Random from quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is released into the synaptic terminal to stimulate muscular contraction?

A

Acetylcholine

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2
Q

Which muscle can internally rotate the hip when the foot is in the planted position touching the floor?

A

TFL

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3
Q

Which exercise follows the Half Foam Roll in the lower extremity proprioceptive progression continuum?

A

Foam pad

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4
Q

Which of the following supplements have the greatest potential for excess dosage in adults?

A

Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin B6, Iron, Zinc

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5
Q

Pronation distortion syndrome - what muscles require static stretching?

A

gastro (calf stretch)

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6
Q

What connects bone to bone?

A

ligaments

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7
Q

what connects muscle to bone?

A

tendons

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8
Q

What do tendons connect?

A

Muscle and bone

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9
Q

What do ligaments connect?

A

bone to bone

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10
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which exercise?

A

standing cable chest press

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11
Q

which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?

A

contralateral

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12
Q

As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?

A

Eccentric

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13
Q

The body’s ability to differentiate b/t walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which of the following functions of the nervous system?

A

sensory

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14
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?

A

anterior pelvic tilt

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15
Q

Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbs, fats and protein?

A

Cortisol

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16
Q

How long should cardiorespiratory portion of the warm up last?

A

5-10 minutes

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17
Q

Typical resting heart rate for humans?

A

70-80 bpm

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18
Q

Examples of exercises in the frontal plane

A

Side lateral raise, side lunge, side shuffle

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19
Q

Examples of exercises in the saggital plane

A

Biceps curl, triceps pushdown, squat

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20
Q

Examples of exercises in the transverse plane

A

Throwing, golfing, swinging a bat, trunk rotation

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21
Q

Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?

A

3.5mL

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22
Q

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?

A

Cardiac output

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23
Q

Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?

A

Veins

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24
Q

Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?

A

Stroke volume

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25
Q

Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?

A

Transverse

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26
Q

Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases?

A

Extension

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27
Q

Which mechanoreceptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of a muscle?

A

Muscle spindles

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28
Q

When excited the Golgi Tendon Organ will cause the muscle to

A

Relax

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29
Q

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?

A

Adductors

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30
Q

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

A

Posteriorly rotated pelvis

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31
Q

Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

A

Psoas

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32
Q

Muscle lengthened in lower crossed syndrome?

A

Transverse abdominis

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33
Q

A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?

A

Circuit training system

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34
Q

What is a measuring site of the Durnin-Womersley formula?

A

Subscapular

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35
Q

Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?

A

The result of two Z lines moving closer together.

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36
Q

When performing a [blank], the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.

A

Standing triceps extension

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37
Q

A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Resistance development

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38
Q

Which muscle is part of the core local stabilization system?

A

Transverse abdominis

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39
Q

What is an appropriate max heart rate intensity when training a client who is obese?

A

60 - 70% of their max HR

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40
Q

What is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?

A

120 mm Hg

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41
Q

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence their heart rate, which method establishes the most appropriate training heart rate?

A

Heart rate response (HRR)

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42
Q

An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of

A

reciprocal inhibition

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43
Q

Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?

A

12 to 13

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44
Q

If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which muscle(s) are overactive?

A

Adductor longus

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45
Q

After completing the three minute step test, client scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when they do cardio training?

A

76-85% HR max

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46
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client’s feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?

A

Standing calf

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47
Q

A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?

A

Neuromusculuar

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48
Q

How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?

A

16 -24 oz

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49
Q

If a client demos shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?

A

upper traps

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50
Q

In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?

A

Increasing load

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51
Q

The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:

A

quickness

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52
Q

Based on overhead squat assessment findings, if a client exhibitsknees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?

A

Adductor static stretch

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53
Q

A high-protein diet consisting of more than 35% of total caloric intake from protein can potentially lead to which of the following adverse health effects?

A

Additional stress on kidneys

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54
Q

Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?

A

Endomysium

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55
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?

A

2 to 4

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56
Q

What is the third step in the Stages of Change model?

A

Preparation

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57
Q

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt - which muscle is probably overactive?

A

lats

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58
Q

Which exercise is classified as a balance-strength exercise?

A

single-leg squat touchdown

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59
Q

A client’s shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which muscles may be underactive?

A

mid and lower traps

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60
Q

Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?

A

Anterior deltoid

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61
Q

During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?

A

Stomach

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62
Q

When performing a [blank], the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.

A

Standing cable row

63
Q

Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low-carb diet?

A

Loss of water

64
Q

Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromsucular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

A

Functional

65
Q

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?

A

Seeking a client’s perspective

66
Q

To maintain cert w/ NASM, CPT must earn:

A

2 CEUs w/in 2 years

67
Q

Dehydration affects the body by increasing

A

heart rate

68
Q

The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:

A

Specificity

69
Q

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep max bench press estimation test?

A

Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.

70
Q

Example of appropriate spotting technique

A

The spotter should spot at the wrists when the clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.

71
Q

To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of

A

dorsiflexion

72
Q

What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high-protein, low carbohydrate diet?

A

A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.

73
Q

In the stabilization endurance phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intesity?

A

low

74
Q

What muscle is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?

A

Rhomboids

75
Q

Davis’s law states

A

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress

76
Q

How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as

A

cardiac output

77
Q

CPT shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of

A

Four years

78
Q

Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but. not extreme?

A

Attainable

79
Q

When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the later gatrocnemius is

A

external rotation of the feet

80
Q

Power level balance exercise

A

Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization

81
Q

Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?

A

Abduction

82
Q

What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardioresp training?

A

76 - 85%

83
Q

Correct repetition range and tempo for Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?

A

12-20/Slow; 1-12/ Moderate; 1-10/Explosive

84
Q

The client is ready to progress from PHase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of new Strength Endurance workout?

A

Strength exercises with stabilization supersets

85
Q

Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?

A

Glute max

86
Q

Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?

A

Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

87
Q

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?

A

Decreased oxygen delivery

88
Q

Micronutrient that should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?

A

Calcium

89
Q

Reactive training improves neuromusc efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?

A

Central nervous system

90
Q

What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?

A

low-back pain

91
Q

During the concentric action of the glute max what movement is occuring at the joint?

A

Hip extension and external rotation

92
Q

Method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?

A

Skinfold measurement

93
Q

Client’s knees move inward - which muscle is overactive?

A

TFL

94
Q

During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving their head forward. Which static stretch would be appropriate for this client?

A

Levator scapulae

95
Q

Knees moving inward - underactive muscles

A

glute med and glute max

96
Q

Client’s head protrudes during pulling assessment - which muscles should be stretched?

A

Sternocleidomastoid

97
Q

Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with OA?

A

Limit the client to 10 to 12 reps per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.

98
Q

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as

A

Balance - strength

99
Q

How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the Power Phase of the OPT model?

A

3-5

100
Q

Which of the following is true about dynamic stretching?

A

It should be performed at a controlled speed.

101
Q

What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?

A

Balance - power exercise

102
Q

When training a client in the stabilization level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

A

Alternating arm

103
Q

Client having trouble performing a signle-leg balance on a foam pad. Which balance training modality is appropriate for this client?

A

A half foam roll

104
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which exercise?

A

Standing cable chest press

105
Q

What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

A

Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press

106
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?

A

Standing cable row

107
Q

What is a core-stabilization exercise?

A

Floor prone cobra

108
Q

When working with a client with hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?

A

Standing cobra

109
Q

First stage in teh stages of change model?

A

Precontemplation

110
Q

A characteristic of the maintenance stage?

A

They have maintained change for 6 months or more.

111
Q

A stage where people do occasionally exrecise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month?

A

Preparation

112
Q

Stage of change where individuals intend to take action in the next month?

A

Preparation

113
Q

Father decides too much injury risk for sone to partake in personal training. This is an example of

A

Behavioral reactants

114
Q

A client exercises occasionally and plans to regularly participate in a structured exercise program next month. What stage of change is this client?

A

Preparatoin

115
Q

A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of

A

Behavioral reactants

116
Q

What cognitive behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?

A

Association and dissociation

117
Q

A client tells teh trainer they do not exercise, but is thinking about becoming more active in teh next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?

A

Contemplation

118
Q

Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?

A

Self-monitoring

119
Q

An individual is training at the gym on his own. He asks a fellow gym member to spot him during the bench press exercise. Of which type of support is this an example?

A

Instrumental

120
Q

CPT has been training a client for the last 2 years. On their next session, the client informs the trainer they are pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the trainer to take?

A

Discontinue sessions until client provides medical clearance.

121
Q

Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer’s scope of practice regarding a client’s nutrition?

A

Discuss food preparation methods.

122
Q

What is the term for a force that produces rotation?

A

Torque

123
Q

What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?

A

Autogenic inhibition

124
Q

Which of the following concepts is demo whe na tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the glute max?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

125
Q

When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the glute max - what is this an example of?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

126
Q

Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?

A

Glycolysis

127
Q

Client’s feet turn out - what is likely overactive muscle?

A

Lateral gastro

128
Q

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles are shortened?

A

Adductors

129
Q

A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

A

Lower traps

130
Q

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?

A

Decrease blood pressure

131
Q

What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus

132
Q

While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

A

Lats Dorsi

133
Q

During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client’s knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

A

Glute med

134
Q

During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demos shoulder elevation. Which muscles are likely overactive?

A

Levator scapulae

135
Q

Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?

A

Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood.

136
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

A

Scalenes

137
Q

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?

A

Heart rate and oxygen uptake

138
Q

Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to devo muscular endurance of the legs?

A

Exercises that involve light weights and high reps

139
Q

Acute variables determine which of the following?

A

The amount of stress placed on the body

140
Q

What is a primary goal of training in the Power Level?

A

Increase rate of force production

141
Q

Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromusc efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?

A

Reverse crunch

142
Q

Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which rest period?

A

3-5 minutes

143
Q

High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?

A

Metabolic rate

144
Q

Mesocycle?

A

Monthly training plan

145
Q

Training a client with OA?

A

Limit 10-12 reps per set for phase 1

146
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

A

Psoas

147
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?

A

Standing cable chest press

148
Q

When performing SMR of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?

A

The groin region inside the upper thigh

149
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?

A

Standing cable row

150
Q

A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work towards for this exercise?

A

Reaching all the way to the foot.

151
Q

What type of support is tangible and practical to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?

A

Instrumental support

152
Q

A personal trainer provides client with step by step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press. Which type of support is this an example of?

A

Informational support

153
Q

Which of the following should be considered when training clients in their own homes?

A

Packing equipment into the trainer’s car. Yes, seriously.