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Y3 Medicine > Random 4 > Flashcards

Random 4 Flashcards

1
Q

In a CT scan, what makes you think about stomach cancer?

A

Thickened pyloric wall

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2
Q

List the order of sizes of cannulas starting from the smallest one and include flow rates.

A

Orange (14)= 240ml/min
Grey (16)= 180ml/min
Green (18)= 90ml/min
Pink (20)= 60ml/min
Blue (22)= 36ml/min
Yellow (24)= 20ml/min
Violet (26)= 13ml/min

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3
Q

What is legionnaire’s disease?

A

Fever, myalgia and malaise followed by a dyspnoea and a dry cough. It is associated with Legionnaire’s disease, usually in patients who have been exposed to poor hotel air conditioning.

Look for hyponatraemia and deranged LFTs on blood tests. Legionella antigen may be present in the urine.

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4
Q

What two signs do you look for on a CXR for bronchiectasis?

A

Tram track sign and signet ring sign.

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5
Q

What is Duaklir?

A

A prescription medication used for the long-term maintenance treatment of airflow obstruction in people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Aclidinium bromide: Aclidinium is a long-acting anticholinergic bronchodilator. It helps relax the muscles around the airways, making it easier to breathe.

Formoterol fumarate: Formoterol is a long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist bronchodilator. It also helps widen the airways, making it easier for air to flow in and out of the lungs.

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6
Q

What sign do you see on an X-ray with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Bamboo spine

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7
Q

What are the two finger swellings you see in osteoarthritis?

A

Herbeden’s (DIPJs) and Bouchards (PIPJs)

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8
Q

What is arthritis mutilans?

A

Arthritis mutilans is a severe and destructive form of inflammatory arthritis, most commonly associated with psoriatic arthritis (a type of inflammatory arthritis that affects some people with psoriasis, a skin condition)

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9
Q

What virus is glandular fever caused by?

A

EBV

EBV and Herpes simplex both belong to the herpes family.

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10
Q

What is glandular fever serology?

A

Monospot Test:

Purpose: A rapid screening test that detects heterophile antibodies.
Interpretation: A positive result suggests the presence of heterophile antibodies, indicating an active or recent EBV infection. This test is often the initial screening method for diagnosing glandular fever.

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11
Q

Describe the albumin gradient.

A

The albumin gradient is the difference in serum albumin and peritoneal albumin.

The normal difference is 11mg/dL

A high gradient is due to portal hypertension (heart failure, nephrotic syndrome)

A normal gradient is due to a malignant tumor secreting albumin.

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12
Q

What is the significance of DeltaF508?

A

DeltaF508 refers to a specific mutation in the CFTR gene, which is associated with cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. In individuals with the DeltaF508 mutation, the CFTR protein does not function correctly, leading to the production of thick and sticky mucus in the airways, which can cause respiratory and digestive problems.

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13
Q

What is Ivocaftar?

A

Ivacaftor is a CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) potentiator. It works by improving the function of the defective CFTR protein in the cell membrane, allowing chloride ions and water to move more freely in and out of the cells

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14
Q

What is immunoreactive tripsinogen?

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) is a protein that is measured in newborn screening tests to screen for cystic fibrosis (CF) in infants. CF is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. One of the hallmarks of CF is the production of thick and sticky mucus in the pancreas, which can lead to blockages in the pancreatic ducts. This blockage can cause trypsinogen, an enzyme produced by the pancreas, to become trapped and accumulate in the pancreas.

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15
Q

What medications can be used in the treatment of COVID-19?

A

Nirmatrelvir plus ritonavir, sotrovimab, remdesivir or molnupiravir.

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16
Q

What is a vaginal pessary?

A

A vaginal pessary is a medical device that is inserted into the vagina to provide support to the pelvic organs, particularly in cases of pelvic organ prolapse.

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17
Q

Why do you get bleeding with CKD?

A

The platelets are less likely to stick together due to high levels of urea.

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18
Q

What is linctus syrup?

A

Lintus Syrup is a medication that contains two active ingredients: chlorpheniramine maleate (anti-histamine) and codeine phosphate.

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19
Q

What is mirabegron?

A

Used to treat an over-active bladder. Mirabegron works by stimulating beta-3 adrenergic receptors in the detrusor muscle of the bladder.

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20
Q

What is included in a package of care?

A

Rehab, medication, follow-up appointments, education, home adaptations etc.

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21
Q

What is Chagas disease?

A

Chagas disease (T. cruzi infection) causes myocarditis, arrhythmias and dilated cardiomyopathy. It can also affect the skin, liver, digestive system and nervous system. It is treated with anti-parasitic medication.

22
Q

What is campylobacter infection caused by and how do you treat it?

A

Normally chicken, Clarithromycin.

23
Q

What do you do with a toxic megacolon if it doesn’t get better after 24 hours?

A

Bowel resection

24
Q

Where does Crohn’s disease affect?

A

Terminal ileum

25
Q

What test is used to diagnose Coeliac disease?

A

TTG (tissue transglutaminase).

26
Q

What is this due to?? A 16 year old girl complains of profuse vomiting and mild diarrhoea three hours after eating a kebab?

A

Staphylococci. (Toxin released everytime the food is re-heated). The toxin is heat stable. E.coli has a longer incubation period.

27
Q

What mix of antibiotics cause diarrhoea?

A

Co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin.

28
Q

Explain symptoms and signs of carcinoid syndrome?

A

Wheezy, flushing of the face, liver is nodular, hard and big (due to metastasis), serotonin = mass dilation.

29
Q

Cause of brown-black pigmentation in the large bowel?

A

Melanosis coli- a breakdown product of senna.

30
Q

What happens to bile absorption once you have a cholecystectomy?

A

For some reason, bile acids are not re-absorbed? You need to prescribe sequestrants.

31
Q

What is the tumour marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

CA19-9

32
Q

What drugs make up tazocin?

A

Piperacillin and Tazobactam

33
Q

What are the 4 main causes of ascites?

A

Heart failure, malignancy, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome.

34
Q

What is the TB spot test?

A

Quantiferon.

35
Q

How do you remove iron from the blood in hemochromatosis?

A

Venesection

36
Q

How do you remove potassium in the body?

A

Calcium resonium.

37
Q

What are causes of malabsorption in the UK?

A

Coeliac, Crohn’s and chronic pancreatitis.

38
Q

What is urinary sediment?

A

Urinary sediment which causes encrustation and blockage of the catheter lumen is caused by the precipitation of calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium minerals in the urine in the presence of urea splitting microorganisms

39
Q

What does LPOP stand for?

A

Liason Psychiatry Older Persons. is a specialized field in psychiatry that focuses on providing mental health care to elderly patients, particularly those who are hospitalized for physical health issues.

40
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

“Split spine”. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterised by incomplete development of the spinal column, resulting in herniation of the spinal cord.

Spina bifida occulta
Incomplete fusion of the vertebrae, but with no herniation of the spinal cord
May be visible only as a small tuft of hair overlying the site
Meningocele
Incomplete fusion of the vertebrae, with herniation of a meningeal sac containing CSF
Visible prominence at the site, but usually covered by skin
Myelomeningocele
Incomplete fusion of the vertebrae with herniation of herniation of a meningeal sac containing CSF and spinal cord.
Usually accompanied by other defects such as hydrocephaly or Chiari malformation
Visible prominence at the site, with exposed meninges

41
Q

What is bronchiolitis?

A

Bronchiolitis is a prevalent chest infection that primarily affects infants aged 1-12 months. This infection is typically caused by the Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) and is characterised by symptoms such as a cough, laboured breathing, wheezing, tachypnoea, intercostal recession, grunting, and nasal flaring.

42
Q

What is the moderator band?

A

The moderator band, also called the septomarginal trabecula, is a consistent structure in the morphologic right ventricle and can be helpful as a landmark in situations where the ventricles may be ambiguous (i.e. in some forms of congenital heart disease).

Its main function is to convey the right branch of the atrioventricular bundle of the conducting system.

43
Q

List of acyanotic heart defects

A

Atrial septal defects
Ventricular septal defects
Patent ductus arteriosus
Atrioventricular septal defect
Aortic stenosis
Pulmonary stenosis

44
Q

List of cyanotic heart defects

A

Tetralogy of fallot
Transposition of the great arteries
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Total anomalous pulmonary venous circulation

45
Q

What were the two important lessons from Dr Sethia’s lecture on congenital heart defects?

A
  1. Always follow up complicated patients
  2. Pressure doesn’t dictate blood flow but resistance does.
46
Q

What causes tetralogy of fallot in embryological development?

A

Anterior deviation of the ventricular septum.

47
Q

What classification is used for fractured neck of femurs?

A

Garden classification

48
Q

Describe Hoffman’s sign

A

Tests for upper motor neurone lesion.
Flick the end of the middle finger. If the index and thumb move too this is positive.

49
Q

What is alendronic acid?

A

Biphosphonate. Works by inhibiting the action of osteoclasts.

50
Q

What is pabrinex?

A

Pabrinex (1 pair of ampoules once daily) to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In the presence of Wernicke’s encephalopathy symptoms, two pairs of ampoules TDS should be prescribed.

Used in alcohol withdrawal.

Y3 Medicine (17 decks)

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