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1
Q

What are the four strokes of a four-stroke piston engine?

A
  1. Intake, 2. Compression, 3. Power, 4. Exhaust
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2
Q

What is the purpose of the cylinder in a piston engine?

A

The cylinder houses the piston and provides the space where the air-fuel mixture is compressed and ignited.

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3
Q

What is the function of the piston in a light aircraft engine?

A

The piston moves within the cylinder, compressing the air-fuel mixture and transferring combustion energy to mechanical motion.

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4
Q

What does the carburettor do in a light aeroplane engine?

A

The carburettor mixes air and fuel in the correct ratio for combustion and delivers it to the engine.

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5
Q

What are the signs of carburettor icing?

A
  • Drop in RPM (fixed-pitch propeller)

Rough engine operation

Reduced manifold pressure (constant-speed propeller)

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6
Q

What causes carburettor icing?

A

Carburettor icing occurs when the temperature drop due to fuel vaporization and pressure decrease in the venturi causes water vapor to freeze.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the carburettor heat?

A

Carburettor heat is used to prevent or remove ice by directing hot air into the carburettor.

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8
Q

What is the function of the spark plug?

A

The spark plug ignites the compressed air-fuel mixture in the cylinder, initiating the power stroke.

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9
Q

Name the components of the ignition system.

A
  • Magnetos

Spark plugs

Ignition leads

Switches

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10
Q

What does the crankshaft do?

A

The crankshaft converts the linear motion of the pistons into rotational motion to drive the propeller.

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11
Q

What is the function of the oil system in a piston engine?

A
  • Lubricates engine components

Cools the engine by reducing friction

Cleans by carrying debris to the oil filter

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12
Q

At what conditions is carburettor icing most likely to occur?

A
  • Temperatures between -5°C and +15°C

High humidity conditions

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13
Q

How can you test for carburettor icing during flight?

A

Apply carburettor heat; if icing is present, RPM or manifold pressure will initially drop and then increase as the ice melts.

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14
Q

What is the function of the exhaust system in a light aircraft engine?

A

The exhaust system removes combustion gases from the engine and reduces noise.

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15
Q

What is the function of the throttle?

A

The throttle controls the amount of air-fuel mixture entering the engine, thus regulating power output.

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16
Q

What is the function of magnetos in an aircraft engine?

A

Magnetos generate electrical energy for the spark plugs independently of the aircraft’s electrical system.

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17
Q

Why do aircraft engines have dual magnetos?

A

Dual magnetos provide redundancy for safety and improve engine efficiency and performance by firing two spark plugs per cylinder.

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18
Q

How do you test magnetos during a pre-flight check?

A

Perform a magneto drop check by switching to ‘Left’ and ‘Right’ magnetos individually and noting the drop in RPM. Ensure the drop is within acceptable limits and consistent between both.

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19
Q

What type of cooling system is commonly used in light aircraft engines?

A

Most light aircraft engines use an air-cooling system.

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20
Q

How does the air-cooling system work in a light aircraft engine?

A

Cooling fins around the cylinders dissipate heat, and airflow from the propeller and cowling directs air over these fins to maintain temperature.

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21
Q

What is the function of engine oil in the cooling process?

A

Engine oil absorbs and carries away heat from engine components to the oil cooler.

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22
Q

What are the consequences of engine overheating?

A
  • Detonation (uncontrolled combustion)
  • Pre-ignition
  • Reduced engine performance
  • Potential engine damage
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23
Q

How can you prevent engine overheating during flight?

A
  • Monitor engine instruments (CHT and oil temperature)
  • Use proper climb speeds
  • Enrich the fuel mixture
  • Increase airflow by opening cowl flaps if equipped
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24
Q

What should you do if carburettor icing is suspected during flight?

A
  • Apply full carburettor heat immediately
  • Monitor for changes in RPM or manifold pressure
  • Wait for the engine to stabilize before reducing carb heat
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25
Q

What are the steps to follow in the event of an engine failure in flight?

A
  1. ABC Procedure:

A: Airspeed – Maintain best glide speed.

B: Best place to land – Identify a safe landing area.

C: Checklist – Conduct engine failure checks (fuel, mixture, ignition, etc.).

  1. Declare an emergency (MAYDAY).
  2. Prepare for landing and execute an emergency landing checklist.
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26
Q

What is detonation, and how can it be prevented?

A

Detonation is uncontrolled combustion of the air-fuel mixture. Prevent it by:

  • Using the correct grade of fuel
  • Avoiding high power settings with lean mixture
  • Keeping engine temperatures within limits
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27
Q

What is pre-ignition, and how can it occur?

A

Pre-ignition happens when the air-fuel mixture ignites prematurely due to hot spots in the cylinder (e.g., from carbon deposits or spark plug overheating).

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28
Q

What is the corrective action for engine roughness caused by spark plug fouling?

A
  • Switch to a higher power setting to burn off deposits.
  • Lean the mixture to prevent further fouling.
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29
Q

What does CHT stand for, and what does it measure?

A

Cylinder Head Temperature – It measures the temperature of the engine cylinder heads to monitor engine performance and prevent overheating.

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30
Q

What does EGT stand for, and what is its purpose?

A

Exhaust Gas Temperature – It measures the temperature of exhaust gases, helping to optimize the fuel-air mixture for efficiency.

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31
Q

What does MP stand for, and what does it indicate?

A

Manifold Pressure – It measures the pressure inside the intake manifold and is used to monitor engine power, especially in constant-speed propeller systems.

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32
Q

What does TAS stand for, and why is it important?

A

True Airspeed – It is the aircraft’s actual speed through the air, corrected for altitude and non-standard temperature.

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33
Q

What does RPM stand for, and what does it indicate in flight?

A

Revolutions Per Minute – It shows the rotational speed of the engine or propeller, used to monitor power output.

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34
Q

What does VNE stand for, and what does it mean?

A

Velocity Never Exceed – The maximum speed the aircraft can safely fly without risking structural damage.

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35
Q

What does OAT stand for, and why is it critical?

A

Outside Air Temperature – It is the external air temperature and is important for performance calculations and detecting carburettor icing conditions.

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36
Q

What does GPH stand for in relation to fuel?

A

Gallons Per Hour – It measures the rate of fuel consumption.

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37
Q

What does EPU stand for, and when is it used?

A

External Power Unit – A ground power source used to start the aircraft or power its systems during maintenance.

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38
Q

What does ALT stand for, and what does it do in the electrical system?

A

Alternator – It generates electrical power to charge the battery and supply the aircraft’s systems.

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39
Q

What does AMP stand for in relation to the electrical system?

A

Amperes – It measures the electrical current being produced or consumed in the aircraft.

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40
Q

What does FADEC stand for, and what is its role?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control – It is an advanced system that manages engine performance, including fuel injection and ignition, automatically.

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41
Q

What does MEL stand for, and what is its purpose?

A

Minimum Equipment List – A list of equipment that must be operational for the aircraft to be legally airworthy.

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42
Q

What does POH stand for, and why is it important?

A

Pilot Operating Handbook – A manual providing operating procedures, performance data, and limitations for the specific aircraft.

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43
Q

What does TBO stand for, and what does it mean?

A

Time Between Overhaul – The recommended interval of time or usage hours after which the engine or other components must be overhauled.

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44
Q

What does IAW stand for in maintenance terms?

A

In Accordance With – It indicates that procedures or operations must comply with established rules or manuals.

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45
Q

What does ASI stand for, and what does it measure?

A

Airspeed Indicator – It measures the speed of the aircraft relative to the air.

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46
Q

What does VSI stand for, and what is its purpose?

A

Vertical Speed Indicator – It shows the rate of climb or descent in feet per minute.

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47
Q

What does TC stand for in instrument terms?

A

Turn Coordinator – It indicates the rate and quality of a turn (rate of turn and slip/skid).

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48
Q

What does ADF stand for, and how is it used?

A

Automatic Direction Finder – It points to a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) to assist in navigation.

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49
Q

What is the function of the cylinder in an aircraft engine?

A

The cylinder provides the chamber where the air-fuel mixture is compressed and ignited, creating power.

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50
Q

What does the piston do in the engine?

A

The piston moves up and down within the cylinder, compressing the air-fuel mixture and transferring the force of combustion to the crankshaft.

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51
Q

What is the function of the crankshaft?

A

The crankshaft converts the linear motion of the pistons into rotational motion to drive the propeller.

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52
Q

What role does the camshaft play in the engine?

A

The camshaft operates the intake and exhaust valves, ensuring they open and close at the correct times during the engine cycle.

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53
Q

What is the purpose of the valves (intake and exhaust)?

A

Intake valve: Allows the air-fuel mixture to enter the cylinder.

Exhaust valve: Allows burnt gases to exit the cylinder.

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54
Q

What are pushrods and what do they do?

A

Pushrods transfer motion from the camshaft to the rocker arms, which then open and close the valves.

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55
Q

What is the rocker arm, and what is its function?

A

The rocker arm transmits motion from the pushrod to the valve, causing the valve to open or close.

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56
Q

What does the connecting rod do?

A

The connecting rod links the piston to the crankshaft, transmitting the force of combustion to rotate the crankshaft.

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57
Q

What is the purpose of the spark plug?

A

The spark plug ignites the compressed air-fuel mixture in the cylinder, initiating the power stroke.

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58
Q

What is the function of the magnetos?

A

Magnetos generate electrical energy for the spark plugs, independently of the aircraft’s electrical system.

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59
Q

What is the role of ignition leads?

A

Ignition leads carry electrical current from the magnetos to the spark plugs.

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60
Q

What is the function of the carburettor?

A

The carburettor mixes air and fuel in the correct ratio and delivers the mixture to the engine.

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61
Q

What does the fuel injector do in fuel-injected engines?

A

The fuel injector sprays a precise amount of fuel directly into the intake manifold or cylinder for combustion.

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62
Q

What is the intake manifold, and what is its function?

A

The intake manifold distributes the air-fuel mixture evenly to each cylinder.

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the air filter?

A

The air filter prevents dirt, dust, and debris from entering the engine through the intake system.

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64
Q

What does the fuel pump do?

A

The fuel pump delivers fuel from the tanks to the carburettor or fuel injector at the required pressure.

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65
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel strainer?

A

The fuel strainer removes water and contaminants from the fuel before it reaches the engine.

66
Q

How does the cooling fin work?

A

Cooling fins increase the surface area of the cylinder to help dissipate heat into the airflow.

67
Q

What is the role of the oil cooler?

A

The oil cooler reduces the temperature of engine oil to maintain optimal operating conditions.

68
Q

What is the purpose of the cowl flaps?

A

Cowl flaps control the amount of cooling air flowing over the engine.

69
Q

What is the purpose of the oil pump?

A

The oil pump circulates oil throughout the engine for lubrication, cooling, and cleaning.

70
Q

What does the oil filter do?

A

The oil filter removes debris and contaminants from the engine oil.

71
Q

What is the purpose of the sump?

A

The sump is the reservoir where engine oil is stored before being circulated.

72
Q

What does the exhaust manifold do?

A

The exhaust manifold collects burnt gases from the cylinders and directs them out through the exhaust system.

73
Q

What is the role of the muffler in the exhaust system?

A

The muffler reduces noise from the exhaust gases as they exit the engine.

74
Q

What is the function of the starter motor?

A

The starter motor cranks the engine to initiate operation until it runs on its own.

75
Q

What does the alternator do?

A

The alternator generates electrical power for the aircraft and charges the battery.

76
Q

What is the purpose of the flywheel?

A

The flywheel smooths out engine vibrations and helps maintain rotational momentum.

77
Q

What is a cylinder in an engine?

A

The cylinder is the chamber where the four-stroke combustion process occurs. It houses the piston and is surrounded by cooling fins in air-cooled engines.

Imagine a metal tube with openings for valves and a spark plug at the top.

78
Q

What is a piston?

A

The piston is a cylindrical part that moves up and down inside the cylinder, compressing the air-fuel mixture and converting chemical energy into mechanical motion.

Think of a piston as a plunger in a syringe, compressing and moving air or liquid.

79
Q

What is the function of a crankshaft?

A

The crankshaft converts the piston’s up-and-down motion into rotational motion to spin the propeller, acting like the ‘spine’ of the engine’s motion system.

Picture a twisting metal rod with offset sections for each piston connection.

80
Q

What does a camshaft do?

A

The camshaft uses lobes to open and close the intake and exhaust valves in sync with the pistons, driven by the crankshaft through gears or a chain.

Think of a camshaft as the ‘conductor’ that ensures all engine components work in harmony.

81
Q

What are valves in an engine?

A

Valves act as gates, controlling when the air-fuel mixture enters the cylinder and when exhaust gases leave, opening and closing during specific strokes of the engine cycle.

Small mushroom-shaped metal pieces that seal the openings in the cylinder head.

82
Q

What is the role of pushrods and rocker arms?

A

Pushrods transfer the motion of the camshaft to the rocker arms, which directly move the valves.

Like a lever system, the pushrod is the ‘force transmitter,’ and the rocker arm is the ‘door opener.’

83
Q

What is a spark plug?

A

Spark plugs create an electric spark to ignite the compressed air-fuel mixture in the cylinder, starting the combustion process that powers the engine.

Small cylindrical device with electrodes at one end.

84
Q

What is a carburettor?

A

The carburettor mixes air and fuel in the correct ratio before sending it to the cylinders, relying on the Venturi effect to create a low-pressure area for fuel to be drawn in.

A small metal box with fuel and air passages.

85
Q

What does a fuel injector do?

A

The fuel injector sprays fuel into the intake manifold or cylinder in a precise amount, ensuring a consistent mixture for combustion.

Similar to a spray nozzle that atomizes liquid.

86
Q

What is the function of an intake manifold?

A

The intake manifold directs the air-fuel mixture from the carburettor or fuel injectors to each cylinder.

A branching pipe system resembling tree roots.

87
Q

What does an air filter do?

A

The air filter ensures that only clean, debris-free air enters the engine, preventing damage to internal components.

Similar to a dust filter on a vacuum cleaner.

88
Q

What are magnetos?

A

Magnetos are self-contained generators that provide electricity to the spark plugs, independent of the aircraft’s electrical system, crucial for reliability.

Small rectangular units attached to the engine.

89
Q

What are ignition leads?

A

Ignition leads are wires that carry the electrical charge from the magnetos to the spark plugs.

Similar to electrical wires delivering current to a light bulb.

90
Q

What are cooling fins?

A

Cooling fins are metal ridges on the outside of the cylinder that increase surface area to dissipate heat into the airflow.

Metal ‘ribs’ around each cylinder.

91
Q

What are cowl flaps?

A

Cowl flaps are movable panels in the engine cowling that regulate airflow to control engine temperature.

Like adjustable vents on an air conditioner.

92
Q

What does an oil cooler do?

A

The oil cooler dissipates heat from engine oil, ensuring proper lubrication and temperature control.

A small radiator-like component.

93
Q

What is an exhaust manifold?

A

The exhaust manifold collects gases from each cylinder and routes them to the exhaust pipe.

Like the exhaust system in a car, directing fumes away from the engine.

94
Q

What is the function of a muffler?

A

The muffler reduces noise generated by exhaust gases.

A cylindrical metal component on the exhaust system.

95
Q

What does an oil pump do?

A

The oil pump circulates oil throughout the engine to lubricate, clean, and cool moving parts.

A small gear-driven pump.

96
Q

What is the purpose of an oil filter?

A

The oil filter removes impurities from the oil to prevent damage to engine components.

Like a coffee filter, removing particles from liquid.

97
Q

What is a sump in an engine?

A

The sump stores oil at the base of the engine, acting as a reservoir.

A metal pan-like structure.

98
Q

What is the minimum visibility for VFR flights?

A

5,000 meters (5 km) visibility.

99
Q

What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flights?

A

1,500 meters (1.5 km).

100
Q

What is the minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flights?

A

1,000 feet above or 500 feet below clouds.

101
Q

Can VFR flights operate in Class A airspace?

A

No, VFR flights are not permitted in Class A airspace.

102
Q

What is the minimum visibility required for VFR flights in controlled airspace?

A

5 km, same as general VFR minima.

103
Q

What are the minimum cloud clearance requirements for VFR flights in uncontrolled airspace below 10,000 feet?

A

Horizontal: 1,500 meters.

Vertical: 1,000 feet above or 500 feet below clouds.

104
Q

What is the minimum visibility requirement below 3,000 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace?

A

5,000 meters, and the aircraft must remain clear of clouds and in sight of the ground or water.

105
Q

When is a Special VFR (SVFR) clearance required?

A

When operating in a control zone with reduced visibility (less than 5 km) or near clouds but still in sight of the ground or water.

106
Q

What is the minimum visibility for a Special VFR clearance?

A

1,600 meters.

107
Q

Can a Special VFR clearance be used at night?

A

Yes, but only if the pilot and aircraft are qualified for night VFR operations.

108
Q

What altitude rule applies to VFR flights above 3,000 feet AGL?

A

VFR flights must follow quadrantal cruising levels based on magnetic track:

000°-089°: Odd thousands + 500 feet (e.g., 3,500, 5,500 feet).

090°-179°: Odd thousands + 500 feet.

180°-269°: Even thousands + 500 feet (e.g., 4,500, 6,500 feet).

270°-359°: Even thousands + 500 feet.

109
Q

What is the maximum altitude for VFR flights without requiring a transponder?

A

10,000 feet AMSL unless the pilot is in airspace that requires a transponder.

110
Q

What are the VFR weather minima for operating in Class C or Class D airspace?

A

Visibility: 5,000 meters.

Cloud clearance: 1,500 meters horizontal and 1,000 feet above or 500 feet below.

111
Q

Can a VFR flight operate above 10,000 feet?

A

Yes, but only in Class E airspace with a transponder and if the aircraft complies with CASA’s oxygen requirements.

112
Q

What is VNE?

A

VNE (Velocity Never Exceed): The maximum speed the aircraft must not exceed under any circumstances to avoid structural damage.

113
Q

What is VNO?

A

VNO (Velocity Normal Operating): The maximum speed for normal operations. Exceeding this speed is only safe in smooth air with caution.

114
Q

What is VS?

A

VS (Stall Speed - Clean): The minimum speed at which the aircraft can maintain controlled flight in a clean configuration (flaps and landing gear retracted).

115
Q

What is VSO?

A

VSO (Stall Speed - Landing): The stall speed with landing configuration, including flaps and landing gear extended.

116
Q

What is VX?

A

VX (Best Angle of Climb): The speed that provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest horizontal distance.

117
Q

What is VY?

A

VY (Best Rate of Climb): The speed that provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest time.

118
Q

What is VA?

A

VA (Maneuvering Speed): The maximum speed at which full deflection of controls or turbulence will not cause structural damage.

119
Q

What is VR?

A

VR (Rotation Speed): The speed at which the pilot begins to apply backpressure to lift the nose wheel off the ground during takeoff.

120
Q

What is VFE?

A

VFE (Maximum Flap Extended Speed): The maximum speed at which flaps can be safely extended.

121
Q

What is VLE?

A

VLE (Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed): The maximum speed with the landing gear extended.

122
Q

What is VLO?

A

VLO (Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed): The maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear.

123
Q

What is VREF?

A

VREF (Reference Landing Speed): The speed used during the final approach for landing, usually 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration.

124
Q

What is VG?

A

VG (Best Glide Speed): The speed that provides the greatest gliding distance for altitude lost when the engine fails.

125
Q

What is V1?

A

V1 (Takeoff Decision Speed): The speed by which a decision must be made to continue the takeoff or abort.

126
Q

What is V2?

A

V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed): The speed at which the aircraft can safely climb with one engine inoperative during takeoff.

127
Q

What is VMCA?

A

VMCA (Minimum Control Speed Airborne): The minimum speed at which the aircraft is controllable with one engine inoperative.

128
Q

What is VLOF?

A

VLOF (Lift-Off Speed): The speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground.

129
Q

What is VNE?

A

VNE (Velocity Never Exceed): The maximum speed the aircraft must not exceed under any circumstances to avoid structural damage.

130
Q

What is VNO?

A

VNO (Velocity Normal Operating): The maximum speed for normal operations. Exceeding this speed is only safe in smooth air with caution.

131
Q

What is VS?

A

VS (Stall Speed - Clean): The minimum speed at which the aircraft can maintain controlled flight in a clean configuration (flaps and landing gear retracted).

132
Q

What is VSO?

A

VSO (Stall Speed - Landing): The stall speed with landing configuration, including flaps and landing gear extended.

133
Q

What is VX?

A

VX (Best Angle of Climb): The speed that provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest horizontal distance.

134
Q

What is VY?

A

VY (Best Rate of Climb): The speed that provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest time.

135
Q

What is VA?

A

VA (Maneuvering Speed): The maximum speed at which full deflection of controls or turbulence will not cause structural damage.

136
Q

What is VR?

A

VR (Rotation Speed): The speed at which the pilot begins to apply backpressure to lift the nose wheel off the ground during takeoff.

137
Q

What is VFE?

A

VFE (Maximum Flap Extended Speed): The maximum speed at which flaps can be safely extended.

138
Q

What is VLE?

A

VLE (Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed): The maximum speed with the landing gear extended.

139
Q

What is VLO?

A

VLO (Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed): The maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear.

140
Q

What is VREF?

A

VREF (Reference Landing Speed): The speed used during the final approach for landing, usually 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration.

141
Q

What is VG?

A

VG (Best Glide Speed): The speed that provides the greatest gliding distance for altitude lost when the engine fails.

142
Q

What is V1?

A

V1 (Takeoff Decision Speed): The speed by which a decision must be made to continue the takeoff or abort.

143
Q

What is V2?

A

V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed): The speed at which the aircraft can safely climb with one engine inoperative during takeoff.

144
Q

What is VMCA?

A

VMCA (Minimum Control Speed Airborne): The minimum speed at which the aircraft is controllable with one engine inoperative.

145
Q

What is VLOF?

A

VLOF (Lift-Off Speed): The speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground.

146
Q

What is the general fuel mixture setting for takeoff?

A

For takeoff, the mixture is typically set to ‘full rich,’ meaning the fuel-to-air ratio is optimized for maximum power and engine performance.

147
Q

What is the purpose of leaning the fuel mixture in an aircraft?

A

Leaning the mixture reduces the amount of fuel in the combustion process to achieve more efficient fuel consumption, particularly at higher altitudes where the air is less dense.

148
Q

When should you lean the fuel mixture in an aircraft?

A

The mixture should be leaned when flying at cruising altitude or when operating above 3,000 feet, as the air density decreases with altitude, requiring less fuel for efficient combustion.

149
Q

According to CASA, what should the mixture setting be for optimal engine operation at high altitudes?

A

At high altitudes, the mixture should be leaned to prevent engine fouling and optimize fuel efficiency, usually requiring adjustment every 2,000 to 3,000 feet above sea level.

150
Q

What does ‘rich mixture’ mean?

A

A rich mixture means a higher ratio of fuel to air, providing maximum power and preventing engine overheating during high-demand phases like takeoff or climb.

151
Q

What is the effect of a lean mixture on engine performance?

A

A lean mixture decreases fuel consumption and engine temperature but may reduce engine power and lead to rough engine operation if leaned too much.

152
Q

What is the role of the mixture control lever in aircraft?

A

The mixture control lever adjusts the fuel-to-air ratio, allowing the pilot to set the engine mixture from ‘rich’ to ‘lean’ based on altitude and engine performance requirements.

153
Q

What is the procedure for setting the mixture for descent?

A

During descent, the mixture should be enriched to prevent engine roughness due to excessive leaning, particularly if the descent is rapid.

154
Q

According to Australian standards, how should mixture be managed during low-power operations?

A

During low-power operations, such as taxiing or idle, the mixture should be leaned to prevent fouling the spark plugs and ensure smooth engine operation.

155
Q

What is a standard mixture in an aircraft?

A

A standard mixture is a fuel-to-air ratio that balances engine performance and efficiency, typically close to the stoichiometric ratio of 14.7:1, though adjustments are made depending on flight conditions.

156
Q

What is a rich mixture in aviation?

A

A rich mixture has a higher ratio of fuel to air (around 12:1 or 13:1), often used during high-power phases like takeoff and climb.

157
Q

Why would you use a rich mixture during takeoff or climb?

A

A rich mixture provides maximum engine power, helps cool the engine, and prevents detonation during high-power phases like takeoff and climb.

158
Q

What are the benefits of using a rich mixture in high-demand flight phases?

A

A rich mixture helps prevent engine overheating, provides more fuel for maximum power, and reduces the risk of detonation.

159
Q

What is a lean mixture in aviation?

A

A lean mixture has a lower ratio of fuel to air than the standard mixture, used in lower power settings such as cruise flight.

160
Q

Why would you use a lean mixture during cruise flight?

A

A lean mixture improves fuel efficiency, reduces fuel consumption, and compensates for lower air density at higher altitudes.

161
Q

What happens when you lean the mixture at higher altitudes?

A

At higher altitudes, the air is less dense, so leaning the mixture ensures efficient fuel consumption and avoids wasting fuel.

162
Q

What are the advantages of using a lean mixture during flight?

A

Leaning the mixture improves fuel efficiency, helps prevent spark plug fouling, and reduces fuel consumption at cruise altitude.

PPL (9 decks)

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