Random Recall Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of APAS in pregnant patient

A

heparin + aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Low C3 only

A

PSGN and MPGN type 2 (DDD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Low C3 and C4

A

Shunt nephritis, Lupus, Cyrgoglobulinemia, MPGN Type 1, Bacterial endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IgG and positive bandlike subendothelial immune deposits + subendothelial mesangial deposits

A

MPGN Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mimic MCD and FSGS

A

C1q nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

renal changes in pre-eclampsia

A

glomerular endotheliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

UTI suppressive treatment in pregnant

A

nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

crystalluria

A

cusira: calcium oxalate, urates, sulfonamides, indinavir, radio iodinated contrast, acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aceinhibitor with no renal dose adjustment in HD patients

A

imidapril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If captopril decrease GFR by 35%

A

suspect RAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

renal cell carcinoma which produce mucin

A

collecting duct carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

differentiate cell mediated vs humoral rejection

A

negative C4D stain - cell mediated; positive C4D: humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common cause of delayed graft function

A

ischemic ATN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

KT drug that can cause gout

A

cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

can increase CNI level

A

verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

decrease CNI level

A

anti TB and anti seizure drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PTH in phosphorus reabsorption

A

decrease kidney; increase gut absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

erectile dysfunction in CKD

A

blunt increase in LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

risk factor with paradoxical protective effect in HD

A

obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

first line drugs for restless leg syndrome

A

levodopa and pramiprexole (2) gabapentin and carbamezipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

first line for skin xerosis with pruritus

A

capsaicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

platelet effect on CKD

A

impaired interaction of platelets with vascular endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DM more common in what post KT drug

A

Tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

glucose intolerance as an effect of which post KT drug

A

prednisone, cyclospporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how many weeks before conception should MMF be shifted to another post KT drug
6 weeks before concenption
26
absolute contraindication to KT
positive T cell crossmatch
27
acute cellular rejection treatment
pulse steroids
28
obesity
reduced adiponectin; increased leptin, resistin, IL6, TNFa
29
high BP in the office and normal BP values in the out of office enviroment
white coat hypertension
30
normal BP in the office but high BP in ambulatory setting
masked hypertension
31
sleep BP that falls less than 10% compared with awake levels
nondipper (normal 15-20% dip)
32
useful to monitor orthostatic hypotension
home bp monitoring
33
evaluate Na and K intake
24h urine collection
34
treatment for low renin hypertension
alpha blocker
35
treatment for acute aortic dissection
lower BP within 20 mins to a sbp < 120
36
most common immunulogic cause of AIN
acute allograft rejection
37
target K in AKI
less than 5.5
38
when to treat met acid in AKI
hco3 < 15, pH < 7.15-7.2
39
average annual decline in egfr in DM
2.1-2.7
40
target pth in CKD
150-300
41
most important regulator of intestinal absorption
dietary phosphate
42
recommeded daily allowance for Pi
800 mg/day
43
Schistosoma species often involved in GN
S. mansoni
44
First line therapy for treatment naïve patients with metastatic CA
Bevacizumab + IFN alpha
45
Treatment Non-pseudomonal gram negative enterobacteria
3rd Gen cephalosporins or aminoglycosides
46
More important CD class early after transplant
CD8
47
critical for indirect allorecognition later in the transplant course
CD4
48
compression of the left renal vein between the aorta and superior mesenteric artery
renal nutrcacker
49
Cells responsible for EPO production
peritubular fibroblast
50
RCC well differentiated neoplastic cells with intensely eosinophilic granular cytoplasm
oncocytoma
51
RCC with hepatic dysfunction in the absence of metastases
Stauffer syndrome
52
RCC with excellent prognosis
Chromophobe / Sarcomatoid
53
Most common malignant cause of UTO
Cervical Cancer
54
collecting sample for BUN
Slow pump to 100 ml/min for 10 seconds then stopping pump before sampling
55
Accepted parameter for dialyzer reuse
→ fiber bundle volume must be greater than 80% of the initial value, and the dialyzer should hold greater than 80% of the maximal operating pressure
56
Buffer of free radicals in Wisconsin solution
Hydroxyethyl starch
57
Buffer in HTK solution
Histidine
58
More sensitive assay for detecting donor anti-HLA antibody
Flow cytometric cross-match assay
59
kidney disease presenting with membrane blebs on RBC
glomerular
60
urine sediment seen in patients with nephrotic range proteinuria
oval fat bodies
61
hyponat of pregnancy appears to be mediated by
relaxin
62
medication when combined with antimicrobials that provide palliation for patients who cannot undergo surgery
acetohydroxamic acid
63
Type of classic decoy cells
Type 1
64
GBM in thin basement memberane disease
150-250 nm
65
initial management in thrombotic microangiopathy post transplant
discontinue CNI
66
diuretic of choice in patients with GFR below 30
Torsemide
67
ace inhibitor less likely to cause cough
imidapril
68
initial lab test to investigate presence of comorbid condition, seoncdary causes or target organ damage in a newly diagnosed htn
ECG
69
key renal regulatory response to mild increase in blood pressure
pressure natriuresis
70
pathophysiology of ankle edema secondary to calcium channel blocker
precapillary vasodilation
71
hypertensive emergency medication that provides acute improvement in renal function, lacks toxic metabolites and has specific renal vasodilating effects
fenoldopam
72
water exiting the reverse osmosis unit
permeate
73
changes in GFR are offset by changes in the tubular reabsorption of fluid and NaCl; independent of direct neuronal and systemic hormonal control
glomerulotubular balance
74
low angiotensin levels
NaCl reabsorption
75
fine tuning of K excretion
distal nephron
76
principal effector molecule of RAS
angiotensin II
77
arterial pressure that can trigger renin secertion
< 90 mmHg
78
angiotensin peptide with a predominant role in vasopressin release
AT III
79
strongest expression of SGLT1
S3 of PCT
80
plasma glucose threshold where glucose should begin to be excreted int he urine
280 mg/dL
81
SGLT2 inhibitor decrease glomerular hyperfiltration via TGF by what mechanism
constriction of afferent arteriole
82
major transporter of cationic drugs and metabolites
SLC22A2
83
main apical transporter for anionic amino acids in the proximal tubule
EAAT3
84
Increase in tubular flow causes increase in NaCl delivery and Ca influx leading to decrease in renin
Tubuloglomerular feedback
85
Uosm 280 in spg
1.008 or 1.009 | inc in UOsm 35-40, rises to 0.001
86
Proteinuria in fanconi and dent disease
Tubular
87
Proteinuria in myeloma and rhabdo
overflow
88
Proteinuria in infection stones
post renal
89
glomerular hematuria
10-80% dysmorphic rbc | > 2-5% acathocytes
90
casts in chronic renal failure
broad casts
91
atn cast
tubular epithelial cell
92
most common n benign neoplasm less than 2-3 cm
renal adenoma