. The polyp
will extend into the nasopharynx. This thing is basically a monster inflammatory polyp with a thin stalk
arising from the maxillary sinus

857
Q

J u v e n ile N a s a l A n g io fib rom a (JN A

A

Often you can get this one right just from the history - Male teenager with nose bleeds (obstruction is
actually a more common symptom in real life, but not so much on multiple choice).

858
Q

J u v e n ile N a s a l A n g io fib rom a (JN A

things to know

A
  • Location = Centered on the sphenopalatine foramen
  • Bone Remodeling (not bone destruction)
  • Extremely vascular (super enhancing) with intratumoral Flow Voids on MR
  • Pre-surgical embolization is common (via internal maxillary & ascending pharyngeal artery)
859
Q

In v e r te d P ap illom a :

A

This uncommon tumor has distinctive imaging features (which therefore make it testable). The classic
location is the lateral wall of the nasal cavity - most frequently related to the middle turbinate.
Impaired maxillary drainage is expected.

860
Q

In v e r te d P ap illom a :

thinkgs to know

A
  • A focal hyperostosis tends to occur at the tumor origin.
  • Another high yield pearl is that 10% harbor a squamous cell CA.
  • MRI “cerebriform pattern” - which sorta looks like brain on T1 and T2.
861
Q

E s th e s io n e u ro b la s tom a :

A

This is a neuroblastoma o f olfactory cells so it’s gonna start at the cribiform plate. It classically has a
dumbbell appearance with growth up into the skull and growth down into the sinuses, with a waist at the
plate. There are often cysts in the mass. There is a bi-modal age distribution

862
Q

E s th e s io n e u ro b la s tom a :

things to know

A

•Dumbbell shape with wasting at the cribiform plate is classic
.Intracranial posterior cyst is a “diagnostic” look
‘Octreotide scan will be positive - since it is o f neural crest origin

863
Q

S q u am o u s C e ll I SNUC

A

Squamous cell is the most common head and neck cancer. The maxillary antrum is the most common
location. It’s highly cellular, and therefore low on T2. Relative to other sinus masses it enhances less.
SNUC (the undifferentiated squamer), is the monster steroided-up version o f a regular squamous cell. They
are massive and seen more in the ethmoids

864
Q

Epistaxis (Nose Bleeds

A

This is usually idiopathic, although it can be iatrogenic (picking it too much - or not enough). They could
get sneaky and work this into a case of HHT (hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia). The most common
location is the anterior septal area (Kiesselbach plexus) - these tend to be easy to compress manually. The
posterior ones are less common (5%) but tend to be the ones that “bleed like stink” (need angio). Most
cases are given a trial o f nasal packing. When that fails, the N-IR team is activated.

865
Q

Epistaxis (Nose Bleeds

what to know

A

The main supply to the posterior nose is the sphenopalatine artery (terminal internal maxillary
artery) and tends to be the first line target. Watch out for the variant anastomosis between the ECA
and ophthalmic artery (you don’t want to embolize the eye).

866
Q

Nasal Septal Perforation

A

Typically involves the
anterior septal cartilaginous
area.

867
Q

Nasal Septal Perforation

causes

A

• Surgery - Old school Septoplasty techniques - essentially resecting the thing (Killian submucous resection)
• Cocaine use (> 3 months)
• Too much nose picking (or perhaps not picking it enough)
• Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener granulomatosis) — Triad o f renal masses, sinus
mucosal thickening and nasal septal erosion, disease, and cavitary lung nodules / fibrosis. cANCA positive.
• Syphilis - affects the bony septum (most everything else effect the cartilaginous regions).

868
Q

S ia lo lith ia s is

A

Stones in the salivary ducts. The
testable trivia includes: (1) Most commonly in the
submandibular gland duct (wharton’s),
(2) can lead to an infected gland “sialoadenitis”, and
(3) chronic obstruction can lead to gland fatty atrophy.

869
Q

salivary gland ducst

A
Submandibular = Wharton
Parotid = Stenson
Sublingual = Rivinus
870
Q

Odontogenic In fe c tio n

A

These can be dental or periodontal in origin. If I were writing
a question about this topic I would ask three things. The first would be that infection is more
common from an extracted tooth than an abscess involving an intact tooth.

The second would be that the
attachment of the mylohyoid
muscle to the mylohyoid ridge
dictates the spread of infection to
the sublingual and submandibular
spaces. Above the mylohyoid line
(anterior mandibular teeth) goes to
the sublingual space, and below the
mylohyoid line (second and third
molars) goes to the submandibular
space.

The third thing I would ask would be
that an odontogenic abscess is the
most common masticator space
“mass” in an adult.

871
Q

Sublingual

Space

A

-Above the Mylohyoid Line

(Anterior Mandibular Teeth

872
Q

Submandibular

Space

A

-Below the Mylohyoid Line

2nd and 3rd Molars

873
Q

L u dw ig ’s Angina:

A

This is a super aggressive cellulitis in the floor o f the

mouth. If they show it, there will be gas everywhere

874
Q

L u dw ig ’s Angina:

trivia

A

most cases start with an odontogenic infection

875
Q

Torus Palatinus

A
This is a normal variant that
looks scary.
Because it looks scary some
multiple choice writer may try
and trick you into calling it
cancer.
It’s just a bony exostosis that
comes off the hard palate in
the midline.
Classic History. “Grandma’s
dentures won’t stay in.”
876
Q

O s te o n e c ro s is of

th e M a n d ib le

A
The trivia is most likely
gonna be etiology.
Just remember it is related
to prior radiation, licking
a radium paint brush, or
bisphosphonate
treatment.
877
Q

Ranula

A
This is a mucous retention
cyst. They are typically
lateral. There are two
testable pieces o f trivia to
know:
(1) They arise from the
sublingual gland / space.
and
(2) Use the word
“plunging” once it’s under
the mylohyoid muscle.
878
Q

T h y ro g lo s s a l D u c t C y s t

A

This can occur anywhere between the foramen cecum (the
base o f the tongue) and the thyroid gland. They are usually found in the midline. It looks like a
thin-walled cyst. Further discussion in the endocrine & peds chapters.

879
Q

Floor of Mouth Dermoid I Epidermoid

A

There isn’t a lot o f trivia about these other
than the buzzword and what they classically look like. The buzzword is “sack of marbles” -
fluid sack with globules o f fat. They are typically midline. Further discussion in the peds
chapter.

880
Q

Head and neck cancer

A

Squamous cell is going to be the most common cancer o f the mouth (and head and
neck). In an older person think drinker and smoker.
In a younger person think HPV. HPV related SCCs tend to be present with large necrotic level
2a nodes (don’t call it a branchial cleft cyst!).

881
Q

Head and neck cancer

trivia

A

Classic Scenario = Young adult with new level 1/ neck mass = HPV related SCC.

882
Q

lesions of the Jaw

A

There are a BUNCH o f these and they all look pretty similar. Lesions in the jaw are broadly
grouped into either odontogenic (from a tooth) or non-odontogenic (not from a tooth). The
non-odontogenic stuff you see in the mandible is the same kind o f stuff you see in other bones
(ABCs, Simple Bone Cysts, Osteomyelitis, Myeloma / Plasmacytoma e tc …). I think if a test
writer is going to show a jaw lesion - they probably are going to go for odontogenic type.
Obviously your answer choices will help you decide what they are going for. The other tip is
that odontogenic lesions are usually associated with a tooth.

Pe ria p ic a l Cyst (R a d ic u la r Cys t)

D en tig e ro u s Cyst (F o llic u la r Cyst)

K e ra to g e n ic O d o n to g en ic T um or

Am e lo b la s tom a

Odontoma

883
Q

Pe ria p ic a l Cyst (R a d ic u la r Cys t)

A

This is the most
common type o f odontogenic cyst. They are typically the result
o f inflammation from dental caries (less commonly trauma).
The inflammatory process results in a cystic degeneration
around the periodontal ligament.

884
Q

e ria p ic a l Cyst (R a d ic u la r Cys t)

things to know

A

‘Located at the apex o f a non-vital tooth
‘ Round with a Well Corticated Border
• Usually < 2 cm

885
Q

D en tig e ro u s Cyst (F o llic u la r Cyst)

A

This is a
cyst that forms around the crown o f an un-erupted tooth.
It’s best thought o f as a developmental cyst (peri-apicals
are acquired). These things like to displace and resorb
adjacent teeth - usually in an apical direction. This is the
kind o f cyst that will displace a tooth into the condylar regions o f the mandible or into the floor o f the orbit.

886
Q

D en tig e ro u s Cyst (F o llic u la r Cyst)

things to know

A

‘ Located at the crown o f an un-erupted tooth

• Tend to displace the tooth

887
Q

K e ra to g e n ic O d o n to g en ic T um o

A

(Odontogenic Keratocyst) - Unlike the prior two
lesions (which were basically fluid collections) this
is an actual tumor. They tend to occur at the
mandibular ramus or body. Although they can be
uni-locular the classic look is multi-locular
( “daughter cysts ”) and th at’s how I would expect
them to look on the test.

888
Q

K e ra to g e n ic O d o n to g en ic T um o

things to know

A
  • Body / Ramus Mandible
  • They typically grow along the length o f the bone
  • Without significant cortical expansion
  • May have daughter cysts
  • When multiple think Gorlin Syndrome
889
Q

Am e lo b la s tom a

A

(Adamantinoma o f the
jaw) - This is another tumor (locally aggressive).
The appearance is variable but for the purpose o f
multiple choice I would expect the most classic
look - multi-cystic with solid components and
expansion o f the mandible.
Out o f the four I’ve discussed, this will be the
most aggressive-looking one. If they show you a
really aggressive-looking lesion, especially if it
has multiple “soap bubbles” - you should
consider this.

890
Q

Am e lo b la s tom a

things to know

A
  • Hallmark = Extensive Tooth Root Absorption
  • Mandibular Expansion
  • Solid component (shown on MR or CT) favors the Dx o f Ameloblastoma
  • About 5% arise from Dentigerous Cysts
891
Q

Odontoma

A

This is the easy one to pick out because it’s
most likely to be shown in it’s mature solid form (they start
out lucent). It’s actually the most common odontogenic
tumor o f the mandible. It’s basically a “tooth hamartoma.”

892
Q

Odontoma

what to know

A

• Radiodense with a lucent rim

893
Q

Suprahyoid neck

A

The suprahyoid neck is usually taught by using a “spaces” method. This is actually the best
way to learn it. What space is it? What is in that space? What pathology can occur as the
result o f what normal structures are there? Example: lymph nodes are there - thus you can get
lymphoma or a met.

894
Q

Parotid Space

A
The parotid space is basically
the parotid gland, and portions
o f the facial nerve. You can 't
see the facial nerve, but you can
see the retromandibular vein
(which runs ju st medial to the
facial nerve).
Another thing to know is that
the parotid is the only salivary
gland to have lymph nodes, so
pathology involving the gland
itself, and anything lymphatic
related, is fair game.
895
Q

Parotid Space contains

A
  • The Parotid Gland
  • Cranial Nerve 7 (Facial)
  • Retro-mandibular Vein
896
Q

Parotid Space Pathology

A

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

Warthins

M u coepide rm oid C a rc in om a

Lymphoma

Sjo gren s

Benign L ym p h o e p ith e lia l D is e ase

A c u te P a ro titis

897
Q

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

A

This is the most common major (and minor) salivary gland
tumor. It occurs most commonly in the parotid, but can also
occur in the submandibular or sublingual glands. 90% o f
these tumors occur in the superficial lobe. They are
commonly T2 bright, with a rim o f low signal. They have a
small malignant potential and are treated surgically.

898
Q

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

superficial vs deep

A

Involvement o f the superficial (lateral to the facial nerve) or deep
(medial to the facial nerve) lobe is critical to the surgical approach. A line is drawn
connecting the lateral surface o f the posterior belly o f the digastric muscle and the
lateral surface o f the mandibular ascending ramus to separate superficial from deep

899
Q

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

resection

A

Apparently, if you resect these like a clown you can spill them, and they will have a
massive, ugly recurrence.

900
Q

Major Salivary Glands:

A
  • Parotid
  • Submandibular
  • Sublingual
901
Q

Minor Salivary Glands

A

• Literally 100s of unnamed

minor glands

902
Q

Warthins

A

This is the second most common benign tumor. This one ONLY occurs in the
parotid gland. This one is usually cystic, in a male, bilateral (15%), and in a smoker. As a
point o f total trivia, this tumor takes up pertechnetate (it’s basically the only tumor in the
parotid to do i t , ignoring the ultra rare parotid oncocytoma).

903
Q

M u coepide rm oid C a rc in om a

A

This is the most common malignant tumor of minor
salivary glands. The general rule is - the smaller the gland, the more common the malignant
tumors; the bigger the gland, the more common the benign tumors. There is a variable
appearance based on the histologic grade. There is an association with radiation.

904
Q

Adenoid Cys tic C a rc in om a

A

This is another malignant salivary gland tumor, which
favors minor glands but can be seen in the parotid. The number one thing to know is
perineural spread. This tumor likes perineural spread.

905
Q

When I say adenoid cystic, you say

A

perineural spread

906
Q

Adenoid Cys tic C a rc in om a

Pearl

A

I used to think that perineurial tumor spread would widen a neural foramen
(foramen ovale for example). It’s still m ight… but it’s been my experience that a nerve
sheath tumor (schwannoma) is much more likely to do that. Let’s ju st say for the purpose o f multiple choice that neural foramina widening is a schwannoma - unless
there is overwhelming evidence to the contrary

907
Q

Lymphoma (parotid)

A

Because the parotid has lymph nodes (it’s the only salivary gland that does), you can get
lymphoma in the parotid (primary or secondary). If you see it and it’s bilateral, you should
think Sjogrens. Sjogrens patients have a big risk (like lOOOx) o f parotid lymphoma. Like
lymphoma is elsewhere in the body, the appearance is variable. You might see bilateral
homogeneous masses. For the purposes o f the exam, just knowing you can get it in the
parotid (primary or secondary) and the relationship with Sjogrens is probably all you
need.

908
Q

Sjo gren s

A

Autoimmune lymphocyte-induced destruction o f the gland. “Dry Eyes and Dry Mouth.”
Typically seen in women in their 60s. Increased risk (like lOOOx) risk o f non-Hodgkins MALT
type lymphoma. There is a honeycombed appearance o f the gland.

909
Q

Benign L ym p h o e p ith e lia l D is e ase :

A

You have bilateral mixed solid and cystic lesions with diffusely enlarged parotid glands. This
is seen in HIV. The condition is painless (unlike parotitis - which can enlarge the glands).

910
Q

A c u te P a ro titis :

A

Obstruction o f flow o f secretions is the most common cause. They will likely show you a stone
(or stones) in Stensen’s duct, which will be dilated. The stones are calcium phosphate. Post
infectious parotitis is usually bacterial. Mumps would be the most common viral cause. As a
point o f trivia, sialography is contraindicated in the acute setting.

911
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

overview

A
Also referred to as the
“pre-styloid” parapharyngeal
space - for the purpose of
fucking with you.
The primary utility o f the
space is when it is
displaced (discussed
below).
912
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

spread

A
Mets and infections can
spread directly in a
vertical direction through
this space (squamous cell
cancer from tonsils,
tongue, and larynx).
913
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

cystic mass

A
A cystic mass in this
location could be an
atypical 2nd Branchial
Cleft Cyst (but is more
likely a necrotic lymph
node).
914
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

borders

A
The parapharyngeal space is
bordered on four sides by
different spaces. If you have
a mass dead in the middle, it
can be challenging to tell
where it’s coming from.
Using the displacement o f
fat, you can help problem
solve. Much more important
than that, this lends itself
very well to multiple choice.
915
Q

Parapharyngeal Fat (PPF) Displacement

A

Carotid
Space =
Anterior
Displacement

Parotid
Space =
Medial
Displacement

Masticator
Space =
Posterior
Medial
Displacement
Superficial
Mucosal
Space =
Lateral
Displacement
916
Q

The parapharyngeal

space is primarily a

A

ball of fat with a few
branches of the
trigeminal nerves, and
the pterygoid veins

917
Q

Carotid Space

overview

A

The carotid space is also sometimes called the
“post styloid” or “retro-styloid’’ parapharyngeal
space — for the purpose of fucking with you.

Although it is worth noting
that this space is
commonly involved in
secondary spread of
aggressive multi-spatial
disease - such as
infectious path
(necrotizing otitis external)
or malignant spread
(nasopharyngeal,
squamous cell etc..).
Metastatic squamous cell
is what you should think
for nodal disease in this
region
918
Q

Carotid Space

3 classic tumors

A

1) Paraganglioma
(2) Schwannoma
(3) Ncurofibroma

919
Q

Carotid Space

contains

A
" Carotid artery
■ Jugular vein
■ Portions o f CN 9,
CN 10, CN 11
■ Internal jugular
chain lymph node
920
Q

Carotid Space

paraganglioma

A

There are three different ones worth knowing about - based on location.
The imaging features are the same. They are hypervascular (intense tumor blush), with a
“Salt and Pepper” appearance on MRI from the flow voids. They can be multiple and
bilateral in familial conditions (10% bilateral, 10% malignant, etc.). ,n In-octreotide
accumulates in these tumors (receptors for somatostatin).

921
Q

Carotid Space

schwannoma

A

Most commonly in this location we are talking about vagal nerve
(CN 10), but if the lesion is pretty high up near the skull base it
could also be involving CN 9, 11, or even 12. The typical MR
appearance is an oval mass, heterogenous (cystic and sold parts)
with heterogenous bright signal on T2.
These things enhance a ton (at least the solid parts anyway). They
enhance so much you might even think they were vascular.
Ironically, schwannomas are considered hypo vascular lesions and
the only reason they enhance is because o f extravascular leakage
(and poor venous drainage).

922
Q

Carotid Space

neruofibroma

A

These are less common than the schwannoma. About 10% o f the time they are related to
NF-1 (in which case you should expect them to be bilateral and multiple). In contrast to
schwannomas they tend to be more homogenous, and demonstrate the classic target sign on
T2 with decreased central signal.

923
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Carotid Body Tumor

A

Carotid
Bifurcation (Splaving ICA and
EC A)

924
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Glomus Jugulare

A

Skull Base
(often with destruction o f jugular
fo ram en )

Middle Ear Floor Destroyed =
Glomus Jugulare

925
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Glomus Vagale

A

Above Carotid
Bifurcation, but below the Jugular
Foramen

926
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Glomus Tympanicum

A
Confined to the middle ear.
Buzzword is “overlying the
cochlear promontory. ”
Middle Ear Floor Intact =
Glomus Tympanum
927
Q

Carotid space

Surgical
Planning Trivia

A
• Distance of Skull
Base ( > 1 cm =
Neck Dissection)
• Degree of
Vascularity
(might need preembolization)
• Relationship to the
Carotid (Don’t Fuck
with Big Red)
928
Q

Neurofibroma

quick

A
Mildly Heterogenous
Enhancement
T2: Target Sign
(bright rim, dark middle)
NF-1 Association
929
Q

Schwannoma

quick

A
Although they enhance intensely
they are not vascular on Angio
T2: Moderate to High Signal -
Heterogenous
NF-2 Association
930
Q

Paraganglioma

quick

A
Hypervascular
(tumor blush on angio)
T2: Light Bulb Bright with
Salt and Pepper (flow voids)
' "In-Octreotide avid
931
Q

Lemierre’s Syndrome

A

This is a thrombophlebitis of the jugular veins with septic emboli in
the lung. It’s found in the setting of oropharyngeal infection (pharyngitis, tonsillitis, peritonsillar
abscess) or recent ENT surgery. Buzzword bacteria = “Fusobacterium Necrophorum”

932
Q

Grisel’s Syndrome

A

Torticollis with atlanto-axial joint inflammation seen in H&N surgery or
retropharyngeal abscess

933
Q

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

A

This is the most common major (and minor) salivary gland
tumor. It occurs most commonly in the parotid, but can also
occur in the submandibular or sublingual glands. 90% o f
these tumors occur in the superficial lobe. They are
commonly T2 bright, with a rim o f low signal. They have a
small malignant potential and are treated surgically.

934
Q

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

superficial vs deep

A

Involvement o f the superficial (lateral to the facial nerve) or deep
(medial to the facial nerve) lobe is critical to the surgical approach. A line is drawn
connecting the lateral surface o f the posterior belly o f the digastric muscle and the
lateral surface o f the mandibular ascending ramus to separate superficial from deep

935
Q

Pleomorphic A denoma (benign m ixed tum o r)

resection

A

Apparently, if you resect these like a clown you can spill them, and they will have a
massive, ugly recurrence.

936
Q

Major Salivary Glands:

A
  • Parotid
  • Submandibular
  • Sublingual
937
Q

Minor Salivary Glands

A

• Literally 100s of unnamed

minor glands

938
Q

Warthins

A

This is the second most common benign tumor. This one ONLY occurs in the
parotid gland. This one is usually cystic, in a male, bilateral (15%), and in a smoker. As a
point o f total trivia, this tumor takes up pertechnetate (it’s basically the only tumor in the
parotid to do i t , ignoring the ultra rare parotid oncocytoma).

939
Q

M u coepide rm oid C a rc in om a

A

This is the most common malignant tumor of minor
salivary glands. The general rule is - the smaller the gland, the more common the malignant
tumors; the bigger the gland, the more common the benign tumors. There is a variable
appearance based on the histologic grade. There is an association with radiation.

940
Q

Adenoid Cys tic C a rc in om a

A

This is another malignant salivary gland tumor, which
favors minor glands but can be seen in the parotid. The number one thing to know is
perineural spread. This tumor likes perineural spread.

941
Q

N e rv e S h e a th Tumo rs

Masticator Space

A

Since you have a nerve, you can have a schwannoma or
neurofibroma of V3. Remember the schwannoma is more likely to cause the foramina expansion vs
perineural tumor spread.

942
Q

Adenoid Cys tic C a rc in om a

Pearl

A

I used to think that perineurial tumor spread would widen a neural foramen
(foramen ovale for example). It’s still m ight… but it’s been my experience that a nerve
sheath tumor (schwannoma) is much more likely to do that. Let’s ju st say for the purpose o f multiple choice that neural foramina widening is a schwannoma - unless
there is overwhelming evidence to the contrary

943
Q

Lymphoma (parotid)

A

Because the parotid has lymph nodes (it’s the only salivary gland that does), you can get
lymphoma in the parotid (primary or secondary). If you see it and it’s bilateral, you should
think Sjogrens. Sjogrens patients have a big risk (like lOOOx) o f parotid lymphoma. Like
lymphoma is elsewhere in the body, the appearance is variable. You might see bilateral
homogeneous masses. For the purposes o f the exam, just knowing you can get it in the
parotid (primary or secondary) and the relationship with Sjogrens is probably all you
need.

944
Q

Sjo gren s

A

Autoimmune lymphocyte-induced destruction o f the gland. “Dry Eyes and Dry Mouth.”
Typically seen in women in their 60s. Increased risk (like lOOOx) risk o f non-Hodgkins MALT
type lymphoma. There is a honeycombed appearance o f the gland.

945
Q

Benign L ym p h o e p ith e lia l D is e ase :

A

You have bilateral mixed solid and cystic lesions with diffusely enlarged parotid glands. This
is seen in HIV. The condition is painless (unlike parotitis - which can enlarge the glands).

946
Q

A c u te P a ro titis :

A

Obstruction o f flow o f secretions is the most common cause. They will likely show you a stone
(or stones) in Stensen’s duct, which will be dilated. The stones are calcium phosphate. Post
infectious parotitis is usually bacterial. Mumps would be the most common viral cause. As a
point o f trivia, sialography is contraindicated in the acute setting.

947
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

overview

A
Also referred to as the
“pre-styloid” parapharyngeal
space - for the purpose of
fucking with you.
The primary utility o f the
space is when it is
displaced (discussed
below).
948
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

spread

A
Mets and infections can
spread directly in a
vertical direction through
this space (squamous cell
cancer from tonsils,
tongue, and larynx).
949
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

cystic mass

A
A cystic mass in this
location could be an
atypical 2nd Branchial
Cleft Cyst (but is more
likely a necrotic lymph
node).
950
Q

Parapharyngeal Space

borders

A
The parapharyngeal space is
bordered on four sides by
different spaces. If you have
a mass dead in the middle, it
can be challenging to tell
where it’s coming from.
Using the displacement o f
fat, you can help problem
solve. Much more important
than that, this lends itself
very well to multiple choice.
951
Q

Parapharyngeal Fat (PPF) Displacement

A

Carotid
Space =
Anterior
Displacement

Parotid
Space =
Medial
Displacement

Masticator
Space =
Posterior
Medial
Displacement
Superficial
Mucosal
Space =
Lateral
Displacement
952
Q

The parapharyngeal

space is primarily a

A

ball of fat with a few
branches of the
trigeminal nerves, and
the pterygoid veins

953
Q

Carotid Space

overview

A

The carotid space is also sometimes called the
“post styloid” or “retro-styloid’’ parapharyngeal
space — for the purpose of fucking with you.

Although it is worth noting
that this space is
commonly involved in
secondary spread of
aggressive multi-spatial
disease - such as
infectious path
(necrotizing otitis external)
or malignant spread
(nasopharyngeal,
squamous cell etc..).
Metastatic squamous cell
is what you should think
for nodal disease in this
region
954
Q

Carotid Space

3 classic tumors

A

1) Paraganglioma
(2) Schwannoma
(3) Ncurofibroma

955
Q

Carotid Space

contains

A
" Carotid artery
■ Jugular vein
■ Portions o f CN 9,
CN 10, CN 11
■ Internal jugular
chain lymph node
956
Q

Carotid Space

paraganglioma

A

There are three different ones worth knowing about - based on location.
The imaging features are the same. They are hypervascular (intense tumor blush), with a
“Salt and Pepper” appearance on MRI from the flow voids. They can be multiple and
bilateral in familial conditions (10% bilateral, 10% malignant, etc.). ,n In-octreotide
accumulates in these tumors (receptors for somatostatin).

957
Q

Carotid Space

schwannoma

A

Most commonly in this location we are talking about vagal nerve
(CN 10), but if the lesion is pretty high up near the skull base it
could also be involving CN 9, 11, or even 12. The typical MR
appearance is an oval mass, heterogenous (cystic and sold parts)
with heterogenous bright signal on T2.
These things enhance a ton (at least the solid parts anyway). They
enhance so much you might even think they were vascular.
Ironically, schwannomas are considered hypo vascular lesions and
the only reason they enhance is because o f extravascular leakage
(and poor venous drainage).

958
Q

Carotid Space

neruofibroma

A

These are less common than the schwannoma. About 10% o f the time they are related to
NF-1 (in which case you should expect them to be bilateral and multiple). In contrast to
schwannomas they tend to be more homogenous, and demonstrate the classic target sign on
T2 with decreased central signal.

959
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Carotid Body Tumor

A

Carotid
Bifurcation (Splaving ICA and
EC A)

960
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Glomus Jugulare

A

Skull Base
(often with destruction o f jugular
fo ram en )

Middle Ear Floor Destroyed =
Glomus Jugulare

961
Q

Carotid Space
paraganglioma

Glomus Vagale

A

Above Carotid
Bifurcation, but below the Jugular
Foramen

962
Q

V o c a l Cord P a ra ly s is

buzzword

A

“Hoarseness” - If you see “Hoarseness” in the question header, you need to
dkjpO think recurrent laryngeal nerve compression in the AP Window - either from a mass/node
or aortic path. *Hoarseness is also a classic Laryngeal CA buzzword (so look there too).

963
Q

Carotid space

Surgical
Planning Trivia

A
• Distance of Skull
Base ( > 1 cm =
Neck Dissection)
• Degree of
Vascularity
(might need preembolization)
• Relationship to the
Carotid (Don’t Fuck
with Big Red)
964
Q

Neurofibroma

quick

A
Mildly Heterogenous
Enhancement
T2: Target Sign
(bright rim, dark middle)
NF-1 Association
965
Q

Schwannoma

quick

A
Although they enhance intensely
they are not vascular on Angio
T2: Moderate to High Signal -
Heterogenous
NF-2 Association
966
Q

Paraganglioma

quick

A
Hypervascular
(tumor blush on angio)
T2: Light Bulb Bright with
Salt and Pepper (flow voids)
' "In-Octreotide avid
967
Q

Lemierre’s Syndrome

A

This is a thrombophlebitis of the jugular veins with septic emboli in
the lung. It’s found in the setting of oropharyngeal infection (pharyngitis, tonsillitis, peritonsillar
abscess) or recent ENT surgery. Buzzword bacteria = “Fusobacterium Necrophorum”

968
Q

Grisel’s Syndrome

A

Torticollis with atlanto-axial joint inflammation seen in H&N surgery or
retropharyngeal abscess

969
Q

Masticator Space

A

As the name implies this space contains the
muscles o f mastication (masticator,
temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoids).
Additionally, you have the angle and ramus
of the mandible, plus the inferior alveolar
nerve (branch o f V3).
A trick to be aware o f is that the space
extends superiorly along the side o f the skull
via the temporalis muscle. So, aggressive
neoplasm or infection may ride right up there

970
Q

Masticator Space

lesions displace

A

the Parapharyngeal Fat

POSTERIOR and MEDIAL

971
Q

Masticator Space:

key point

A

Congenital Stuff and
Aggressive Infection/
Cancer tends to be Trans-
Spatial.

972
Q

Masticator Space

ddx

A

O d o n to g en ic In fe c tio n

S a rcom a s

C av e rnou s H em a n g iom a s

P e rin e u ra l S p re ad

N e rv e S h e a th Tumo rs

973
Q

O d o n to g en ic In fe c tio n

Masticator Space

A

In an adult, this is the most common cause of a masticator space mass. If you see a mass here, the next
move should be to look at the mandible on bone windows. Just in general, you should be on the look
out for spread via the pterygopalatine fossa to the orbital apex and cavernous sinus. The relationship
with the mylohyoid makes for good trivia - as discussed above.

974
Q

S a rcom a s

Masticator Space

A

In kids, you can run into nasty angry masses like Rhabdomyosarcomas,
from the bone of the mandible (chondrosarcoma favors the TMJ

975
Q

C av e rnou s H em a n g iom a s

Masticator Space

A

These can also occur, and are given away by the presence of
phlcboliths. Venous or lymphatic malformations may involve multiple
compartments / spaces.

976
Q

P e rin e u ra l S p re ad

Masticator Space

A

You can have perineural spread from a head and neck primary along V3.
When I say ‘‘perineural spread” you should think two things:
( 1) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma of the minor salivary gland
(2) Melanoma

977
Q

N e rv e S h e a th Tumo rs

Masticator Space

A

Since you have a nerve, you can have a schwannoma or
neurofibroma of V3. Remember the schwannoma is more likely to cause the foramina expansion vs
perineural tumor spread.

978
Q

Retropharyngeal Space / Danger Space

A

The retropharyngeal space has some complex anatomy. Simplified, this is a midline space, deep
to the oral & nasal pharynx. The retropharyngeal space has an anterior “true” space which
extends caudal to around C6-C7, and a more posterior “danger space” - which is dangerous
because it listens to rap music and plays first person shooter video games - plus it extends into
the mediastinum - so you could potentially dump pus, or cancer, right into the mediastinum

979
Q

Infectious behind this deep cervical fascia (the Prevertebral Space)

A

are different than the ones

discussed below in that they are not spread from the neck but instead the spine/disc (osteomyelitis

980
Q

Retropharyngeal Space / Danger Space

In fe c tio n

A

Involvement o f the retropharyngeal
space most often occurs from spread from the tonsillar
tissue. You are going to have centrally low density
tissue and stranding in the space. You should evaluate
for spread o f infection into the mediastinum.

Don 'I Forget:
Delays are often
critical for
differentiate
phlegmon and
drainable abscess
981
Q

Retropharyngeal Space / Danger Space

N e c ro tic N ode s

A
(nodes o f
Rouviere) - These things are located
in the lateral retropharyngeal region.
In kids you can see suppurative
infection in these, but around age 4
they start to regress - so adults are
actually much less to get infection in
this region. Now, you can still get
mets (squamous cell, papillary
thyroid, etc..). Lymphoma can
involve these nodes as well - but
won’t be necrotic until treated.
982
Q

SCC and infrahyoid neck

A

When you are talking about head and neck cancer, you are talking about squamous cell cancer.
Now, this is a big complex topic and requires a fellowship to truly understand / get good at.
Obviously, the purpose o f this book is to prepare you for multiple choice test questions not
teach you practical radiology. If you want to actually learn about head and neck cancer in a
practical sense you can try and find a copy o f Hamsberger’s original

983
Q

Lymph node anatomy

testable trivia

A

Anterior Belly o f Digastric
separates 1A from 1B

Stylohyoid muscle
(posterior submandibular
gland) separates 1B from
2A

Jugular Vein (Spina!
Accessory Nerve) separates
2A from 2B *see below

Vertical borders:
2-3 = Lower Hyoid
3-4= lower cricoid

984
Q

Lymph node anatomy

2A

A

Anterior, Medial, Lateral or Abutting the Posterior Internal Jugular

985
Q

Lymph node anatomy

2B

A

Posterior to the Internal Jugular, with a clear fat plane between node and IJ

986
Q

Floor o f th e M outh SCC

A

touched on this once already. Just remember smoker/drinker in an old person. HPV in a
young person. Necrotic level 2 nodes can be a presentation (not a branchial cleft cyst).

987
Q

N a s o p h a ryn g e a l SCC:

A
This is more common in Asians
and has a bi-modal distribution:
• group 1 (15-30)
typically Chinese
• group 2 (> 40).
Involvement o f the
parapharyngeal space results in
worse prognosis (compared to
nasal cavity or oropharynx
invasion).
988
Q

Fossa of Rosenmuller

A

The FOR is the MOST COMMON location for

Nasopharyngeal Cancer

989
Q
See a Unilateral
Mastoid Effusion 
or
See a Pathologic
Retropharyngeal Node
A

Look
at the
FOR

“Earliest Sign ” o f nasopharyngeal SCC is
the effacement o f the fat within the FOR.

990
Q

“Earliest Sign ” o f nasopharyngeal SCC is

the

A

“Earliest Sign ” o f nasopharyngeal SCC is

the effacement o f the fat within the FOR.

991
Q

See a Pathologic
Retropharyngeal or
Supraclavicular Node

A

Look at the Clivus
About 30% o f the patients with nasopharyngeal tumors
have skull base erosion.
(MR1 ^ CT for skull base invasion)

Nodal mets are present in 90% o f
nasopharyngeal tumors, with the
retropharyngeal nodes usually the
first involved.

992
Q

Nek anatomy page 153

A

go there now pictures on phone from 7/15/21

993
Q

L a ry n g o c e le

A

When the laryngeal “saccule” dilates with air you call it a
laryngocele. If it is filled with fluid you still might call it a
larygocele (but if saccular cyst is a choice - consider that). If it
is filled with fluid and air you still might call it a larygocele
(but it laryngopyocele is a choice — and you have any hint of
infection - consider that

994
Q

L a ry n g o c e le

what is a saccule

A

The “saccule” is the
appendix of the laryngeal ventricle (a blind ending sac that
extends anterior and upwards). It’s usually closed or
minimally filled with fluid (you don’t typically see it in
normal adults).

995
Q

L a ry n g o c e le

why does a saccule dilate

A

Usually because it’s obstructed (ballvalve
mechanics at the neck of the saccule), and the testable
point is that 15% of the time that obstruction is a tumor.
You can also see them in forceful blowers (trumpet players,
glass blowers) — well maybe, this depends on what you
read. Simply read the mind of the question writer to know if
they are on team trumpet player laryngocele.

996
Q

L a ry n g o c e le :

internal vs external

A

ointernal vs external version of this (based on
containment of violation of
the thyrohyoid membrane).

997
Q

V o c a l Cord P a ra ly s is

A

The involved side will have an expanded ventricle (it’s the opposite side with a cancer). If you see
it on the left, a good “next step” question would be to look at the chest (for recurrent laryngeal nerve
involvement at the AP window).

998
Q

V o c a l Cord P a ra ly s is

buzzword

A

“Hoarseness” - If you see “Hoarseness” in the question header, you need to
dkjpO think recurrent laryngeal nerve compression in the AP Window - either from a mass/node
or aortic path. *Hoarseness is also a classic Laryngeal CA buzzword (so look there too).

999
Q

■gG4- Orbit

Lymphocytic
Hypophysitis:

A
This is histologically the same
thing as orbital pseudotumor
but instead involves the
cavernous sinus.
It is painful (just like
pseudotumor), and presents
with multiple cranial nerve
palsies. It responds to steroids
(just like pseudotumor).
1000
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Risk Factors

A
Smoking, Alcohol, Radiation, Laryngeal Keratosis, HPV, GERD, & Blasphemy against the
correct religion (false religions are safe to talk shit about).
1001
Q

laryngeal Cancer

role

A

The role of the Radiologist is not to make the primary cancer diagnosis here, but to assist in staging.
Laryngeal cancers are subdivided into (a) supraglottic, (b) glottic, and (c) subglottic types.
“Transglottic” would refer to an aggressive cancer that crosses the laryngeal ventricle.

1002
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Supra-Glottic

A

-More Aggressive
-Early Lymph
Node Mets
-They do n ’t get
hoarseness

1003
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Supra-Glottic:
Epiglottic Centered

A

-Anterior
-Likes to Invade the Pre-
Epigolttic Space /Fat (which
is rich in lymphatics

1004
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Supra-Glottic:
False Cord / Fold
Centered

A

-Posterior Lateral
-Likes to Invade the Para-
Glottic Space /Fat (which
communicates superiorly
with the Pre-Epiglottic
Space

1005
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Glottic

A

-Most Common
-Best Outcome
-Grow Slowly
-Metastatic Disease
is Late

1006
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Sub-Glottic

A

-Least Common
-Often small
compared to nodal
burden
-Bilateral nodal
disease &
mediastinal
extension

1007
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Paraglottic space
involvement makes the
tumor

A

T3 and
“transglottic: ”
*Best seen in coronals.

1008
Q

laryngeal Cancer

Fixation of the cords
indicates at least a

A
T3
tumor - this is best
assessed with a scope
but can be suspected
with disease in the
cricoarytenoid joint.
1009
Q

laryngeal cancer

Invasion of the cricoid cartilage

A
is a contraindication to all types of laryngeal
conservation surgery (cricoid cartilage is necessary for postoperative stability
of the vocal cords).
1010
Q

Laryngeal cancer

The only reliable sign of
cricoid invasion is

A

tumor on both sides of
the cartilage (irregular
sclerotic cartilage can
be normal).

1011
Q

Retinob la stoma

A

This is the most common primary malignancy o f the globe. If you see
calcification in the globe of a child - this is the answer.

1012
Q

Retinob la stoma

globe size

A

The globe should be normal in size (or bigger), where Coats’ is usually smaller. It’s usually seen
before age 3 (rare after age 6). The trivia is gonna be where else it occurs. They can be bilateral
(both eyes - 30%), trilateral (both eyes and the pineal gland), and quadrilateral (both eyes,
pineal, and suprasellar).

1013
Q

Retinob la stoma

step 1

A

The step 1 question is RB suppressor gene (chromosome 13 — “unlucky 13”). That’s the same
chromosome osteosarcoma patients have issues with and why these guys are at increased risk o f
facial osteosarcoma after radiation

1014
Q

C o a ts ’ D is e a s e

A

The cause o f this is retinal telangiectasia which results
in leaky blood and subretinal exudate. It can lead to retinal detachment. It’s
seen in young boys and typically unilateral. The key detail is that it is NOT
CALCIFIED (retinoblastoma is).

1015
Q

C o a ts ’ D is e a s e

imaging

A

CT - Dense
T1 - Hyper
T2 - Hyper

1016
Q

Coats disease has a smaller globe. Retinoblastoma has a

A

normal sized globe.

1017
Q

P e rs is te n t H y p e rp la s tic P rim a ry V itre o u s (PH P V ) -

A

This is a failure o f the embryonic ocular blood supply to regress. It can lead to retinal
detachment. The classic look is a small eye (microphthalmia) with increased density of
the vitreous. No calcification

1018
Q

Retinal Detachment

A

This can occur
secondary to PHPV or Coats. It can also be
caused by trauma, sickle cell, or just old age.
The imaging finding is a “V” or “Y” shaped
appearance due to lifted up retinal leaves and
subretinal fluid.

1019
Q

Globe Size Comparison

- A Strategy’ for Eliminating Distractors

A
Retinoblastoma - Normal Size *
PH P V - Small Size (Normal Birth Age)
Toxocariasis - Normal Size * 
Retinopathy o f Prematurity - Bilateral Small
Coats’ - Smaller Size
1020
Q

Orbit Melanoma

A

This is the most common intra-occular lesion in an adult. If you see an
enhancing soft tissue mass in the back o f an adult’s eye this is the answer.

1021
Q

Melanoma

questions

A

(1) show a picture - what is it?,
(2) ask what the most common intra-occular lesion in an adult is?
(3) ask the buzzword “collar button sh a p ed ’’ ? - which is related to
Bruch’s membrane,
(4) strong predilection for liver mets - next step Liver MR.

1022
Q

O p tic N e rv e Glioma

A

These almost always (90%)
occur under the age o f 20. You see expansion / enlargement
o f the entire nerve. If they are bilateral you think about
NF-1. They are most often WHO grade 1 Pilocytic
Astrocytomas. If they are sporadic they can be GBMs and
absolutely destroy you.

1023
Q

O p tic N e rv e S h e a th M en in g iom a

A

The buzzword
is “tram-track” calcifications. Another buzzword is
“doughnut” appearance, with circumferential enhancement
around the optic nerve.

1024
Q

Dermoid optic

A

This is the most common benign
congenital orbital mass.
It’s usually superior and lateral, arising from the
frontozygomatic suture, and presenting in the first
10 years o f life. It’s gonna have fat in it (like

1025
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma orbital

A

Most common extra-occular orbital malignancy in children
(dermoid is most common benign orbital mass in child). Favors the superior-medial orbit and
classically has bone destruction. Just think “bulky orbital mass in a 7 year old.”
When they do occur - 40% o f the time it’s in the head and neck - and then most commonly it’s in
the orbit. It’s still rare as hell.

1026
Q

Stenosis sagittal view

A

vertebral body / spinal canal < 0.85

1027
Q

M e ta s ta tic N eu ro b la s tom a

A

This has a very classic appearance of “Raccoon Eyes” on

physical exam.

1028
Q

M e ta s ta tic N eu ro b la s tom a

classic location

A

The classic location is periorbital tumor infiltration
with associated proptosis. Don’t forget a basilar skull
fracture can also cause Raccoon Eyes… so clinical
correlation is advised. Neuroblastoma mets tend to be
more

1029
Q

M e ta s ta tic N eu ro b la s tom a

Worth mentioning

A

Another thing worth mentioning is the bony
involvement of the greater wing of the sphenoid.
Neuroblastoma is gonna be bilateral. Ewings favors
this location also - but will be unilateral.

1030
Q

M e ta s ta tic Scirrhous (fibrosing)

B re a s t C a n c e r -

A

This is classic gamesmanship here. The important point to
know is that unlike primary orbital tumors that are going to
cause proptosis, classically the breast cancer met causes a
desmoplastic reaction and enophthalmos (posterior
displacement o f the globe).

1031
Q

M e ta s ta tic Scirrhous (fibrosing)
B re a s t C a n c e r -

Trivia

A

Trivia: Mets are actually more common to the eye

relative to the orbit (like 8x more common).

1032
Q

Infiltrative retrobulbar mass +

enophthalmos

A

scirrhous carcinoma

of the breast

1033
Q

■gG4- Orbit

Orbital Pseudotumor

A
This is one of those IgG4
idiopathic inflammatory
conditions that involves the
extraoccular muscles. It looks like
an expanded muscle. The things
to remember are that this thing is
painful, unilateral, it most
commonly involves the lateral
rectus and it does NOT spare
the myotendinous insertions.
Remember that Graves does not
cause pain, and does spare the
myotendinous insertions. It gets
better with steroids. It’s
classically T2 dark.
1034
Q

■gG4- Orbit

Tolosa Hunt Syndrome

A
This is histologically the same
thing as orbital pseudotumor
but instead involves the
cavernous sinus.
It is painful (just like
pseudotumor), and presents
with multiple cranial nerve
palsies. It responds to steroids
(just like pseudotumor).
1035
Q

■gG4- Orbit

Lymphocytic
Hypophysitis:

A
This is histologically the same
thing as orbital pseudotumor
but instead involves the
cavernous sinus.
It is painful (just like
pseudotumor), and presents
with multiple cranial nerve
palsies. It responds to steroids
(just like pseudotumor).
1036
Q

Thyroid Orbitopathy

A

This is seen in
1 /4th o f the Graves cases and is the most
common cause o f exophthalmos. The
antibodies that activate TSH receptors also
activate orbital fibroblasts and adipocytes.

1037
Q

Thyroid Orbitopathy

things to know

A
Things to know:
Risk of compressive optic
neuropathy
• Enlargement o f ONLY MUSCLE
BELLY (spares tendon) - different
than pseudo tumor
NOT Painful - different than pseudo
tumor
Order of Involvement:
IR > MR > SR > LR > SO/IO
Inferior, Middle, Superior, Lateral, Oblique
1038
Q

Thyroid Orbitopathy spares

A

tendon insertion

1039
Q

Orbital Vascular Malformations

Lymphangioma

A
These arc actually a mix of
venous and lymphatic
malfonnations. They arc illdefined
and lack a capsule. The
usual distribution is infiltrative
(multi-spatial), involving, preseptal,
post-septal, extraconal,
and intraconal locations.
Fluid-Fluid levels are the most
classic finding , with regard to
multiple choice.
Do NOT distend with
provocative maneuvers
(valsalva).
1040
Q

Orbital Vascular Malformations

Varix

A
These occur
secondary to
weakness in the
post-capillary
venous wall (gives
you massive
dilation of the
valvclcss orbital
veins).
Most likely question
is going to pertain
to the fact that they
distend with
provocative
maneuvers
(valsalva, hanging
head, etc...).
Another piece of
trivia is that they are
the most common
cause o f
spontaneous orbital
hemorrhage. They
can thrombose and
present with pain.
1041
Q

Orbital Vascular Malformations

Carotid-Cavernous Fistula

A
These come in two flavors:
(1) Direct - which is secondary to
trauma, and (2) Indirect - which just
occurs randomly in post menopausal
women.
The direct kind is a communication
between the intracavemous ICA and
cavernous sinus. The indirect kind is
usually a dural shunt between meningeal
branches of the ECA and the Cavernous
Sinus.
Buzzword: Pulsatile Exophthalmos
*although this can also be a buzzword
fo r NF-1 in the setting o f sphenoid wing
dysplasia.
1042
Q

Intraconal

Space

A

is the
space inside the
rectus muscle
pyramid.

1043
Q

Extraconal

Space

A

is the
space outside
the rectus
muscle pyramid

1044
Q

Pre-SeptalI Post-Septal Cellulitis

A

As above, location of orbital infections are described by their relationship to the orbital septum. The
testable trivia is probably (1) that the orbital septum originates from the periosteum of the orbit and
inserts in the palpebral tissue along the tarsal plate, (2) that pre-septal infections usually start in
adjacent structures (likely teeth and the face), (3) post-septal infections are usually from paranasal
sinusitis, and (4) pre-septal infections are treated medically, post septal is surgical

1045
Q

Pre-SeptalI Post-Septal Cellulitis

trivia

A

Periorbital abscess can cause thrombosis of the ophthalmic veins or cavernous sinus (in
extreme examples infection — usually aspergillosis — can even cause a cavemous-carotid fistula).

1046
Q

Dacryocystitis

A

This is inflammation and dilation of the
lacrimal sac. It has an Aunt Minnie
look, with a well circumscribed, round
rim enhancing lesion centered in the
lacrimal fossa. The etiology is typically
obstruction followed by bacterial
infection (staph and strep).
Usually this is diagnosed clinically unless there is an associated peri-orbital cellulitis in which can
CT is needed to exclude post septal infection (treated surgically) from simple dacryocystitis
(treated non-surgically).

1047
Q

Orbital Subperiosteal Abscess

A

If you get inflammation under the periosteum
it can progress to abscess formation.
This is usually associated with ethmoid
sinusitis. This also has a very classic look

1048
Q

Optic Neuritis:

A

There will be enhancement of the optic
nerve, without enlargement of the nerve/
sheath complex. Usually (70%) unilateral,
and painful.
You will often see intracranial or spinal cord
demyelination - in the setting o f Devics
(neuromyelitis optica). 50% of patient’s with
acute optic neuritis will develop MS

1049
Q

If the optic nerve is enlarged, think

A

glioma… then think NF-1.

1050
Q

Papilledema:

A

This is really an eye exam thing.

Having said that you can sometimes see dilation/ swelling o f the optic nerve sheath.

1051
Q

Drusen

A

Mineralization at the
optic disc. Supposedly there is an
association with age-related
maculopathy

1052
Q

NOT Legit Indications for Fluoro Guided LP — all o f which I ’ve heard:

A

• “The patient is crazy”
• “The patient is crazy & violent”
• “The patient is crazy, violent, and has high viral load HIV…. and Hep C”
• “The patient recently escaped a locked mental institution for the extremely violent and criminally
insane, has both HIV and Hep C. He spits like a camel and has really terrible body odor.”

1053
Q
Ectopia Lentis (lens
dislocation)
A

Causes include
Trauma, Marfans, and
Homocystinuria

1054
Q

Coloboma

A

This is a focal discontinuity o f the globe
(failure o f the choroid fissure to close).
They are usually posterior. If you see a
unilateral one - think sporadic.
If you see bilateral ones - think CHARGE
(coloboma, heart, GU, ears).

1055
Q

Cord Blood Supply

A

There is an anterior blood supply and a posterior blood supply to the cord.
These guys get taken out with different clinical syndromes

1056
Q

Anterior spinaI artery

A

arises bilaterally as two small branches at the level o f the termination of
the vertebral arteries. These two arteries join around the level o f the foramen magnum.

1057
Q

Artery o f Adamkiewicz

A

This is the most notable Anterior
reinforcer o f the anterior spinal artery. In 75%
of people it comes off the left side of the aorta
between T8 and Ti l . It supplies the lower 2/3
of the cord. This thing can get covered with the
placement of an endovascular stent graft for
aneurysm or dissection repair leading to spine
infarct.

1058
Q

Posterior Spinal Artery

A

Paired arteries which
arise either from the vertebral arteries or the
posterior inferior cerebellar artery. Unlike
anterior spinal artery this one is somewhat *
discontinuous and reinforced by\ multiple segmental or radiculopial branches.

1059
Q

Conus Medullaris

A

This is the terminal end of the spinal cord. It usually terminates at around L I.
Below the inferior endplate of the L2 / L3 body should make you think tethered cord (especially if
shown in a multiple choice setting).

1060
Q

Epidural Fat

A

The epidural fat is not evenly distributed. The epidural space in the cervical cord is
predominantly filled with venous plexus (as opposed to fat). In the lumbar spine there is fat both
anterior and posterior to the cord. “Epidural Lipomatosis ” = is a hypertrophy of this fat that only
occurs with patients on steroids (“on corticosteroids” would be a huge clue).

1061
Q

Stenos is

A

Stenos is : Spinal stenosis can be congenital (associated with short
pedicles) or be acquired. The Torg-Pavlov ratio can be used to call it
(cervical canal diameter to vertebral body width < 0.85).
Symptomatic stenosis is more common in the cervical spine (versus
the thoracic spine or lumbar spine). You can get some congenital
stenosis in the lumbar spine from short pedicles, but it’s generally not
symptomatic until middle age

1062
Q

Stenosis sagittal view

A

vertebral body / spinal canal < 0.85

1063
Q

Spondylosis Deformans

A
This is
probably part
of “normal
aging”
“Degenerative Change” or spine
osteoarthritis. This is more rim / margin
centered. Process is characterized by
osteophyte formation.
1064
Q

Intervertebral Osteochondrosis

A

Pathologic (but
not necessarily
symptomatic
“Deteriorated Disc” - This process is more
centered in the disc space favoring the nucleus
pulposus & vertebral body endplates.

1065
Q

Osteophytes:

A
• More horizontal /
oblique with a
“claw” like
appearance.
• Formed also the
vertebral margin.
. Seen in “DJD” /
Spondylosis
1066
Q

Syndesmophytes:

A
• More vertical
symmetric, and
thinner
• Represent
ossification of the
annulus fibrosis.
• Seen in Ankylosing
Spondylitis.
1067
Q

En d p la te Changes: Commonly referred to as “Modic Changes

types

A

Type 1
“Edema”
T1 Dark,
T2 Bright

Type 2 “ Fat”
T1 Bright,
T2 Bright

Type 3
“Scar”
T1 Dark, T2 Dark

1068
Q

En d p la te Changes: Commonly referred to as “Modic Changes

overview

A

There is a progression in the MRI signal characteristics
that makes sense if you think about it. You start out with
degenerative changes causing irritation / inflammation
so there is edema (T2 bright). This progresses to chronic
inflammation which leads to some fatty change - just
like in the bowel o f an IBD patient - causing T1 bright
signal. Finally, the whole thing gets burned out and
fibrotic and it’s T1 and T2 dark. As a prominent factoid,
Type 1 changes look a lot like Osteomyelitis (clinical
correlation is recommended).

1069
Q

A n n u la r Fissure:

A
As the disc ages, it tends to dry out making it more friable and easily tom. “Tears” in the annulus
(which are present in pretty much every degenerated disc) aren’t called “tears” but instead “fissures".
People who write the papers on this stuff make a big fucking deal about that - with the idea being that
“tear” implies pathology. Fissuring can be asymptomatic and part of the aging process.
Even though fissures are present
in basically every degenerated
disc you don’t always see them
on MRI. What you do see (some
of the time) is a fluid signal gap
in the annulus - which has been
given the official vocabulary
word “High Intensity
Zone,” and anything with
official vocabulary nomenclature
should be respected as possible
multiple choice fodder.
1070
Q

A n n u la r Fissure:

know this

A

•Annular fissures may be a source of pain
(radial pain fibers - trigger “discogenic pain”) but are also seen as incidentals.
»Fissures are found in all degenerative discs but are not all fissures are visualized as HIZs.
»Discography is more sensitive to fissures relative to MRI. but still not 100% sensitive.
*Also, Dude, “Tear” is not the preferred nomenclature - “Fissure.”

1071
Q

Schm orl Node:

Intravertebral Herniation

A
This is a herniation of disc material
through a defect in the vertebral
body endplate into the actual
marrow.
Common - like 75% of people have
them.
Classic look is to favor the inferior
endplate of the lower thoracic /
upper lumbar spine. When they are
acute they can have edema on T2
and be dark on Tl - mimicking
osteomyelitis. Chronic versions will
have a sclerotic rim.
1072
Q

S c h e u e rm a n n ’s

A
This is multiple levels
(at least 3) of wedged vertebral
bodies with associated
Schmorl’s nodes —
Most classically the thoracic
spine of a teenager, resulting in
kyphotic deformity (40 degrees
in thoracic or 30 degrees in
thoracolumbar).
25% of patients have scoliosis
1073
Q

Limbus

V e r te b ra

A
This is a fracture
mimic that is the
result of herniated
disc material
between the nonfused
apophysis and
adjacent vertebral
body.
1074
Q

Disc Nomenclature

Herniation

A

This is the approved verbiage for the
displacement of LESS THAN 25% of
disc material beyond the limits of the
disc space.

1075
Q

E x te n s io n T e a rd ro p

list

A

Distraction Injury
Stable in flexion (unstable in extension)
Hyperextension
Classic History “Hitfrom behind

1076
Q

Disc Nomenclature

Protrusion (subtype
of herniation)

A
Term used when the
distance between the
edge of the disc
herniation is less than
the distance between
the edges of the base
(base wider than
herniation
1077
Q

Disc Nomenclature

Extrusion
(subtype of
herniation)

A
Term used when
the edges of the
disc are greater
than the distance of
the base
(neck narrower
than herniation).
1078
Q

Disc Nomenclature

Sequestration

A

Free (broken off)

disc fragment

1079
Q

Disc Nomenclature

Localization
Cranial
Caudal Plane

A

Disc Level
Suprapedicle Level
-Pedicle Level
- Infrapedicle Level

1080
Q

Disc Nomenclature

Localization
Axial Plane

A
Extra Foraminal
Foraminal
*Often symptomatic
because o f the relationship
to the Dorsal Root Ganglia
Sub Articular
*Most Common Location
 Central
1081
Q

Which Nerve is CompressedP

A

There are 31 pairs o f spinal nerves, with each pair corresponding to the adjacent
vertebra - the notable exception being the “C8” nerve. Cervical disc herniations are
less common than lumbar ones.
The question is most likely to take place in the lumbar spine (the same spot most disc
herniations occur). In fact more than 90% o f herniations occur at L4-L5, and L5-S1

1082
Q

A foraminal disc will smash the

A

exiting nerve

1083
Q

a central or subarticular disc will smash

A

the descending nerve

1084
Q

LP / Myelogram Technique

Absolute Contraindications

A
  • Increased intracranial pressure or obstructed CSF flow
  • Bleeding diathesis (hvpocoagulabilitv)
  • Myelogram Specific — Iodinated contrast allergy
1085
Q

LP / Myelogram Technique

Prior to the LP
A CR-ASNR recommendations

A
STOP Coumadin 4-5 days
STOP Plavix for 7 days
Hold LMW Heparin for 12 hours
Hold Heparin for 2-4 hours -
document normal PTT
Aspirin and NSAIDs are fine (not
contraindicated)
1086
Q

LP / Myelogram Technique

Relative Contraindications

A

(vary per institution):
• Overlying infection, hematoma, or scarring
• Myelogram Specific - Recent myelogram (< 1 week)
• Myelogram Specific - History o f seizures

1087
Q

Legit Indications for Fluoro Guided LP:

A

• Advanced degenerative spondylosis,
• Post-surgical changes,
• Patient is so fat (“a person of size”), when Dracula sucked his/her blood, he got diabetes.
• Myelogram Specific - MRI contraindication
• Myelogram Specific - Geriatric Professor Emeritus of Neurosurgery wants it, and it is better than
doing the pneumoencephalogram he originally ordered.

1088
Q

NOT Legit Indications for Fluoro Guided LP — all o f which I ’ve heard:

A

• “The patient is crazy”
• “The patient is crazy & violent”
• “The patient is crazy, violent, and has high viral load HIV…. and Hep C”
• “The patient recently escaped a locked mental institution for the extremely violent and criminally
insane, has both HIV and Hep C. He spits like a camel and has really terrible body odor.”

1089
Q

LP / Myelogram Technique

technical overview

A
L2-L3 or L3-L4 are common
entry points. A potential trick
would be to show you imaging
with a low lying conus (usually
that thing stops at L1-L2).
Remember you need to be
below the conus - so you might
need to adjust down,
depending on how low it is
Target the
inlerlaminar
space, just off
of midline.
.
Always
aspirate
before you
inject
anything.
The needle will
naturally steer toward
the sharper side and
away from the bevel.
So, if you are directing
the needle, you’ll want
the bevel side opposite
the direction you are
attempting to steer.

Myelogram Specific - Contrast should flow freely away from the needle tip, gradually filling the thecal
sac. The outlining of the cauda equina is another promising sign that you did it right. If contrast pools at
the needle tip or along the posterior or lateral thecal sac without free-flow, a subdural injection or
injection in the fat around the thecal sac should be suspected.

1090
Q

Technical Strategies to Reduce the Incidence of Post Dural Puncture Headache (PDPH):

A

’ Use a small needle (25 G), especially for epidural pain injections or myelography. You might have
to use a 22G for a diagnostic LP or you are going to struggle to get enough fluid for a sample, and
your opening pressures may not be accurate.
1 Non-cutting “atraumatic” needle (diamond shaped tip) reduce incidence o f PDPH
Replace the stylet before you withdraw the needle. This isn’t just for the 1 in a million chance that
you suck a nerve root up in the needle. This has also been shown to reduce incidence o f PDPH

1091
Q

Technical Strategies to Reduce the Incidence of Post Dural Puncture Headache (PDPH):

Direction o f the bevel: This actually matters

A

You want to run the bevel parallel with the fibers to push them apart, not cut them

perpendicular is wrong you are going to cut those fibers. Coming in at a crazy angle is not ideal for same reason

1092
Q

Blood Patch

Overview

A

Even a miniscule defect within the thecal sac post LP
can allow leakage of spinal fluid resulting in
intracranial hypotension and the dreaded chronic/
debilitating post dural puncture_headache.
Classic PDPHs are bilateral, better laying down, and
worse sitting up. They are also worse with coughing,
sneezing, or straining to push out a large turd (from
chronic opioid abuse).
The procedure involves injecting between 3-20cc of the
patients own blood into the epidural space near the
original puncture site with the hope of sealing the hole

1093
Q

Blood Patch

bulletts

A
. Most PDPHs start 24 hours after the
puncture (between 24-48 hours) - larger
leaks can present earlier.
. Most people will wait 72 hours after the
headache begins (“conservative
therapy”) prior to attempting the patch.
. Most people will try at least twice before
calling neurosurgery to sew to hole you
carved out of the dura (you fucking
psycho)
• Severe atypical symptoms should
prompt a CT (to exclude a subdural from
severe hypotension).
1094
Q

“Fa iled B a c k S u rg e ry S yn d rom e ” (FBSS)

A

Another entity invented by NEJM to take down the surgical subspecialties. Per the NEJM these
greedy surgeons generally go from a non-indicated spine surgery, to a non-indicated leg amputation,
to a non-indicated tonsillectomy on an innocent child.
Text books will define it as recurrent or residual low back pain in the patient after disk surgery. This
occurs about 40% of the time (probably more), since most back surgery is not indicated and done on
inappropriate candidates. Causes of FBSS are grouped into early and late for the purpose of multiple
choice test question writing:

1095
Q

Complications of Spine Surgery

Recurrent Residual Disk

A

Will lack enhancement (unlike a scar - which will enhance on delays)

1096
Q

Complications of Spine Surgery

Epidural Fibrosis

A

Scar, that is usually posterior, and enhances homogeneously

1097
Q

Complications of Spine Surgery

Arachnoiditis

A

Buzzwords are “clumped nerve roots ” and “empty thecal sac ”,
Enhancement for 6 weeks post op is considered normal. After 6 weeks
may be infectious or inflammatory.

1098
Q

Complications of Spine Surgery

12,000 Square Foot
Mansion Syndrome

A

As spine surgeons perform more and more unnecessary surgeries they
need something to spend all that money on.

1099
Q

THIS v.s THAT: Sca r v.v Residual Disc

A

Tl Pre Contrast they will look the same… like a bunch of mushy crap.
Tl Post Contrast the disc will still look like mushy crap, but the scar will enhance

1100
Q

Conjoined N e rv e Roots

A

Two adjacent nerve roots sharing an enlarged common sleeve - at a point during their exit from the
thecal sac. This can be a source of FBSS if it is the source of pain instead of a disc. Alternatively it
could be misidentified as a disc preoperatively. In both cases, the Radiologist will be cast in the roll
of “Scapegoat” during the malpractice suit.

1101
Q

Odontoid F ra c tu re
C la s s ific a tio n

type 1

A

(rare)

Fracture at
upper part of
Odontoid
(related to
avulsion o f the
alar ligament)
May be
Stable
1102
Q

Odontoid F ra c tu re
C la s s ific a tio n

type 2

A

most common

Fracture at
the base
(high nonunion
rate)
Unstable
1103
Q

Odontoid F ra c tu re
C la s s ific a tio n

Type 3

A

best prognosis for healing

Fracture
through dens
into the body
ofC2.
Unstable
1104
Q

J e ffe rs o n F ra c tu re

A

This is an axial loading injury (jumping into a
shallow pool) - with the blow typically to the
top of the head.
The anterior and
posterior arches blow
out laterally.
• About 30% will also have a C2 Fracture
• Neurologic (cord) damage is rare, because
all the force is directed into the bones.
Could be shown on a plain
film open mouth odontoid
view.
Remember the C 1 lateral
masses shouldn’t slide off
laterally.

1105
Q

Os Od o n to id eum I Os T e rm in a le

A

These variants can mimic a type 1 Odontoid fracture. In both cases, you have an ossicle located at the
position of the odontoid tip (the orthotopic position). The primary difference is that with an
Os Odontoideum the base of the dens is usually hypoplastic

1106
Q

Anterior Cord Syndrome (The Really Bad One):

A

The anterior portion of the cord is jacked. Motor function and anterior column sensations (pain and
temperature) are history. The dorsal column sensations (proprioception and vibration) are still intact.
This is the reason FLEXION injuries are so bad.

1107
Q

H an gm a n ’s F ra c tu re

A

Seen most commonly when the chin hits the dashboard in an MVA
(“direct blow to the face”). The fracture is through the bilateral pars at
C2 (or the pedicles - which is less likely). You will have anterior
subluxation of C2 on C3 (> 2mm). Cord damage is actually uncommon
with these, as the acquired pars defect allows for canal widening. There is
often an associated fracture of the anterior inferior comer at C2 - from
avulsion of the anterior longitudinal ligament. Traction is
contraindicated.

1108
Q

Flex ion Te a rdrop

overview

A

This represents a teardrop shaped fracture
fragment at the anterior-inferior vertebral body.
Flexion injury is bad because it is associated
with anterior cord syndrome (85% o f patients
have deficits). This is an unstable fracture,
associated with posterior subluxation of the
vertebral body.

1109
Q

Flex ion Te a rdrop

list

A

Impaction Injury
Extremelv Unstable
Hyperflexion
Classic History: “Ran into wall

1110
Q

E x te n s io n T e a rd ro p

overview

A

Another anterior inferior teardrop
shaped fragment with avulsion o f the
anterior longitudinal ligament. This is
less serious than the flexion type

1111
Q

E x te n s io n T e a rd ro p

list

A

Distraction Injury
Stable in flexion (unstable in extension)
Hyperextension
Classic History “Hitfrom behind

1112
Q

C la y -S h o v e le r’s F ra c tu re

A

This is an avulsion injury o f a
lower cervical / upper thoracic spinous process (usually C7). It is
the result o f a forceful hyperflexion movement (like shoveling).
The “ghost sign” describes a double spinous process at C6-C7 on
AP radiograph.

1113
Q

C h an c e F ra c tu re

A

These are flexion-distraction fractures that are
classically associated with a lap-band seatbelt.
There are 3 column (unstable) fractures.
Most commonly seen at the upper lumbar levels &
thoracolumbar junction.
High association with solid organ trauma

1114
Q

F a c e t D is lo c a tio n

unilaterl

A

If you have unilateral locked facet (usually from hyperflexion and rotation) the
superior facet slides over the inferior facet and gets locked. The unilateral is a stable injury.
You will have the inverted hamburger sign on axial imaging on the dislocated side.

1115
Q

F a c e t D is lo c a tio n

bilateral

A

This is the result o f severe hyperflexion
You are going to have disruption o f the posterior
ligament complex. When this is full on, you are
going to have the dislocated vertebra displaced
forward one - h a lf the AP diameter o f the vertebral
body. This is highly unstable, and strongly
associated with cord injury.

1116
Q

F a c e t D is lo c a tio n

bilateral

A

This is a spectrum: Subluxed facets -> Perched -> Locked.

1117
Q

A tla n to a x ia l In s ta b ility

A

The articulation between Cl and C2 allows for lateral movement (shaking your head no). The
transverse cruciform ligament straps the dens to the anterior arch o f C l . The distance between
the anterior arch and dens shouldn’t be more than 5 mm. The thing to know is the association
with Down syndrome and juvenile RA.
Rotary subluxation can occur in children without a
fracture, with the kid stuck in a “cock-robin”
position - which looks like torticollis. Actually
differentiating from torticollis is difficult and may
require dynamic maneuvers on the scanner.
This never, ever, ever happens in the absence o f a
fracture in an adult (who doesn’t have Downs or
RA). Having said that, people over call this all the
time in adults who have their heads turned in the
scanner.

1118
Q

Pars In te ra r tic u la r is D e fe c t (S po ndy lo ly sis or A d u lt Is thm ic
S p o n d y lo lis th e s is )

A

the adult version. Defects in the pars interarticuaris are
usually caused by repetitive micro-trauma (related to hyper-extension). It is nearly
always at L5-S1 (90%). Pain is typically a L5 radiculopathy caused by foraminal
stenosis at L5 -S1. The term “pseudo-disc” is sometimes used to describe the
deformed annular fibers seen in the setting o f a related anterolithesis (forward
slippage).

1119
Q

Instability

trauma overview

A

For the purpose of multiple choice you will see the words “stable ” or “unstable ” associated with
specific fracture types. There are also some radiologic “definitions” of instability which seem to
vary depending on who you ask. In general, if you have acute segmental kyphosis greater than 11
degrees, acute anterolisthesis greater than 3-4 mm, or gross motion on flexion / extension imaging
it is probably an unstable fracture. You will also hear people talk about a “power ratio” for
occipitocervical instability, and a spinal column theory for the thoracolumbar injury.

1120
Q

Instability

definition

A

ou will read different definitions of “instability” as it relates to spinal trauma. The one I prefer
is something along the lines of “lost capacity to withstand even a normal physiologic load
without: potential damage to the spinal cord, nerve roots, or developing an incapacitating
deformity that forces one to seek employment in a cathedral bell tower. ”

1121
Q

Occipitocervical Instability

A
This can be traumatic (in which case
the patient rarely lives because they rip
their brainstem in half), or congenital
(classically seen with Down
Syndrome). Two popular methods for
evaluating this:
1122
Q

Occipitocervical Instability

powers ratio

A
= C-D: A-B
Ratio is greater
than 1.0 =
Ligamentous
Instability
1123
Q

Transverse Myelitis

A

This is a focal inflammation of the cord. The causes are
numerous (infectious, post vaccination - classic rabies, SLE, Sjogren’s,
Paraneoplastic, AV-malformations). You typically have at least 2/3 of the cross
sectional area of the cord involved, and focal enlargement of the cord. Splitters will
use the terms “Acute partial” for lesions less than two segments, and “acute
complete” for lesions more than two segments. The factoid to know is that the
“Acute partials” are at higher risk for developing MS.

1124
Q

Denis 3 Spinal Column Concept

A

Most often you will see this idea applied to
thoracolumbar spinal fractures, although
technically it has some validity in the lower
cervical segments as well.
The idea is to divide the vertebral column into 3
vertical parallel columns , with instability
suggested when all 3 or 2 contiguous columns
(anterior and middle column or middle and
posterior column) arc disrupted.

1125
Q

Denis 3 Spinal Column Concept

anterior

A
• Anterior
Longitudinal
Ligament
• Anterior 2/3
Vertebral Body
1126
Q

Denis 3 Spinal Column Concept

middle

A
• Posterior
Longitudinal
Ligament
• Posterior 1/3
Vertebral Body
1127
Q

Denis 3 Spinal Column Concept

posterior

A
• Posterior
Ligaments
• Pedicles, Facets,
Lamina, Spinous
Process
1128
Q

When Does a “Trauma” Indicate Imaging P

Canadian C-Spine Rule

A
Age >65 years
• Paresthesias in extremities
• Dangerous mechanism
• Fall >3 ft or 5 stairs
• Axial load to the head (empty swimming pool diving, piano fell on head - while chasing a road runner
High Speed MVA,
• Pedestrian vs Car
• Hulk Smash
1129
Q

When Does a “Trauma” Indicate Imaging P

Nexus Criteria:

A
focal neurological deficie
Nexus Criteria:
Midline spinal tenderness
Altered level o f consciousness
Intoxication (you c an ’t clear a drunk guys/girls c-spine while they are
Distracting injury
1130
Q

Unstable

A

Vertebral Overriding > 3mm (“Subluxation”)
Angulation > 11 Degrees
Flexion Tear Drop
Bilateral Facet Dislocation “Double-Locked”
Odontoid Fracture Type 2 and 3
(most sources will say Type 2 & 3 or deploy the word
“usually”, but for sure if there is lateral displacement)
Two Contiguous Thoracolumbar Columns
(anterior & middle or middle & posterior)
Three Thoracolumbar Columns
(Chance Fracture, Etc…)
Jefferson Fracture
Flangman Fracture
Atlanto-Occipital and Atlanto-Axial Dislocations

1131
Q

Stable

A

Extension Tear Drop (At least in Flexion)
Unilateral Facet Dislocation
Odontoid Fracture Type 1
I (usually stable - flex/extension films still usually done
\ to exclude atlantooccipital instability )
| Isolated Single Thoracolumbar Column Fracture
Clay Shoveler’s Fracture
Transverse Process Fracture

1132
Q

Named Spine Fractures quick

Jefferson

A

Burst Fracture of Cl Axial Loading

1133
Q

Named Spine Fractures quick

Hangman

A

Bilateral Pedicle or Pars Fracture of C2 Hyperextension

1134
Q

Named Spine Fractures quick

Teardrop

A

Can be flexion or extension Flexion (more common

1135
Q

Named Spine Fractures quick

Clay-Shoveler’s

A

Avulsion of spinous process at C7 or T1 Hyperflexion

1136
Q

Named Spine Fractures quick

Chance

A

Horizontal Fracture through thoracolumbar spine “Seatbelt

1137
Q

most important factor for outcome is the presence o f a

hemorrhagic spinal cord injury

A

they do bad

1138
Q

Spinal Cord Syndromes

Central Cord

A
Old lady with
spondylosis or young
person with bad
extension injury.
Upper Extremity
Deficit is worse than
lower (corticospinal
tracts are lateral in
lower extremity)
1139
Q

Spinal Cord Syndromes

Anterior Cord

A

Flexion Injury Immediate Paralysis

1140
Q

Spinal Cord Syndromes

Brown Sequard

A

Rotation injury or
penetrating trauma
One side motor, other
side sensory deficits

1141
Q

Spinal Cord Syndromes

Posterior Cord

A

Uncommon - but
sometimes seen with hyperextension
Proprioception gone

1142
Q

Anterior Cord Syndrome (The Really Bad One):

A

The anterior portion of the cord is jacked. Motor function and anterior column sensations (pain and
temperature) are history. The dorsal column sensations (proprioception and vibration) are still intact.
This is the reason FLEXION injuries are so bad.

1143
Q

Spinal AVM / AVFs

overview

A

There are 4 types. Type 1 is by far the most common (85%). It is a Dural AVF; the result
o f a fistula between the dorsal radiculomedullary arteries and radiculomedullary vein /
coronal sinus - with the dural nerve sleeve. It is acquired and seen in older patients who
present with progressive radiculomyelopathy. The most common location is the thoracic
spine. If anyone asks, the “gold standard for diagnosis is angiography” , although CTA or
MRA will get the job done. You will have T2 high signal in the central cord (which will be
swollen), with serpentine perimedullary flow voids (which are usually dorsal).

1144
Q

Spinal AVM / AVFs

type 1

A

Most Common Type (85%). Dural AVF - with a single coiled vessel

1145
Q

Spinal AVM / AVFs

type 2

A

Intramedullary Nidus from anterior spinal artery or posterior spinal artery. Can
have aneurysms, and can bleed. Most common presentation is SAH. Associated
with HHT and KTS (other vascular syndromes).

1146
Q

Spinal AVM / AVFs

type 3

A

Juvenile, very rare, often complex and with a terrible prognosis

1147
Q

Spinal AVM / AVFs

type 4

A

Intradural perimedullary with subtypes depending on single vs multiple arterial
supply. These tend to occur near the conus.

1148
Q

Foix A la jo u an in e Syndrome

A

This is a congestive myelopathy associated with a Dural AVF. The classic history
is a 45 year old male with lower extremity weakness and sensory deficits.
You have increased T2 signal (either at the conus or lower thoracic spine), with
associated prominent vessels (flow voids). The underlying pathophysiology is
venous hypertension - secondary to the vascular malformation.

1149
Q

Foix A la jo u an in e Syndrome

key finding

A

The vascular malformation flow voids are
- punctate, serpiginous, and serpentine.
They are NOT blob like
- sorta like what you see with CSF pulsation signal loss.

Swollen High Signal
Cord with Serpentine
flow voids along the
surface of cord

1150
Q

Syrinx

A

Also known as “a hole in the cord”. People use the word “syrinx” for all those fancy
French / Latin words (hydromyelia, syringomyelia, hydrosyringomyelia, syringohydromyelia,
syringobulbia etc. . They usually do this because they
don’t know what those words mean.

1151
Q

Syrinx

simple version

A

• Hydromyelia = Lined by ependyma.
• Syringomyelia = NOT lined by ependyma
These is zero difference clinically - which is why
everyone just says “syrinx.” The distinction is strictly
academic (i.e. multiple choice trivia).

1152
Q

Syrinx

acquired vs congenital

A

Most (90%) cord dilations (healthy and sick ones) are congenital, and associated with Chiari I and II,
as well as Dandy-Walker, Klippel-Feil, and Myelomeningoceles. The other 10% are acquired either
by trauma, tumor, or vascular insufficiency.

1153
Q

Syrinx

clinical practice

A

normal cord I call it “central cord dilation” or “benign central cord dilation.” If there is the same
thing but the cord around the dilation looks “sick” - grayish / high signal, or the cord is atrophic, then
I use the word “myelopathy” or “myelopathic changes.” Myelopathy is a word for a diseased cord -
usually from disc/osteophyte compression. Although, you can have myelopathy for any number of
neoplastic, post traumatic, or inflammatory processes.

1154
Q

Spinal Cord In fa rc t:

A

Cord infarct / ischemia can have a variety o f causes. The most
common cause is “ idiopathic,” although I ’d expect the most common multiple choice scenario
to revolve around treating an aneurysm with a stent graft, or embolizing a bronchial artery.
Impairment involving the anterior spinal artery distribution is most common. With anterior
spinal artery involvement you are going to have central cord / anterior horn cell high signal on
T2 (because gray matter is more vulnerable to ischemia).

1155
Q

The “owl’s eye” sign

A

o f anterior spinal cord infarct is a buzzword

1156
Q

Spinal Cord In fa rc t:

length

A

It’s usually a long segment, (more than 2 vertebral body segments). Diffusion using single
shot fast spin echo or line scan can be used with high sensitivity (to compensate for artifacts
from spinal fluid movement).

1157
Q

.Demyelinating (T2 / FLAIR Hyperintense

cord

A

Broadly you can think of cord pathology in 5 categories: Demyelinating, Tumor, Vascular, Inflammatory,
and Infectious.
In the real world, the answer is almost always MS - which is by far the most common cause. The other
three things it could be are Neuromyelitis Optica (NMO), acute disseminating encephalomyelitis
(ADEM) or Transverse Myelitis (TM).

1158
Q

MS in the Cord

A

“Multiple lesions, over space and time.” The lesions in the spine are typically
short segment (< 2 vertebral segments), usually only affect half / part of the cord. The cervical cord is
the most common location. There are usually lesions in the brain, if you have lesions in the cord
(isolated cord lesions occur about 10% of the time). The lesions can enhance when acute - but this is
less common than in the brain. You can sometimes see cord atrophy if the lesion burden is large.

1159
Q

Transverse Myelitis

A

This is a focal inflammation of the cord. The causes are
numerous (infectious, post vaccination - classic rabies, SLE, Sjogren’s,
Paraneoplastic, AV-malformations). You typically have at least 2/3 of the cross
sectional area of the cord involved, and focal enlargement of the cord. Splitters will
use the terms “Acute partial” for lesions less than two segments, and “acute
complete” for lesions more than two segments. The factoid to know is that the
“Acute partials” are at higher risk for developing MS.

1160
Q

ADEM in the cord

A

As described in the brain section, this is usually seen after a viral illness or infection
typically in a child or young adult. The lesions favor the dorsal white matter (but can involve grey
matter). As a pearl, the presence of cranial nerve enhancement is suggestive of ADEM. The step 1
trivia, is that the “anti-MOG IgG” test is positive in 50% of cases. Just like MS there are usually brain
lesions (although ADEM lesions can occur in the basal ganglia and pons - which is unusual in MS).

1161
Q

NMO (Neuromyelitis Optica): in the cord

A

This is also sometimes called Devics. It can
be monophasic or relapsing, and favors the optic nerves and cervical cord. Tends
to be longer segment than MS, and involve the full transverse diameter of the cord
(mild swelling). Brain lesions can occur (more commonly in Asians) and are
usually periventricular. If any PhDs ask, the reason the periventricular location
occurs is that the antibody (NMO IgG) attacks the Aquaporin 4 channels - which
are found in highest concentration around the ventricles.

1162
Q

Subacute Combined Degeneration

A

This is a fancy way of describing the
effects of a Vitamin B12 deficiency. The classic look is bilateral, symmetrically
increased T2 signal in the dorsal columns, without enhancement. The
appearance has been described as an “inverted V sign.” The signal change
typically begins in the upper thoracic region with ascending or descending
progression.

1163
Q

HIV Vacuolar Myelopathy:

A

This is the most common cause of spinal cord
dysfunction in untreated AIDS. Key word there is “untreated” - this is a late
finding. Atrophy is the most common finding (thoracic is most common). The T2
high signal will be very similar to B12 (subacute combined degeneration) -
symmetrically involving the posterior columns. It can only be shown 2 ways - (a)
by telling you the patient has AIDS or risk factors such as unprotected anal sex at
a truck stop with a man “bear” with a thick mustache while sharing IV drug
needles, (b) not including B 12 as an answer choice.

1164
Q

MS cord maging

A

Lesions favor the white matter of the cervical region.

They tend to be random and asymmetric

1165
Q

“Owl’s Eye”

A

-Classic for Ischemia
(Anterior)
-Also seen in Polio

1166
Q

-Ischemia big

A
  • More extensive
    anterior involvement.
    -Also seen in NMO,
    TM, or MS
1167
Q
Vitamin B12 (SCD)
HIV
A

Posterior. Can look

like an inverted “V”

1168
Q

MS cord quick

A
Usually Short
Segment
Usually Part of the
Cord
Not swollen, or
Less Swollen
Can Enhance/
Restrict when
Acute
1169
Q

tm cord quick

A
Usually Long
Segment
Usually involves both
sides of the cord
Expanded,
Swollen Cord Can Enhance
1170
Q

nmo cord quick

A
Usually Long
Segment
Usually involves both
sides of the cord
Optic Nerves
Involved
1171
Q

adem cord quick

A

Not swollen, or

Less Swollen

1172
Q

infarct cord quick

A

Usually Long
Segment
Restricted
Diffusion

1173
Q

tumor cord quick

A

Expanded,

Swollen Cord Can Enhance

1174
Q

A ra c h n o id itis cord

A

This is a general term for inflammation o f the subarachnoid space. It can
be infectious but can also be post-surgical. It actually occurs about 10-15% o f the time
after spine surgery, and can be a source of persistent pain / failed back.

1175
Q

A ra c h n o id itis cord

Empty Thecal Sa c S ig n

A

Nerve roots are
adherent peripherally, giving the appearance o f an
empty sac.

1176
Q

A ra c h n o id itis cord

Central Nerve Ro o t Clumping

A

This can range in
severity from a few nerves clumping together, to all
o f them fused into a single central scarred band.

1177
Q

G u illa in B a rre S yndrom e (GBS)

A

Also known as “Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy” (AIDP). One o f those weird
auto-immune disorders that causes ascending flaccid paralysis. The step 1 trivia was
Campylobacter, but you can also see it after surgery, or in patients with lymphoma or SLE.

1178
Q

G u illa in B a rre S yndrom e (GBS)

thing to know

A

The thing to know is enhancement of the nerve roots o f the cauda equina.

1179
Q

G u illa in B a rre S yndrom e (GBS)

trivia

A

Other pieces o f trivia that are less likely to be asked are that the facial nerve is the most
common cranial nerve affected, and that the anterior spinal roots enhance more than the
posterior ones

1180
Q

Chronic In flam m a to ry
D em y lin a tin g
P o lyn eu ro p a th y (CIDP)

A
The chronic counterpart to GBS.
Clinically this has a gradual and
protracted weakness (GBS
improves in 8 weeks, CIDP does
not). The buzzword is thickened,
enhancing, “onion bulb” nerve
roots.
“Dreadlocks,” “Locs,” “Jata"
some people call them.
1181
Q

CIDP =

A

Diffuse Thickening o f the Nerve Roots

1182
Q

Tumor

overview

A

The classic teaching with spinal cord tumors is to first describe the location o f the tumor, as
either (1) Intramedullary, (2) Extramedullary Intradural, or (3) Extradural. This is often easier
said than done. Differentials are based on the location.

1183
Q

Tumor

Intramedullary ddx

A

A stro cy tom a ,
E p en d ym om a ,
H em a n g io b la stom a

1184
Q

Tumor

Extramedullary
Intradural

ddx

A

S chw an n om a ,
M en in g iom a ,
N e u ro fib rom a ,
Drop Mets

1185
Q

Tumor

Extradural ddx

A
Disc D ise a se
(most common)
B o n e T um o rs,
Mets,
L ym p h om a
1186
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

A s tro c y tom a

A

This is the most common
intramedullary tumor in peds. It favors the
upper thoracic spine. There will be fusiform
dilation o f the cord over multiple segments.
They are eccentric, dark on T l, bright on T2,
and they enhance. They may be associated
with rostral or caudal cysts which are usually
benign syrinx(es).

1187
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

Astrocytoma list

A

Most common in child
Eccentric
Heterogenous
Enhancement

1188
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

Ependymoma list

A
Most common in Adults
 Central
Homogenous
Enhancement
More Often Hemorrhagic
1189
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

Epend ymoma

A

This is the most common primary
cord tumor o f the lower spinal cord and conus / filum
terminale. You can see them in the cervical cord as well.
This is the most common intramedullary mass in adults.
The “myxopapillary form” is exclusively found in the
conus /filum locations. They can be hemorrhagic, and
have a dark cap on T2. They have tumoral cysts about %
o f the time. They are a typically long segment (averaging
4 segments).

1190
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

Epend ymoma

Myxopapillary

A

Most commonly located in the Lumbar spine (conus/filum location)

1191
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

H em a n g io b la s tom a

A

These are associated with Von Hippel Lindau (30%).
The thoracic level is favored (second most common is
cervical).
The classic look is a wide cord with considerable edema.
Adjacent serpinginous draining meningeal varicosities can
be seen.

1192
Q

Cord Intramedullary:

In tram e d u lla ry M e ts

A

This is very very rare, but when it does happen it is usually lung (70%).

1193
Q

Cord Extramedullary Intradural

S chw an n om a

A

This is the most common tumor to occur in the Extramedullary
Intradural location. They are benign, usually solitary, usually arise from the dorsal nerve
roots. They can be multiple in the setting o f NF-2 and the Carney Complex. The appearance
is variable, but the classic look is a dumbbell with the skinny handle being the intraforaminal
component. They are T1 dark, T2 bright, and will enhance. They look a lot like
neurofibromas. If they have central necrosis or hemorrhage, that favors a schwannoma.

1194
Q

Cord Extramedullary Intradural

S chw an n om a list

A

Does NOT envelop the adjacent nerve root
Solitary
Multiple makes you think NF-2
Cystic change / Hemorrhage

1195
Q

Cord Extramedullary Intradural

N eu ro fib rom a

A

This is another benign nerve tumor (composed o f all parts o f the nerve:
nerve + sheath), that is also usually solitary. There are two flavors: solitary and plexiform.
The plexiform is a multilevel bulky nerve enlargement that is pathognomonic for NF-1.
Their lifetime risk for malignant degeneration is around 5-10%. Think about malignant
degeneration in the setting o f rapid growth. They look a lot like schwannomas. If they have
a hyperintense T2 rim with a central area o f low signal - “target sign” that makes you favor
neurofibroma.

1196
Q

Cord Extramedullary Intradural

N e u ro fib rom a list

A

Does envelop the adjacent nerve root
(usually a dorsal sensory root)
Solitary
Associated with NF -1 (even when single)
T2 bright rim, T2 dark center “target sign”
Plexiform = Pathognomonic for NF-1

1197
Q

Cord Extramedullary Intradural

M enin gioma

A

These guys adhere to but do not originate from the dura. They are more
common in women (70%). They favor the posterior lateral thoracic spine, and the anterior
cervical spine. They enhance brightly and homogeneously. They are often T1 iso to hypo,
and slightly T2 bright. They can have calcifications.

1198
Q

Cord Extramedullary Intradural

Drop Mets

A

Medulloblastoma is the most common primary tumor to drop. Breast cancer
is the most common systemic tumor to drop (followed by lung and melanoma). The cancer
may coat the cord or nerve root, leading to a fine layer o f enhancement (“zuckerguss”).

1199
Q

Cord Extradural

V e r te b ra l H em a n g iom a

A

These are very common - seen in about 10% o f the
population. They classically have thickened trabeculae appearing as parallel linear densities
“jail bar” or “corduroy” appearance. In the vertebral body they are T1 and T2 bright,
although the extraosseuous components typically lack fat and are isointense on T 1 .

1200
Q

Cord Extradural

Os teoid O s teom a :

A

This is also covered in the MSK. chapter, but as a brief review
focusing on the spine, they love to involve the posterior elements (75%), and are rare after
age 30. They tend to have a nidus and surrounding sclerosis. The nidus is T2 bright and will
enhance. The classic story is night pain, improved with aspirin. Radiofrequency ablation can
treat them (under certain conditions).

1201
Q

Cord Extradural

O s te o b la s tom a :

A

This is similar to an Osteoid osteoma but larger than 1.5 cm. Again,
very often in the posterior elements - usually o f the cervical spine.

1202
Q

Cord Extradural

A n e u ry sm a l Bone Cyst

A

These guys are also covered in the MSK chapter. They also
like the posterior elements and are usually seen in the first two decades o f life. They are
expansile (as the name implies) and can have multiple fluid levels on T2. They can get big
and look aggressive.

1203
Q

Cord Extradural

G ian t Cell Tumor

A

These guys are also covered in the MSK chapter. These are common
in the sacrum, although rare anywhere else in the spine. You do n ’t see them in young kids.
If they show this, it’s going to be a lytic expansile lesion in the sacrum with no rim of
sclerosis

1204
Q

Cord Extradural

Chordoma

A

This is most common in the sacrum (they will want you to say clivus - that
is actually number 2). The thing to know is that a vertebral primary tends to be more
aggressive / malignant than its counter parts in the clivus or sacrum. The classic story in the
vertebral column is “involvement o f two or more adjacent vertebral bodies with the
intervening disc. ” Most are very T2 bright

1205
Q

Cord Extradural

Leu k em ia

A

They love to show it in the spine. You have loss o f the normal fatty marrow -
so it’s going to be homogeneously dark on T1. More on this in the MSK chapter

1206
Q

Cord Extradural

M e ts

A

The classic offenders are prostate,
breast, lung, lymphoma, and myeloma.
Think multiple lesions with low T1
signal. Cortical breakthrough or adjacent
paravertebral components are also helpful

1207
Q

V e r t e b r a P la n a :

A

The pancake flat vertebral body.
Just say Eosinophilic Granuloma in a ^ 3
kid (could be neuroblastoma met), and
Mets / Myeloma in an adult.

1208
Q

VHL Associations

A
• Pheochromocytoma
•CNS Hemangioblastoma
(cerebellum 75%, spine 25%)
•Endolymphatic Sac Tumor
•Pancreatic Cysts
•Pancreatic Islet Cell Tumors
•Clear Cell RCC