Random HY Flashcards

1
Q
Transfusion related 
acute respiratory distress, 
fever, chills, 
hypotension, 
general PRURITUS,
BACK PAIN
pain at the IV site 
are suggestive of:
A

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)

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2
Q

An adverse effect of transfusion of blood products characterized by acute-onset,
NONcardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Manifests with dyspnea, hypoxemia, HYPOtension, and fever that typically occurs within 6 hours after transfusion.

A

transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

get CXR

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3
Q

A transfusion reaction in which patients develop pulmonary EDEMA as a result of volume overload. Typically occurs when a large amount of blood products are transfused rapidly. Risk factors include a history of underlying cardiovascular or renal disease.
Px with HTN, respiratory distress, and hypoxia within 6 hours of transfusion, with signs of pulmonary edema on examination and imaging.

A

transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

get CXR

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4
Q

____ should be obtained in patients with suspected transfusion-associated sepsis, which can manifest with fever, chills, respiratory distress, tachycardia, and hypotension.

A

Blood cultures

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5
Q

Transfusion related respiratory distress, hypotension, and tachycardia, and wheezing

A

anaphylactic transfusion reaction

screen for selective IgA deficiency

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6
Q

Measurement of ___, can be performed in patients with anaphylactic transfusion reactions.

A

anti-IgA antibodies & IgA levels

*selective IgA deficiency

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7
Q

hemodynamically unstable patient presents with hypotension
distant heart sounds
and JVD
pulsus paradoxus (absent pulse during inspiration),
and chest pain indicate (Dx)

A

cardiac tamponade

Tx: Pericardiocentesis

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8
Q

tacrolimus side effects include hyperkalemia, hypertension, glucose intolerance, neurotoxicity, and

A

nephrotoxicity

like cyclosporin

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9
Q

Manifests with recurrent episodes of monoarthritis (Knees & Wrist) typically self-limited.

Radiographic findings include Chondrocalcinosis and degenerative changes (subchondral cysts) in affected joints.

A

calcium pyrophosphate deposition (CPPD) disease (pseudogout)

Rhomboid calcium pyrophosphate crystals with +birefringence (synovial fluid)

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10
Q

a medial popliteal mass that disappears upon flexion of the knee (when the joint space is widened) and increases in extension of the knee

A

Popliteal cyst (Baker cyst)

Risk factors: knee trauma, OA, RA

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11
Q

The combination of ____ is the preferred three-drug regimen for HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

A

raltegravir (or dolutegravir)
tenofovir
emtricitabine

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12
Q

prevents bone resorption by acting as an estrogen aGonist in the BONE.

& estrogen anTagonist qualities in the BREAST and ENDOMETRIUM

A

Raloxifene

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13
Q

epigastric pain that improves with food intake, which suggests a

A

duodenal ulcer

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14
Q

The most common location for peptic ulcer perforation is the _______ which usually perforate into the _____

A

anterior duodenum

peritoneal cavity

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15
Q

Perforated ulcers in the _____ tend to cause massive _____ from the adjacent gastroduodenal artery

A

posterior duodenum

bleeding (hematemesis)

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16
Q

A high-pitched, holosystolic murmur at the apex with radiation to the back and higher intensity with increased systemic vascular resistance (hand grip, squatting) in a patient with exertional dyspnea is characteristic of

A

mitral regurgitation

LA dilation on echo

17
Q

PCV13 vaccine is currently recommended for all individuals ≥ __ years with an immunocompromising condition (CLL, chemotherapy) and should be followed by the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine 23 (PPSV23) at least 8 weeks later.

A

65

18
Q

Femoral arteriovenous fistula following femoral artery catheterization manifest with

A

groin bruit

19
Q

Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm following femoral artery catheterization manifest with pain in the groin and

A

a pulsatile mass, and a systolic bruit over the swelling

get a Duplex ultrasonography

20
Q

Post Afib treatment with Warfarin can cause what skin finding?

A

Reduced levels of protein C results in a transient state of hypercoagulability → risk of thrombosis and warfarin-induced SKIN NECROSIS.

21
Q

worsening diarrhea shortly after starting chemotherapy, suggests chemotherapy-induced diarrhea (CTID).
TX

A

Loperamide (1st)

Octreotide (2nd or septic)

22
Q

Gastric ulcer worse with food. Most Common Cx is

A

GI bleed

not perforation

23
Q

What neuro finding is intact in ALS?

2

A

Sensation to pinprick and vibration

24
Q

Why does diabetic nephropathy present with hyperfiltration of kidneys?
(aka increased microalbuminuria:Cr)

A

Non-enzymatic glycosylation (NEG)

25
Q

What is one of the most common causes of CHF?

A

Arterial hypertension (HTN)

26
Q

What medication causes exacerbation of advanced congestive heart failure (CHF)?

A

NSAID use

27
Q

What do next if patient has a positive TB Skin Test?

A

Get a Sputum PCR for Mycobacterium tuberculosis