Random 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is CTPA contra-indicated in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

A

The iodine contrast medium is nephrotoxic. IF you suspect a PE, do a V/Q scan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is phesgo?

A

Prescribed in the treatment of HER2-positive breast cancer. The combination of pertuzumab and trastuzumab in Phesgo can help block the HER2 receptor and inhibit cancer cell growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is pseudo-obstruction?

A

Is like mechanical GI obstruction but with no cause for obstruction found.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an example of pseudo-obstruction?

A

Ogilvie’s syndrome. Acute functional colonic obstruction caused by, malignant retroperitoneal infiltration, spine fracture or electrolyte imbalance.

Acute dilation and unexplained paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are features of anterior cerebral artery infarct?

A
  • Contralateral lower limb weakness
  • Contralateral sensory change in lower limb
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Apraxia
  • Dysarthria (rare)
  • Split brain syndrome (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is mometasone?

A

Corticosteroid nasal spray used in allergic rhinitis, nasal polyps etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Q-sinemet?

A

A controlled-release tablet of carbidopa/levodopa. Sinemet contains both carbidopa and levodopa. The ratio of carbidopa to levodopa in the medication is important because carbidopa helps improve the effectiveness of levodopa in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does sepsis result in pancytopenia?

A

‘Stuns’. Suppresses the bone marrow which causes a decrease in the production of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does Diazepam cause sleepiness?

A

Remember that Diazepam is a…benzo! enhances the effects of GABA, calming and inhibitory effect on the brain.

GABA functions as an inhibitory neurotransmitter by binding to specific receptors, known as GABA-A receptors, on the surface of nerve cells (neurons) in the brain. When GABA binds to these receptors, it opens ion channels that allow chloride ions to enter the neuron. This influx of chloride ions results in a negative electrical charge inside the neuron, making it less likely to generate an action potential, which is the electrical signal that neurons use to communicate with each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Pantoprazole?

A

Pantoprazole is a PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Acetazolamide?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Indication- glaucoma as carbonic anhydrase produces aqueous humor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is lymphocytosis?

A

Lymphocytosis is a medical term that refers to an elevated or abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Lymphocytosis is not a disease itself but rather a sign or symptom of an underlying condition or process in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is voriconazole?

A

Anti-fungal.
- Invasive Aspergillosis: A fungal infection caused by the Aspergillus species, which can affect individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS or undergoing organ transplantation.
- Esophageal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does ETOH stand for?

A

EtOH is the medical abbreviation for ethyl alcohol (ethanol),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cause of coffee ground vomit?

A

Cause: Coffee ground vomit is usually the result of bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract, specifically the stomach. The dark color of the vomit occurs because the stomach acid partially digests the blood, giving it the coffee ground appearance.

  • Peptic ulcers
  • Oesophageal varices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Docetaxel?

A

Taxane chemotherapy drug. Works by interfering with the microtubules within cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a ‘blinking JVP’ a sign of?

A

Heart failure. Visible JVP: When the pressure in the right atrium increases significantly, it causes a visible pulsation in the jugular veins, especially when the person is lying at a 45-degree angle. This pulsation is synchronized with the heartbeat and can be observed as a “blinking” or pulsatile JVP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does GTN spray work?

A

It does NOT WORK ON CORONARY ARTERIES.

Acts on venous system- venodilation which lowers the preload. Heart fills less, therefore force of contraction is reduced (Starling’s law). Reduces work load of the heart which lowers the O2 demand.

Secondary action
- Action on coronary collateral arteries improves O2 delivery to the ischaemic myocardium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is allograft dysfunction?

A

Allograft dysfunction refers to a condition in which a transplanted organ or tissue (known as an allograft) does not function as expected or experiences a decline in function after transplantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is Haloperidol a useful drug in EOL care?

A

D2 receptor blockade.

Agitation and Delirium: Patients at the end of life may experience agitation, delirium, or severe confusion. Haloperidol is sometimes used to manage these symptoms by helping to calm the patient and reduce hallucinations or disorientation.

Nausea and Vomiting: Haloperidol can also be used as an adjunct to antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to help control severe nausea and vomiting, which can be distressing for patients in the terminal stages of illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is oxycodone and how does it work?

A

Class A controlled drug along with heroin (diamorphine), methamphetamine (crystal meth), cocaine, MDMA, Ketamine. When oxycodone binds to mu (μ) opioid receptors, it inhibits the release of substance P and other neurotransmitters involved in pain transmission.

22
Q

What does the term echogenic mean?

A

Brighter than surrounding structures. Could be due to calcification, fibrosis, inflammation.

23
Q

What is PTLD?

A

PTLD, or Post-Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder. PTLD occurs as a result of immunosuppression, which is necessary to prevent organ rejection in transplant recipients. The immune system is suppressed to prevent it from attacking the transplanted organ. However, this suppression can also impair the body’s ability to control the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which is a common virus that can cause mononucleosis. In many cases, PTLD is associated with EBV infection.

24
Q

What is Duke criteria?

A

The Duke Criteria, also known as the Duke Endocarditis Service Criteria, are a set of diagnostic criteria used to assess the likelihood of infective endocarditis.

Major
- Echocardiogram showing valvular vegetation
- Blood culture positive for staph aureus, enterococcus, viridans streptococci

Minor
- Predisposing cardiac lesion (congenital heart disease, rheumatic heart disease, prosthetic heart valves)
- Intravenous drug use
- Temperature >38
- Embolic phenomena (janeway lesions, osler nodes)
- Immunologic phenomena (glomerulonephritis)

Definite IE
- 2 major or 1 major +3 minors

Possible
- 1 major +1 minor or 3 minor

Duke’s is used for bowel cancer staging

25
Q

What are some uses for urology stent?

A
  • Remove a stone
  • Relieving obstruction, trauma, fibrosis
  • Preventing Ureteral Injury: In some surgeries, like gynecological or colorectal procedures, there is a risk of inadvertently injuring the nearby ureter. Urology stents may be placed preemptively during these surgeries to help protect the ureter.
26
Q

What is hydralazine?

A

Vasodilator. Hydralazine primarily relaxes and dilates arterioles. By dilating arterioles, hydralazine reduces the resistance to blood flow in the peripheral vascular system, which includes the arteries and arterioles throughout the body.

27
Q

What does CAPD stand for?

A

Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
(ESRD)

CAPD

Involves using the peritoneum, a thin membrane lining the abdominal cavity, as a natural filter for waste removal. Unlike hemodialysis, which requires the use of a machine (dialyzer) and access to the bloodstream, peritoneal dialysis is conducted using the peritoneal membrane itself.

Continuous Treatment: CAPD is called “continuous” because it involves regular and ongoing treatments throughout the day and night. Unlike automated peritoneal dialysis (APD), which uses a machine for automated exchanges during sleep

If dialysis is recommended for you, you’ll often be able to choose whether to have haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis.

28
Q

What is Diclofenac?

A

NSAID. Indications:

Pain Relief: Diclofenac is used to relieve pain caused by various conditions, including musculoskeletal injuries, arthritis, and dental pain.
Inflammation Reduction: It is effective in reducing inflammation, making it useful in conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis.
Fever Reduction: Diclofenac can also help reduce fever when it is caused by an inflammatory condition.

29
Q

What are Gottron’s papules?

A

Flat red rash over the back of the fingers, elbows and knees. Gottron papules, also known as Gottron’s papules, are a distinctive skin finding associated with dermatomyositis, which is a rare autoimmune connective tissue disease that causes inflammation of the muscles and a skin rash.

30
Q

What is sacubitril valsartan used for?

A

Symptomatic chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (in patients not currently taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor antagonist, or stabilised on low doses of either of these agents).

Sacubitril is a neprilysin inhibitor. Neprilysin is an enzyme that breaks down certain substances in the body, including natriuretic peptides, which help regulate blood pressure and fluid balance.

Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). It works by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that can narrow blood vessels and increase blood pressure.

31
Q

What is adenocarcinoma in situ and what is a typical sign on CT?

A

Considered a precursor to invasive adenocarcinoma. More common in women and people that don’t smoke. Ground glassing sign.

32
Q

What is Bupropion?

A

Bupropion is a prescription medication used to treat various conditions, including depression, seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and smoking cessation (under the brand name Zyban).

Increases the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain, which can help reduce nicotine cravings and improve mood

33
Q

What is Varenicline?

A

Also known as Chantix. Varenicline is a partial agonist of nicotinic receptors in the brain. This means that it partially stimulates these receptors, but not as strongly as nicotine does. By partially stimulating the receptors, Varenicline reduces nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms.

34
Q

What are the signs for Mycoplasma Multiforme?

A

Erythema multiforme. Target shaped rash, and a dry cough. Also called walking pneumonia because you generally feel okay with it.

35
Q

What would you find on x-ray of legionella?

A

Cavitating lesion on x ray.

36
Q

What are examples of daily activities of living?

A

Washing, toileting, dressing, feeding, mobility and transferring.

37
Q

What are examples of instrumental activities of living?

A

Cooking, housekeeping, managing finances, doing the washing and using transportation.

38
Q

What is Pirfenidone?

A

Pirfenidone is a medication used in the treatment of a lung disease called idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). It is available under the brand name “Esbriet” and is classified as an anti-fibrotic agent.

Inhibits action of fibroblasts, anti-inflammatory and TGF-β is a protein that plays a central role in promoting fibrosis. Pirfenidone may interfere with the TGF-β signaling pathway, which can lead to a decrease in collagen production and fibrosis.

39
Q

What is Ustekinumab?

A

Ustekinumab is a monoclonal antibody used as a medication to treat certain autoimmune diseases, primarily psoriasis and IBD.

It inhibits the action of interleukin-12 (IL-12) and interleukin-23 (IL-23), which are involved in the autoimmune response that leads to the symptoms of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis.

40
Q

What is eplerenone?

A

Eplerenone is a medication used to treat certain heart conditions, particularly those related to heart failure and high blood pressure. It is classified as a selective aldosterone receptor antagonist.

41
Q

What percentage is 2L on a venturi?

A

24%

42
Q

What percentage is 4L on a venturi?

A

28%

43
Q

What percentage is 8L on a venturi?

A

35%

44
Q

What percentage is 10L on a venturi?

A

40%

45
Q

What percentage is 15L on a venturi?

A

60%

46
Q

What does Rituximab (Rituxan) target?

A

CD20 which is a surface marker on B cells

47
Q

What does Infliximab (Remicade) target?

A

TNF-a

48
Q

What does Trastuzumab (Herceptin) target?

A

Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (HER2)

49
Q

What does Natalizumab (Tysabri) target?

A

α4-integrin receptor. Used for Crohn’s disease and multiple sclerosis.

50
Q

What is clearance?

A

Clearance in the context of urinary physiology refers to the rate at which a substance is removed from the blood plasma and excreted into the urine by the kidneys. It is an important parameter for assessing kidney function and is typically measured for substances like creatinine or inulin. The formula for calculating urinary clearance is as follows:

Urinary Clearance (C) = (Urine Concentration of Substance) x (Urine Flow Rate) / (Plasma Concentration of Substance)