Random 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What does a high aldosterone/renin ratio indicate?

A

Hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you diagnose hyperaldosteronism?

A

To diagnose hyperaldosteronism, the following tests are commonly used:

First-line:
Aldosterone/Renin ratio: A high ratio is suggestive of hyperaldosteronism.
Second-line:
High-Resolution CT (HRCT) or MRI: To locate potential adrenal lesions.
Selective adrenal venous sampling: Considered the gold standard for localising the source of excess aldosterone, especially when distinguishing between Conn’s Syndrome and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three criteria that warrant immediate investigation into high blood pressure?

A
  • <40 years old
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Resistant HT (not controlled by 3 agents)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some investigations for adrenal cushing’s syndrome?

A
  • 2 x 24 hour (UFC)
  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
  • Salivary cortisol
  • Midnight cortisol
  • Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • ACTH, serum K, High dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • CT adrenal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you treat bilateral hyperplasia of the adrenal glands?

A

Bilateral adrenalectomy (lifelong steroid replacement) or medical treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are features of phaecohromocytoma?

A
  • Resistant HTN
  • Palpitations
  • Headaches
  • Sweating
  • Pallor
  • Flushing
  • Pyrexia
  • Visual disturbance
  • Livido reticularis
  • Postural hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you investigate phaeochromocytoma?

A
  • 24 hour urine catecholamines/metanephrines
  • Plasma metanephrines
  • CT, MRI, FDG PET
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When treating a phaeochromocytoma, why is it important to block the alpha receptors before the beta receptors?

A

Because alpha receptors control blood pressure and beta control the heart. You can’t drop the blood pressure once the heart rate has been decreased. This could trigger a crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Examples of alpha blockers

A

Phenoxybenzamine and Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do you get immunosuppression in cushing’s even though you have neutrophila?

A

The neutrophils are unresponsive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain dialysis

A

Dialysis is a medical procedure that serves to regulate electrolytes, remove excess water, acid and waste products from the body when the kidneys cannot perform this function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between haemodialysis and haemofiltration?

A

In haemodialysis, the patient’s own blood is cleansed outside the body and then returned to their circulation after the waste products and excess substances have been removed.

In hemofiltration, convective transport is used to push waste products and excess fluids out of the blood, and a replacement fluid is simultaneously given to the patient. This replacement fluid helps maintain the necessary fluid balance in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are common complications of dialysis in general?

A

Cramps, nausea, cardiovascular disease, infections, fistulas and dialysis disequilibrium syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome?

A

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome (acute cerebral oedema due to rapid extraction of osmotically active substances; more common in severe uraemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are complications of haemodialysis?

A
  • Fistula-related complications- bleeding, stenosis, thrombosis, aneurysm, infection
  • Dialyser reactions- air embolus
  • Cramps, nausea and vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What and why is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients?

A

Cardiovascular disease
CKD accelerates atherosclerosis
fluid and electrolyte imbalance= arrhythmias
HTN= strain on the heart and blood vessels
Calcification of arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a major complication of peritoneal dialysis?

A

Peritonitis.
Other complications are hernias, tunnel infections and peritoneal leaks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the complications of fluid overload?

A

Excess fluid in the body can strain the heart, leading to hypertension, heart failure, and pulmonary edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the complications of dehydration?

A

Insufficient fluid can impair kidney function, lead to electrolyte imbalances, and cause weakness, dizziness, and confusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What changes are seen in an inferior STEMI?

A

ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF
Hyperacute T waves may precede these changes
Reciprocal ST depression in aVL
Progressive development of Q waves in II, III, aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Framingham diagnostic criteria for heart failure?

A

Heart failure is diagnosed when two major or one major and two minor criteria are met.

Major
- Acute pulmonary oedema
- Cardiomegaly
- Hepatojugular reflex
- Neck vein distension
- Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
- Crepitations
- S3 gallop

Minor
- Ankle oedema
- Dyspnea on exertion
- Hepatomegaly
- Nocturnal cough
- Pleural effusion
- Tachycardia >120

22
Q

What are ALARM signs with epigastric pain?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Loss of weight
  • Anorexia
  • Recent onset of symptoms
  • Meleana/haemoptysis
23
Q

What are antibiotics to completely avoid in patients with penicillin allergy?

A
  • Amoxicillin
  • Ampicillin
  • Benzylpenicillin
  • Piperacillin (Tazocin)
  • Flucloxacillin
24
Q

Which antibiotics should be avoided/contra-indicated in patients with a penicillin allergy?

A

Cephalosporins
- Ceftriaxone
- Cefotaxime

Other beta-lactam
- Meropenem
- Imipenen

25
Q

What does microalbuminuria mean?

A

Acute kidney injury (AKI) can lead to the presence of albumin in the urine, a condition known as microalbuminuria.

26
Q

What does refractory mean in medical terms?

A

“Refractory” in medical terminology means resistant to treatment or difficult to manage. Therefore, “refractory fluid overload” and “refractory hyperkalemia” refer to conditions where excessive fluid retention or high levels of potassium in the blood are challenging to control despite appropriate medical interventions.

27
Q

What should you look for on inspection of a DRE?

A
  • Anal fissures
  • Hemorrhoids
  • Blood
  • Signs of trauma
28
Q

What are some intrinsic causes of falls?

A
  • Visual impairment
  • Hearing problems
  • Loss of muscle strength
  • Osteoarthritis, dementia, stroke
29
Q

What are some extrinsic causes of falls?

A
  • Medications
  • Wet floor
  • Poor lighting
  • Carpets
  • Substance abuse
30
Q

What are some potentially modifiable risk factors of falls?

A
  • Medication
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Diabetes
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Equilibrium (balance), BPPV, Meniere’s disease
31
Q

What are some non-modifiable risk factors of falls?

A
  • Age
  • Arthritis
  • Cognitive impairment
  • History of fractures
32
Q

What are some examples of anti-convulsants?

A
  • Sodium valproate
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamazepine
33
Q

What are some examples of anti-depressants?

A
  • SSRI (sertraline, fluoxetine)
  • TCA (Amitryptiline, nortripyline)
34
Q

Give 5 examples of medications that increase risk of falls in the elderly?

A
  • Anticonvulsants
  • Anti-depressants
  • Antihypertensives
  • Anti-parkinsonism (increase postural hypotension, extra-pyramidal side effects)
  • Anti-psychotics- benzodiazepines
35
Q

What are physical complications of falls in the elderly?

A
  • Laceration and skin damage
  • Subdural hemorrhage
  • NOF#
  • Immobilsation and de-conditioning
  • Hospitalisation
  • Increase of pneumonia and UTI
36
Q

What are some psychological complications of falls in the elderly?

A
  • Fear
  • Anxiety and depression
  • Loss of confidence
  • Social withdrawl
37
Q

What are some social complications of falls in the elderly?

A
  • Isolation
  • Long hospital stay
  • Long term care
  • Inability to travel and do hobbies
  • Care home
38
Q

What assessments can you use to assess delirium?

A
  • 4AT
  • AMTS
39
Q

What investigations can you carry out for falls?

A
  • FBC- hemoglobin
  • Us&Es
  • Thyroid- hypo
  • Vitamin D- bone profile
  • Creatine kinase
  • X ray
  • ECG, echo
  • DEXA- osteoporosis
40
Q

How can you prevent falls in the elderly?

A
  • Frailty specialist nurse input
  • OT
  • Physiotherapy
  • Pharmacist
  • Social care
  • Family members
  • Volunteers
41
Q

What DMARD do you use in life or organ threatening rheumatological conditions?

A

Cyclophosphamide

42
Q

What is a risk factor of cyclophosphamide and what is the antidote?

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

Mesna (chelating agent)

43
Q

What combination of drugs can you use in IBD?

A

Allopurinol (stops breakdown of drug) and Azathioprine

44
Q

What drug can’t you give with Sulfasalazine and why?

A

Aspirin as it can cause gastrointestinal upset

45
Q

What levels do you have to check before you administer Azathioprine?

A

TPMT- to prevent neutropenic sepsis

46
Q

What is a particular side effect of Sulfasalazine in men?

A

Can reduce sperm count, take into account if patient is trying to start a family. Can also cause drug induced lupus.

47
Q

Diagnosis of RA

A

Google

47
Q

What needs to be compatible in a kidney transplant?

A

Tissue and blood group

47
Q

What is SPK in ESRF?

A

A simultaneous pancreas-kidney (SPK) transplant is a surgical procedure performed on individuals with end-stage renal failure (kidney failure) who also have type 1 diabetes. This transplant involves the transplantation of both a pancreas and a kidney from a deceased donor into the recipient.

48
Q

What are the long-term risks of a transplant?

A
  • PTLD
  • Cancer (immunosuppresion) most are skin cancers
  • Increased risk of infection