Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Random Questions > Flashcards

Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors (3):

A

Trimethoprim (microbes), methotrexate (antimetabolite, rapidly prolif cells), pyrimethamine (parasites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which structure contains the nerves, arteries, and vessels supplying the ovary?

A

Suspensory ligament of ovary (infundibulopelvic ligament) Ligate during oophorectomy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infectious Urethritis tx:

A

Ceftriaxone (gonorrhea) + Doxycycline or macrolide like azithro (chlamydia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When a study population affects the outcome of the study because they know they are being studied, this is called:

A

Hawthorne effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A bias that results from selecting hospitalized patients as the control group is called:

A

Berkson’s Bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Researcher’s beliefs in the efficacy of tx that can potentially affect the outcome are called:

A

Pygmalion effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lead-time bias

A

apparent prolongation of survival after applying a screening test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ototoxic drugs (4)

A

loop diuretics, aminoglycosides, salicylates, cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Renal Cell Carcinoma origin:

A

epithelium of proximal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Uncal Herniation

A

Medial Temporal Lobe (downwards - transtentorial/central) Compresses: Ipsi CN III - fixed, dilated pupil, down and out gaze Ipsi PCA - Contra homonymous hemianopsia Contra crus cerebri (CP) - ipsilateral paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cinculate Herniation

A

Subfalcine, under falx cerebri Can compress ACA - contralateral lower limb motor/sensory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cerebellar Tonsillar Herniation

A

into foramen magnum Compress brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mature Defenses:

A

SASH Sublimation, Altruism, Suppression, Humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Depression: Neurotransmitter Changes

A

DECREASED NE, 5-HT, DA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

VHL associations

A

AD, capillary hemangiolastomas in retina &/or cerebellum, cavernous hemangiomas, pheochromocytomas, congenital cysts in kidney, liver, pancreas, risk for bilateral renal cell carcinoma cs 3, constit expression of HIF (tf) and activ of angiogenic gfs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis

A

AD, kidney, liver, pancreatic cysts, CNS cortical and subependymal hamartomas, cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum), visceral cysts, renal angiomyolipomas, cardiac rhabdomyomas, seizures, mental retardation, subependymal astrocytomas, ungal fibromas, shagreen patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

A

hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia AD inheritance of congenital telangiectasias. Rupture may cause epistaxis, GI bleeding, or hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BH4 is cofactor for syth of:

A

Tyrosine (phenylalanine hydroxylase), DOPA (tyrosine hydroxylase), Serotonin (from tryptophan), and NO (from arginine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Alkaptonuria

A

AR, defic of homogentisic acid oxidase - breaks down homogentisic acid, toxic tyrosine to fumarate degradation byproduct - harmful to bones and cartilage. Dark CT, brown pigmented sclerae, urine turns black on prolonged exposure to air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which statin is not metabolized by CYP 3A4?

A

Pravastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CYP 450 Inducers:

A

Carbamazepine Phenobarbital Phenytoin Rifampin Griseofulvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CYP 450 Inhibitors:

A

Cimetidine Ciprofloxacin Erythromycin Azole antifungals Grapefruit juice Isoniazid Ritonavir (PIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which BLs are not susceptible to penicillinase?

A

Cephalosporins, carbapenems, and penicillinase-resistant penicillins (nafcillin, methicillin…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drugs are effective against Mycoplasma and why can’t you use most others?

A

Anti-ribosomal agents like macrolides, tetracyclines They lack peptidoglycan cell walls, so cell wall syth inhibitors don’t work. They have a single phospholipid bilayer membrane, containing cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Meds that can prolong QT:

A

Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT: Sotalol Risperidone (APDs) Macrolides Chloroquine Protease Inhibitors (-navir) Quinidine (class 1a; also class 3) Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Act on nuclear receptors:

A

Thyroid hormones, retinoids, PPARs, fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

TK Receptors

A

Insulin, growth factors (epidermal growth factor, TGF-beta) Extracellular ligand binding domain, transmembrane region, and carboxy-terminal domain with TK activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GPCRs:

A

Peptide hormones (glucagon, PTH, ACTH, gonadotropins) Hormone binds N terminal, C terminal activates G-protein, which increases second messengers like cAMP by activ. adenylyl cyclase. Also can increase PLC and form IP3 and DAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cytoplasmic Receptors:

A

steroid hormones, migrate to nucleus once activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DA agonists for PD:

A

Ergot: bromocriptine, pergolide Nonergot: pramipexole, ropinirole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Amantadine

A

Enhances effects of endogenous DA, some anticholinergic prop perhaps too Antiviral influenza agent

32
Q

MAO-B inhibitor that delays PD progression:

A

Selegiline, decreases central DA degradation

33
Q

Findings of DIC:

A

Prolonged PTT and PT Thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Low fibrinogen Elevated fibrin split pdts (D-dimer) Low factor V and VIII levels

34
Q

Intravascular hemolysis findings:

A

Decreased haptoglobin Increased LDH, schistocytes, and reticulocytes Urobilinogen in urine

35
Q

Extravascular hemolysis findings

A

Spherocytes Increased LDH and unconjugated bilirubin, causes jaundice, pigmented gallstones

36
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains:

A

Factor VIII, XIII, vWF, and fibrinogen

37
Q

NADPH Consumed in:

A

fatty acid and steroid synthesis, CYP p450 pathway, generation of superoxide in phagocytes So oxidative rxns of HMP shunt are active in liver, adrenal cortex, gonads, adipose, and erythrocytes

38
Q

Insulin MOA:

A

Inhibits glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis. Promotes synth of glycogen, TAGs, nucleic acids, and proteins (anabolic) TK receptor causes phosphoryl of insulin receptor substrates, leads to activation of protein phosphatase. Protein phosphatase dephosphorylates glycogen synthase, which ACTIVATES it and promotes glycogen synthesis Also dephosphorylates fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphatase which INACTIVATES it and inhibits gluconeogenesis

39
Q

Positive stranded RNA viruses:

A

retro, toga, flavi, corona, hepe, calici, picorna

40
Q

Naked DNA viruses:

A

PAPP Papilloma, Adeno, Parvo, Polyoma

41
Q

Naked RNA viruses:

A

CPR Hepe Calici, Picorna, Reo, Hepe

42
Q

dsRNA:

A

Reovirus Naked, linear, icosahedral

43
Q

Which kidney stones precipitate at an increased pH?

A

Calcium phosphate, struvite CaOxalate, Uric Acid, Cystine all precip at acidic pH

44
Q

Which type of kidney stones are radiopaque?

A

CaPO4, CaOxalate, Struvite, Cystine

45
Q

Which stones are radiolucent?

A

Uric Acid = radiolUcent

46
Q

Ketogenic AA’s/importance

A

Leucine and Lysine (lysine is essential) Don’t contribute to lactic acidosis because not glucogenic. Contrib towards acetoacetate production. Important for PDH deficiency: give ketogenic diet

47
Q

Tumors that stain positive for keratin:

A

Epithelial surface origin: carcinoma, mesothelioma, thymoma, sarcomas, trophoblastic, desmoplastic small round cell tumors

48
Q

Cofactors in PDH, Alpha-ketoglutarate DH, and Alpha-ketoacid DH (degrades branched chain AAs, defic causes maple syrup dz):

A

Tender Loving Care For Nancy TPP, Lipoate, CoA, FAD, NAD

49
Q

Lead Poisoning Tx:

A

Dimercaprol and EDTA

50
Q

Copper Chelation:

A

Penicillamine

51
Q

Drugs like Isoniazid that have fast and slow acetylators:

A

dapsone, hydralazine, procainamide

52
Q

Ulcer vs. Erosion:

A

Erosion is limited to mucosal layer, doesn’t fully extend through muscularis mucosa. Ulcer penetrates through mucosal layer and into submucosal layer.

53
Q

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency:

A

Can’t produce ketone bodies during fasting due to impaired beta-oxidation. Can’t utilize fats for energy or prod ketone bodies. Gluconeogenesis is impaired during fasting, and glucose consump is increased, causing hypoglycemia

54
Q

Essential Fructosuria:

A

fructokinase deficiency, AR, benign, frucosuria

55
Q

Fructose intolerance:

A

Aldolase B deficiency, AR, F-1-P accum, decreases available phosphate, inhibits glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis Hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, vomiting

56
Q

Retroperitoneal organs:

A

SAD PUCKER Suprarenal glands, Aorta/IVC, Duodenum (2-4 parts), Pancreas (except tail), Ureters, Colon (descending and ascending), Kidneys, Esophagus (lower 2/3), Rectum (lower 2/3)

57
Q

MEN 1:

A

Parathyroid tumor (hypercalcemia) Pancreatic endocrine tumor (gastrin, ZES, insulinoma, VIPoma) Pituitary adenoma (prolactin, ACTH)

58
Q

MEN 2a:

A

assoc with ret mutation Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (calcitonin) Pheochromocytoma Parathyroid tumor

59
Q

MEN 2b:

A

assoc with ret mutation Medullary carcinoma of thyroid Pheochromocytoma Marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromas

60
Q

Hartnup Disease:

A

AR, deficiency of neutral AA transporters in PT and on enterocytes. Get neutral aminoaciduria and decreased absorp from gut. Tryptophan-get B3 deficiency, pellagra

61
Q

Renal Tubular Acidosis:

A

Non-anion gap hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

62
Q

RTA Type 1:

A

Distal, urine pH > 5.5, defect in ability of alpha intercalated cells to secrete H+, don’t generate new HCO3-, get metabolic acidosis. Hypokalemia, incr risk of CaPO4 kidney stones (b/c incr urine pH) Causes: ampho B, analgesic nephropathy, congenital anom (obstruction)

63
Q

RTA Type 2:

A

Proximal, urine pH < 5.5 (b/c distal segs still can secrete H+). Defect in PT HCO3- reabsorption. Hypokalemia, incr risk for hypophosphatemic rickets Causes: Fanconi syndr (eg. Wilson dz), toxicity to PT (lead, aminoglycosides), MM, CA inhibitors

64
Q

RTA Type 4:

A

hyperkalemic, pH < 5.5. Hypoaldosteronism, aldosterone resistance, or K sparing diuretics. Hyperkalemia impars ammoniagenesis in PT, so decr H+ excretion into urine

65
Q

Nitrate poisoning effect by: Tx:

A

Oxidizing the heme to the ferric (3+) state, get methemoglobinemia Tx: methylene blue

66
Q

Entacapone:

A

COMT inhibitor, increases bioavailability of levodopa by inhibiting peripheral methylation. Only effective if used with levodopa! also Tolcapone: hepatotoxic, inhibits peripheral and central methylation

67
Q

Crohns Dz most frequently involved site:

A

Terminal ileum

68
Q

Pleural Effusion: transudate vs exudate

A

Exudate if pleural:fluid protein > 0.5 or plural:serum LDH > 0.6 or pleural LDH > 2/3 ULN

69
Q

How does GABAa Receptor function?

A

inhibitory nt, opening Cl- channel to hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell

70
Q

Caudal regression syndrome

A

sacral agenesis, anal atresia to sirenomelia

71
Q

maternal diabetes teratogenic effects:

A

caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects (TGV), neural tube defects, macrosomia, hypoglycemia

72
Q

Ebstein anomaly

A

atrialized RV lithium teratogenic effect

73
Q

Menkes disease

A

CT dz caused by impaired Cu absorp/transport Get decreased activity of lysyl oxidase (crosslinks tropocollagen) –>brittle, kinky hair, growth retardation, hypotonia

74
Q

Hypertensive emergency:

A

180/120 w/ evidence of acute, ongoing target organ damage

75
Q

Urease positive bugs

A

Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus

76
Q

VIPoma

A

pancreatic tumor secretes VIP

watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria (WDHA)

-increases intest H2O and electrolyte secretion, increases relax of sm mm and sphincters

77
Q

Parinaud Syndrome

A

Pineal gland tumor, usually a germinoma

Compresses tectal area, dorsal midbrain, above SC

paralysis of convergence, upward gaze, absent pupillary light reflex, wide based gait

Step 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions