Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HFF > Random Things to remember (FINAL) > Flashcards

Random Things to remember (FINAL) Flashcards

1
Q

What nerves both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervate the foregut?

A

Greater splanchnic - Sym (T5-T9)

Vagas - Para

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What nerves both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervate the midgut?

A

Greater and Lesser splanchnic - Sym (T5-T11)

Vagas - Para

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerves both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervate the hindgut?

A

Lumbar and Sacral Splanchnic - Sym

Pelvic splanchic - para

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of atmosphere is O2?

A

about 21%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is volume of shunted blood called that passes through the pulmonary circulation/min?

A

physiologic shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

air that remains in the respiratory passages or arrives in alveoli that are not particularly perfused wiht blood is called what?

A

physiological dead space air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What portion of the lung has the highest VA/Q? meaning that is has less perfusion for the same amount of alveolar ventilation?

A

the upper part of the lung.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the average arterial partial pressure of oxygen as it leaves the lung?

A

95mm HG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the average arterial partial pressure of oxygen as it leaves the capillaries?

A

40mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a better way to deliver more oxygen to the tissues? increasing the partial pressure of O2 or increasing the amount of hemoglobin/RBCs?

A

increasing the amount of hemoglobin because it gives O2 something to bind to because it is not very soluble in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What molecule helps oxygen get off of hemoglobin more easily?

A

2,3 DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which effects regarding the blood’s capacity to handle CO2 and O2 are worded the same but named differently?

A

haldane effect (Oxygenation of blood) and bohr effect (pH of blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the percent of water in plasma?

A

92%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What vitamin is essential for clotting in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

A

vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

do allosteric enzymes follow MIchaelis-Menten kinetics?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where do allosteric enzymes have allosteric substrates bind?

A

not to the active site even if it is homotropic regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

do pacemaker cells like the SA and AV nodes have an absolute refractory period?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The strength of a cardiac muscle contraction is directly proportional to what?

A

the intracellular Calcium concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the bainbridge reflex?

A

it responds to changes in blood volume. Increases the heart rate when atrial pressure is high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a First Degree AV block?

A

when the PR interval is longer than it should be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a Second Degree Type I AV block?

A

When the PR interval is cyclically lengthening until a QRS complex is dropped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a Second Degree Type 2 AV block?

A

When the PR interval is normal but you get random dropping of QRS complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a Third Degree AV block?

A

When you have atria and ventricles that are not in sync with each other. They are both irregular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is bulk flow?

A

movement of protein free extracellular fluid and water soluble substances in and out through water filled pores or intercellular clefts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does the largest pressure drop happen in the vasculature?

A

the arterioles. That does not mean it is the lowest pressure it just means that is where we see the biggest drop in pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does glucose make a hemi acetal or hemiketal?

A

hemi acetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

does fructose make a hemi ketal or a hemi acetal?

A

hemi ketal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two sugars that make up lactose?

A

galactose and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the linkages between glucose molecules in cellulose?

A

Beta 1,4 linkages (we cannot break them down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What re the linkages between glucose moleules in starch?

A

Alpha 1,4 glucose linkages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What typical histological layer is the Pharynx missing making it only have 3 layers instead of the typical four that the rest of the digestive system has?

A

missing the muscularis mucosa/submucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the first digestive organ that has the typical four histological layers?

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what two things released by the digestive system cause HCL secretion?

A

gastrin and histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does ghrelin do?

A

cause a feeling of satiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does serotonin do?

A

gives pleasure when you eat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How much of HCL secretion is do to the brain sending signals preparing the body for food, (cephalic) and how much is controlled by gastric signalling?

A

30% cephalic
60% gastric
10% im not sure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which part of the small intestine is most responsible for the absorption of things?

A

jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which part of the small intestin is most responsible for chemical digestion?

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which part of the small intestine is most responsible fore absorption of lipid micelles?

A

ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what do brunner’s glands secrete mostly?

A

mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the purpose Microfold (M) cells in the gut?

A

THey are specialized epithelial cells that sit over Peyer’s patches and work as antigen presenting cells to the immune cells in the Peyer’s patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the purpose of enteroendocrine cells?

A

They are in charge of local and systemic signals relating to digestion and transit. They secrete things like CCK and Secretin and GIP and Peptide YY to cause things to happen in the gall bladder and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how are carbohydrates absorbed into the gut?

A

They are cotransported in the case of glucose with Sodium. Fructose however can just diffuse through the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do we get water to be absorbed in the gut?

A

we transport as much sodium into the intestinal cells as we can and then it draws the water into the cells because of osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) do?

A

stimulates insulin secretion by beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what does peptide YY do?

A

signals long term satiety to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What can superoxides and vitamin E do to help the body deal with free radicals that are formed?

A

They can accept the extra electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

name the 2 ways that ATP can be used for energy?

A

group transfer reaction

hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the Mesovarium?

A

portion of the broad ligament around the ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the female equivalent of the bulbourethral glands?

A

the greater vestibular gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What nerve innervates somatic sensation for the exterior third of the vaginal canal and the clitoris?

A

the pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

From what spinal cord levels does the pudendal nerve arise?

A

S2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What two modalities are in the pudendal nerve?

A

Somatic sensory and Somatic Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the innervation that causes the clitoris to erect?

A

Parasympathetic - Pelvic Splanchnic nerves (S2-S4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does noncompetitve inhibition do to Vmax and Km?

A

it reduces Vmax and does nothing to Km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does uncompetitive inhibition do to Vmax and Km?

A

reduces Vmax and Km moves to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does mixed inhibition do to the Vmax and Km?

A

reduces Vmax and Km moves to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What nerve is responsible for sensing stimulation in the male sexual response?

A

Pudendal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What nerve is responsible for Erection in the male sexual response? Is it para or sympathetic?

A

Pelvic Splanchnic nerves (parasympathetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What nerves are responsible for the Emission phase of the male sexual response? Is it para or sympathetic?

A

Lumbar and Sacral Splanchnic nerves (sympathetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What nerve is responsible fore Ejaculation in the male sexual response?

A

Pudendal nerve (somatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the artery that goes through the copora cavernosa?

A

central artery of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What causes constriction of the internal urethral sphincter?

A

Norepinephrine through the Lumbar and Sacral Splanchnic nerve innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What enzyme is critical for all endocytosis?

A

Rab GTPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What signalling pathway does Epinephrine use? to cause what?

A

G-protein and PLC signalling to cause vasoconstriction via release of calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What signaling pathway does Insulin use? to cause what?

A

RTK and MAPK signaling to transcription of genes needed for cellular growth and division (this is the example he wanted us to know)
PI3K signalling to cause the inactivation of GSK3 which will cause glycogen synthase to be activated and thus glycogen will be synthesized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

T/F: glucose is a molecular precursor to other things?

A

True: like amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the point of regulation for glycogenesis?

A

glycogen synthase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Glycogen has what linkages between glucose molecules?

A

Alpha 1,4 linkages with alpha 1,6 branch points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the action of glucose 6 phosphatase and what is the only organ in which it is found?

A

only found in the liver. Glucose 6 phosphatase takes off the phosphate from G6P to make it just Glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Is Phosphorylase enzyme active or inactive when phosphorylated? What metabolic signals cause it to be phosphorylated?

A

it is active when phosphorylated. Glucagon and epinephrine cause it to be phosphorylated so that it breaks down more glycogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the enzymes that are the points of regulation for glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?

A

PFK1 for glycolysis and

Frucose 1,6Bisphosphatase a.k.a. FBPase-1 for Gluconeeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the 4 enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis that are not invovled in glycolysis?

A

Glucose 6 phosphatase
Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
PEP carboxykinase
Pyruvate Carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the input costs of Gluconeogenesis?

A

4 ATP
2 GTP
2 NADH + H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the electron acceptor in Glycolysis and must be maintained for it to function?

A

NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the net products of Glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvate
2ATP
2 NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where do fructose and mannose enter the glycolysis pathway?

A

Fructose 6 Phosphate

78
Q

Where does galactose enter the glycolysis pathway

A

it actually enters “pre-glycolysis” at glucose 1 phosphate so not actually part of glycolysis

79
Q

The levels of what usually determine whether a cell is doing glycolysis or gluconeogenesis?

A

relative levels of AMP,ADP vs ATP

80
Q

What is NADPH critical for?

A

fatty acid synthesis

81
Q

WHere does NADPH come from?

A

comes from the pentose phosphate pathway

82
Q

Why does the body ferment pyruvate into lactate?

A

to regenerate NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue to happen in anaerobic conditions

83
Q

What does a mitochondria release when it is stressed that leads to cell death through the caspase system?

A

Cytochrome C

84
Q

What vitamin necessary for pyruvate dehydrogenase which converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA?

A

Pantothenic acid, Vitamin B5

85
Q

What is the enzyme that is involved in the Complex 2 of the Electron Transport chain as well as the Citric Acid cycle?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

86
Q

What caries electrons from complex 1 to complex 2 in the electron transport chain?

A

ubiquinone (Q)

87
Q

What is another name for complex 1 in the Electron Transport Chain

A

NADH dehydrogenase

88
Q

What does complex 3 of the electron transport chain transfer electrons to?

A

cytochrome C

89
Q

How many protons pumped equal one ATP made?

A

4 H= 1 ATP

90
Q

how many ATP does one NADH make? FADH?

A
  1. 5 for NADH

1. 5 for FADH

91
Q

What allows NADH to get into the matrix of the mitochondria?

A

the Malate Aspartate shuttle

92
Q

What allows NADH to be used in the brain and skeletal muscle and what is it converted to in order to be used?

A

it is the Glycerol 3 Phosphate shuttle and it is converted into FADH before it is used

93
Q

The neurocranium is divided into two parts. What are they?

A

The desmocranium, the external parts of the major skull bones.
The chondrocranium which is the area that connects to the viscerocranium

94
Q

Which 3 bones are part of the viscero and neurocranium?

A

SET
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Temporal

95
Q

the superior and middle conchae are part of what bone?

A

ethmoid bone

96
Q

What are the two ways that fatty acids are transported in the blood?

A

on the albumin in the blood - for free fatty acids

in lipoproteins - for triglycerides

97
Q

The more protein you have in a lipoprotein, the ________ dense you are and the _________ TGAs you can hold.

A

more; less

98
Q

Which densities of lipoproteins are responsible for being the carriers of cholesterol even though all of them have it?

A

HDL and LDL

99
Q

Which lipoprotein delivers fats to the different appropriate tissues and then becomes LDL?

A

VLDL

100
Q

When a Triacylglyceride breaks down what are the products? What happens to those products to turn them into energy?

A

glycerol - goes into glycolysis at the GAP-ish level

3 fatty acids - becomes fatty acyl CoAs that can be use in beta oxidation.

101
Q

Where does Beta oxidation take place and how does it get into that organelle?

A

it takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria and it uses the Carnitine shuttle to get into the matrix

102
Q

How many ATP does one molecule of Palmitoyl-CoA produce?

A

108

103
Q

WHat is produced per beta oxidation step?

A

1 NADH
1 FADH
1 Acetyl Coa

104
Q

Under what conditions are fatty acids turned into Acetyl Coa and then into ketone bodies instead of entering the citric acid cycle?

A

starvation or lack of oxygen states

105
Q

What does acetyl coa need to be turned into to be used to synthesize fatty acids? When enzyme adds those molecules together to synthesize fatty acids?

A

malonyl CoA

fatty acid synthase 1 (FAS1) takes those and builds a fatty acid

106
Q

How Does acetyl coa in the matrix of the mitochondria leave and go to the cytoplasm where fatty acid synthesis occurs?

A

the citrate shuttle

107
Q

the citrate shuttle and the pentose phosphate pathway both create what unique molecule?

A

NADPH - which is absolutely necessary for the synthesis of fatty acids

108
Q

What enzyme adds takes acetyl coa and and makes malonyl coa? What B vitamin is necessary for this process

A

acetyl coa carboxylase

109
Q

What vitamin takes malonyl CoAs to the growing fatty acid chain in fatty acid synthesis?

A

Vitamin B5 - Pantothenic acid

110
Q

What enzyme’s activity (regulated by glucagon or insulin) determines whether we synthesize or break down fatty acids?

A

acetyl-Coa carboxylase

111
Q

What other macromolecule (beside fatty acids) that is necessary for synthesis of steroid hormones is also created by using acetyl coa?

A

Cholesterol

112
Q

What are the fascia layers in between the vertebrae and the esophagus from anterior to posterior

A

buccopharyngeal fascia
alar fascia
prevertebral fascia

113
Q

What nerve innervates each belly of the digastric muscle?

A

anterior - V3

Posterior - CN 7

114
Q

What nerve innervates the stylohyoid muscle?

A

CN 7

115
Q

Where do the scalenes attach to at both ends?

A

the. middle and anterior - C3-8 and then to the 1st rib

posterior - C3-8 to 2nd rib

116
Q

What nerve is in the submandibular triangle?

A

CN 12 - Hypoglossal

117
Q

What is the main nerve that is in the carotid triangle? Hint: it is in the carotid sheath?

A

CN 10

118
Q

what do delta cells of the islet of langerhans secrete? What is its funciton?

A

somatostatin - inhibits Pancreatic exocrine and endocrine function

119
Q

In the liver Zone III is around what structure and is it oxygen poor or oxygen rich?

A

Zone III is around the central veins of the lobules and it is oxygen poor

120
Q

CN 1 is technically part of what part of the brain?

A

the telencephelon

121
Q

CN 2 is technically part of what part of the brain?

A

the diencephelon

122
Q

what is the function of the lingual nerve coming off of V3?

A

sensory innervation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

123
Q

What nerve runs with Lingual nerve to innervate taste for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and salivary glands of the mouth?

A

Chorda Tympani

124
Q

What nerve innervates stylopharyngeus?

A

CN 9

125
Q

What are the two nerves that innervate the pharyngeal constrictors?

A

CN 10

126
Q

What is the only nerve of all the eye nerves to go through the optic canal? Where do all the other ones enter the orbit?

A

optic nerve goes through the optic canal

CN 3, 4, 6, V1 all go through the Superior Orbital Fissure

127
Q

What 2 things go through the foramen spinosum? 1 artery; 1 nerve

A

middle meningeal artery and the meningeal branch of V3

128
Q

Where does the lesser petrosal nerve exit the skull?

A

foramen ovale

129
Q

Where does chorda tympani exit the skull?

A

the petrotympanic fissure

130
Q

What things go through the jugular foramen?

A

Internal Jugular vein
Posterior meningeal artery
CN 9, 10, 11

131
Q

What goes through the condylar canal?

A

the condylar vein

132
Q

What is the major artery that supplies the midbrain?

A

posterior cerebral artery as well as the superior cerebellar artery

133
Q

what are the 3 arteries that supply the medulla?

A

PICA
Vertebral
Anterior Spinal

134
Q

What is the dura layer in between the cerebellum and the cerebrum?

A

Tentorium Cerebelli

135
Q

Hitting the Pteryion and breaking the skull may cause a rupture in the middle meningeal artery. What kind of hematoma would this be?

A

epidural hematoma

136
Q

A subdural hematoma usually results in the rupture of what? arteries or veins?

A

veins

137
Q

What are the intrinsic tongue muscles?

A

superior longitudinal
transverse
vertical
inferior longitudinal

138
Q

What glossus muscle is innervated by CN 10? What other nearby muscle is innervated by CN 10?

A

palatoglossus

Palatopharyngeus is also innervated by CN 10

139
Q

what nerve dives down through the incisive foramen?

A

the nasopalatine nerve

140
Q

what 3 muscles elevate the pharynx?

A

palatopharyngeus
stylopharyngeus
salpingopharyngeus

141
Q

All Pharyngeal muscles are innervated by what CN? except for one muscle. What is that muscle and the CN that controls it?

A

CN 10 does all of the pharyngeal muscles 3except for stylopharyngeus which is innervated by CN 9

142
Q

what is the cartilage that the vocal folds attach to?

A

arytenoid cartilage

143
Q

what are the branches of the lingual artery?

A

sublingual
deep branches
dorsal branches

144
Q

What are the two fairly big arteries that supply the muscles of facial expression?

A

Facial

Superficial Temporal

145
Q

T/F: The medial hard palate has neither a submucosa nor a lamina propria

A

False: It has no submucosa but DOES have a lamina propria to attach the epithelium to the bone

146
Q

which typical stratified squamous epithelium layers are missing from the lining mucosa of the mouth?

A

Corneum and Granulosum

147
Q

what immune cells are in the epithelium of the oral mucosa?

A

langerhans cells

148
Q

which taste buds are NON-keratinized?

A

fungiform and follate

149
Q

von ebner’s glands are associated with which type of taste buds?

A

circumvallate

150
Q

ornithine is critical for disposing of what waste product?

A

urea

151
Q

the urea cycle takes place in what two locations within a liver hepatocyte?

A

the mitochondria and the cytoplasm

152
Q

in the urea cycle, glutamate donates its two ammonia ions and creates what to molecules which are then exported out of the mitochondria and donate their ammonia ions to create urea.

A

carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate

153
Q

how are the citric acid cycle and the urea cycle linked?

A

through the arginino succinte shut of the citric acid cycle and the fact that the urea cycle gives off a fumarate that can then rejoin the citric acid cycle

154
Q

what two vitamins are important for one carbon transfer reactions for amino acids?

A

Biotin B7

Folic Acid B9 - for Tetrahydrofolate

155
Q

what nerves does the greater petrossal run with to get to the lacrimal gland?

A

the zygomatic nerve and then hops over to the lacrimal nerve

156
Q

Which six amino acids can be degraded to pyruvate? This one is very important

A 
SGT CAT
serine
glycine
threonine
Cysteine
Alanine
Tryptophan
157
Q

Which Seven amino acids can be degraded to acetyl coa

A 
PITTTLL
Phenylalanine
Isoleucine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Tyrosine
Leucine
Lysine
158
Q

Which five amino acids are degraded to alpha ketoglutarate? This one is very important

A 
PHAGG
Proline
Histidine
Arginine
Glutamine
Glutamate
159
Q

Which four amino acids are degraded to succinyle coa

A 
TIM V
Threonine
Isoleucine
Methionine
Valine
160
Q

Which 2 amino acids are degraded to Oxaloacetate?

A

Asparagine

Aspartate

161
Q

Name the three RNA polymerases and what kind of RNA that each creates?

A

RNA Polymerase 1,2,3 and r,m,t respectively

162
Q

the elongation step in translation is dependent on hydrolysis of what energy molecule?

A

GTP

163
Q

WHat are the seven precursors used to create some amino acids in humans?

A

3 phosphoglycerate
PEP
pyruvate

ribose 5 phosphate
erythrose 6 phosphate

oxaloacetate
alpha ketoglutarate

164
Q

In humans 3 phosphoglycerate can be used to synthesize which 3 amino acids?

A

glycine
serine
cystine

165
Q

Erythrose 6 phosphate and PEP can both be use to synthesize what in humans?

A

tyrosine

166
Q

Pyruvate can be used to synthesize what amino acid in humans?

A

alanine

167
Q

Oxaloacetate can be used to synthesize what 2 amino acids in humans?

A

aspartate and asparagine

168
Q

Alpha keto glutarate can be used to sythesize what Amino acids in humans

A

Glutamate —> Glutamine, Proline and Arginine

169
Q

Can the kidney do gluconeogenesis?

A

yes during fasting states

170
Q

what is the difference between cortical nephrons and juxtamedulary nephrons?

A

juxtamedullary are close to the medulla and have long loops of Henle

171
Q

principle cells in the distal tubule of the kidney do what?

A

they reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+

172
Q

the intercalated cells in the distal tubule of the kidney do what?

A

they absorb K+ and bicarb and secrete H+

173
Q

medullary collecting ducts are permeable to what? This allows them to add to the concentration of the countercurrent exchange

A

urea

174
Q

why is it good to have urea in the medulla of the kidney?

A

it allows even more urea to be excreted with as little water loss as possible because the urea stays in the urine instead of using osmosis to come back into the body

175
Q

what two things to theca cells secrete?

A

androgens to stimulate the granulosa cells and Estrogens

176
Q

what is the purpose of inhibins?

A

to negative feedback to the anterior pituitary

177
Q

LH mainly acts on what cells in the female?

A

theca cells

178
Q

FSH mainly acts on what cells in the female?

A

the granulosa cells

179
Q

following ovulation the Granulosa cells switch from E2 producing to what?

A

progesterone

180
Q

what is the hormone that is secreted that maintains the corpus luteum?

A

HCG which comes from the implanted egg

181
Q

what does HCG do to the corpus luteum?

A

it prompts it to secrete more estrogen and progesterone to prevent further ovulation

182
Q

T/F: adrenocortical hormones are steroid compounds

A

True

183
Q

What is the function of aldosterone concerning sodium and potassium?

A

it increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion by the renal tubular epithelial cells in the collecting duct and distal tubules

184
Q

which parts of the duodenum are secondary retroperitoneal?

A

2 - descending

3 - horizontal

185
Q

which organs are retroperitoneal?

A

Retro Kids party down to AC/DC records

186
Q

Which vitamins are essential?

A

B1,2,3,5,6,7,9,12 and vitamins ADECK are all essential

187
Q

Which vitamins are potentially toxic?

A

A, E, B3, B6, C

188
Q

Pregnant women who are vegetarian or rarely eat meat are at risk of being deficient in what Vitamin?

A

B2 - Riboflavin

189
Q

what are the five common drugs given to Type 2 diabetics?

A 
sulfonylureas
metformin
peroxisome Proliferator
alpha glucosidase inhibitors
combinations of those
190
Q

which sinus lymph does not drain into the submandibular nodes?

A

Sphenoid - retropharyngeal

191
Q

does nerve to sublcavious come off above or below the clavicle in the brachial plexus?

A

above

192
Q

what do P-glycoproetins do?

A

transports drug molecules from cells back into the intestinal lumen for excretion

HFF (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions