Random 2 Flashcards
1
Q
True or false - verapamil is suitable for the treatment of supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias?
A
False - usually effective for suprventricular tachycardias only.
2
Q
Name two drugs that can lower the seizure threshold
A
SSRIs, tramadol, tapendalol, ciproflox, TCAs
3
Q
Patient currently taking sodium valproate reports abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting… what do you do?
A
Refer to A&E - signs of sodium valproate induced pancreatitis
4
Q
What schedule CD is clenbuterol?
A
Schedule 4 (anabolic steroid)
5
Q
What schedule CD does ketamine belong to?
A
Schedule 2
6
Q
What is the maximum duration of treatment which can be given via OTC chloramphenicol?
A
5 days
7
Q
How long should signed orders be retained for after supply?
A
2 years
8
Q
How long should private prescription records be kept?
A
2 years
9
Q
what is nalidixic acid used for?
A
Urinary tract infections
10
Q
How long after stopping flucloxacillin can choleostatic jaundice develop?
A
up to 2 months after stopping
11
Q
How often should SOPs be reviewed?
A
every 2 years
12
Q
Private prescriptions for COC that state ‘repeat’ can be dispensed a total number of times?
A
can be dispensed a total of 6 times in 6 months
13
Q
How should daktocort cream be stored? what about ointment?
A
In fridge
ointment below 30 degrees
14
Q
Digoxin and quinine interaction
A
Plasma concentration of digoxin is increased by quinine and so can lead to toxicity
15
Q
Why should sildenafil and nitrates not be prescribed together?
A
Can cause a marked hypotensive effect
16
Q
What three drugs must NEVER be put in a syringe driver?
A
Diazepam, prochloperazine and chlorpromazine
17
Q
cyclizine antagonising the effect of what antiemteic?
A
Metoclopramide - no point giving together
18
Q
Confusion or memory loss, muscle spasms, numbness and tingling in the hands/feet, depression, hallucinations, weak and brittle nails…are all signs of what electrolyte disturbance?
A
Hypocalcemia
19
Q
Loss of appetite, N&V, constipation and abdo pain, increased thirst and frequent urination, muscle pain, confusion and difficultly thinking….are all signs of what electrolyte disturbance?
A
Hypercalcemia
20
Q
Signs of hyponatremia
A
Nausea and vomiting
headache, confusion, loss of energy and fatigue, restlessness and irritability, muscle weakness, crapms, seizures, coma
21
Q
constipation, palpitations, fatigue, muscle weakness are signs of what electrolyte disturbance?
A
Hypokalemia
22
Q
Tiredness or weakness, a feeing of numbness or tingling, trouble breathing, chest pain, irregular heart beats/palpitations are signs of what electrolyte disturbance?
A
Hyperkalemia
23
Q
What electrolyte disturbance can mirtazipine cause?
A
Hyponatremia
24
Q
Mrs Smith has been taking 800units of ergocalciferol for 2 weeks now because she has a lack of vitamin D.
She develops nausea and has now vomited. What is the likely reason for this?
A
The vitamin D may have led to an increase in serum calcium causing the symptoms
25
Sumatripan (and other triptans) are contraindicated in what disease?
Coronary vasospasm; ischaemic heart disease; mild uncontrolled hypertension; moderate and severe hypertension; peripheral vascular disease; previous cerebrovascular accident; previous myocardial infarction; previous transient ischaemic attack
26
What is the first line treatment for migraine?
Treatment of a migraine attack should be guided by response to previous treatment and the severity of the attacks. A simple analgesic such as aspirin, paracetamol (preferably in a soluble or dispersible form) or a NSAID is often effective; concomitant antiemetic treatment may be required.
27
Why might simple analgesics not be effective in treating migraine?
Most migraine headaches respond to analgesics such as aspirin or paracetamol but because peristalsis is often reduced during migraine attacks the medication may not be sufficiently well absorbed to be effective; dispersible or effervescent preparations are therefore preferred. Compound preparations containing analgesics and antiemetics are available
28
Which NSAID is specifically licensed for the treatment of migraine?
tolfenamic acid
29
Simvastatin and benzafibrate interaction
Increased risk of rhadomyolosis
30
Why can ACE inhibitors sometimes cause a rapid decline in renal function?
Renal impairment may occur in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis who have been initiated on an ACEI. Such patients rely on angiotensin II to maintain glomerular capillary pressure via vasoconstriction on the efferent arteriole. This is blocked by the ACEI, lisinopril, causing an abrupt decline in the glomerular filtration rate.
31
Hyperglycemia is more common with loop or thiazide like diuretics?
Hyperglycemia is a side effect of both but more likely with Thiazide like diuretics
32
How should dimeticone be used?
Apply once weekly for 2 doses, rub into dry hair and scalp, allow to dry naturally, shampoo after minimum 8 hours (or overnight).
33
What is the recent MHRA advice concerning headlice?
MHRA/CHM advice: Head lice eradication products: risk of serious burns if treated hair is exposed to open flames or other sources of ignition (March 2018
34
A mother brings her child into the pharmacy, she wants something for his headlice. Who needs to be treated?
only affected memebers of the household
35
Malathion is used for the treatment of headlice. What patients should you not recommend malathion to?
Alcoholic lotions not recommended for head lice in children with severe eczema or asthma, or for scabies or crab lice; children under 6 months
36
What can be used to eliminate crab lice? What directions would you give the patient?
Permethrin and malathion.
allowed to dry naturally and washed off after 12 hours; a second treatment is needed after 7 days to kill lice emerging from surviving eggs. All surfaces of the body should be treated, including the scalp, neck, and face (paying particular attention to the eyebrows and other facial hair). A different insecticide should be used if a course of treatment fails.
37
Recent MHRA safety warning concerning mycophenolate mofetil?
Available clinical evidence does not indicate an increased risk of malformations or miscarriage in pregnancies where the father was taking mycophenolate medicines, however mycophenolate mofetil and mycophenolic acid are genotoxic and a risk cannot be fully excluded; for further information, see Conception and contraception and Patient and carer advice. The MHRA advises to exclude pregnancy in females of child-bearing potential before treatment—2 pregnancy tests 8–10 days apart are recommended. Women should use at least 1 method of effective contraception before and during treatment, and for 6 weeks after discontinuation—2 methods of effective contraception are preferred. Male patients or their female partner should use effective contraception during treatment and for 90 days after discontinuation
38
What monitoring is required with mycophenolate?
Monitor full blood count every week for 4 weeks then twice a month for 2 months then every month in the first year (consider interrupting treatment if neutropenia develops).
39
Can oral EC be used if there has also been UPSI earlier in the cycle?
EC providers can offer a woman UPA-EC or LNG-EC if she has had UPSI earlier in the same cycle as well as within the last 5 days, as evidence suggests that UPA-EC and LNG-EC do not disrupt an existing pregnancy and are not associated with fetal abnormality.
40
Can oral EC be used more than once in a cycle?
There is evidence that oral EC does not cause abortion or harm to a very early pregnancy. Both
UPA-EC and LNG-EC can therefore be used if a woman has also had UPSI earlier in the same
cycle. Both UPA-EC and LNG-EC can be used more than once in the same cycle if this is indicated
by further UPSI
41
When should you double the dose of levonelle? And for ellaone?
If BMI >26 or weight >70kg or if taking an enzyme inducing drug
Use of double dose EllaOne is currently not recommended
42
How does emergency contraception work? (in basic terms)
inhibits/delays ovulation this prevents fertilisation or prevents implantation
43
What is the most effective method of emergency contraception?
EC providers should advise women that the Cu-IUD is the most effective method
of EC.
44
Are there any comorbidity contraindications to oral emergency contraception?
UPA-EC is not suitable for use by women who
| have severe asthma controlled by oral glucocorticoids.. They can have levonelle
45
If vomiting occurs within X hours, emergency contraception should be repeaten
3 hours
46
A patient earlier this month received emergency contraception from your pharmacy. She is concerned that her period is 3 days late, what advice do you give?
Advise her to complete a pregnancy test if more than seven days late - it is normal to experience some delay.
47
Which one of the following drugs can cause sudden onset of sleep: Omeprazole, adrenaline, pyrazinamide, levodopa, ondansetron?
Levodopa - Excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden onset of sleep can occur with co-careldopa.
Patients starting treatment with these drugs should be warned of the risk and of the need to exercise caution when driving or operating machinery. Those who have experienced excessive sedation or sudden onset of sleep should refrain from driving or operating machines until these effects have stopped occurring.
48
Outline the common side effects of procyclidine
Antimuscarinic - blurred vision, constiaption, droawsiness and urinary retention
49
What HbAlc value would be diagnostic of diabetes?
>48mmol/mol
50
A target HbAlc concentration of X is generally recommended when T2DM is managed by diet or one oral antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycemia
<48
51
Adults prescribed a single drug associated with hypoglycemia or two or more antidiabetic drugs in combination should usually aim for a HbA1c concentration of ....
53 mmol/mol
52
Which of the following is a toxic effect of theophylline: bruising, drowsiness, convulsions, goitre, watering eyes?
Convulsions
53
Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is not know to be an enzyme inducer: carbamazepine, oxacarbamazepine, levetiracetam, phenobarbital and sodium valproate
Leveriracetam
Sodium valproate is an enzyme inhibitor
54
Is troponin I specific to cardiac muscle?
Yes - troponin I and T is specific to cardiac muscle. Troponin can be found in skeletal muscle as well but is troponin C
55
When should troponin levels be taken after a suspected myocardial infarction?
It can take 10-12 hours after a heart attack for troponin levels to rise
56
true/false: iron preparations can cause constipation and diarrhoea?
True
57
Which of the following is not a notifiable disease? Food poisoning, Toxic shock syndrome, meningitis, measles, whooping cough
Toxic shock syndrome
58
At Mrs As annual review it is found that her HbA1c is much lower than usual. Which of the following drugs that Mrs A has been started on in the last 3 months, is the most likely cause? Aspirin, chlortalidone, lisinopril, prednisolone, warfarin
Lisinopril - all ACEi may cause hypoglycaemia
Chlortalidone is a thiazide like diuretic and can exacerbate diabetes
Prednisolone can raise BG levels
59
True or false: carbocisteine has no known drug interactions
True
60
How many public health and health promotion campaigns are suggested for community pharmacies to run per year according to the community pharmacy contractual framework?
6
61
How long should treatment with an antidepressant be continued for before considering whether to switch antidepressant due to lack of efficacy?
should be continued for at least 4 weeks (6 weeks in the elderly)
62
Following remission, antidepressant treatment should be continued at the same dose for at least X months
6 months (about 12 months in the elderly)
63
Patients with a history of recurrent depression should receive maintenance treatment for at least X years
2 years
64
When a prescriber writes 'REPEAT' for an oral contraceptive pill the prescription may be dispensed how many times?
6 times
65
Why should beclometasone dipropionate MDI inhalers be prescribed by brand? (MHRA advice 2008)
Beclometasone MDI are not interchangeable and should be prescribed by brand name; QVAR has extra-fine particles, is more potent than traditional beclometasone containing inhlaers, and is approximately twice as potent as clenil
66
Which of the following medicines is least suitable for dispensing into a NOMAD tray? Levothyroxine, calcichew, lyrinyl XL, ferrous sulfate, alendronic acid
Alendronic acid
note: Lyrinyl is oxybutynin
67
A patient informs you they feel nauseas, dizzy, tired and their vision has been affected, describing all objects as having a yellow hue. What medicine might they be taking?
Digoxin
68
What drug is the most widely used IV anasthetic due to quicker patient recovery and less hangover effect?
Propofol
69
What is the recommended treatment for gestational diabetes after lifestyle changes have failed? Patients fasting glucose level is <7mmol
Metformin
70
What is the recommended treatment for gestational diabetes after lifestyle changes have failed? Patients fasting glucose level is >7mmol
Offer insulin treatment with insulin with or without metformin
71
Which sulfonylurea can be considered in gestational diabetes?
Glibenclamide
72
What are the two first line options for constipation in pregnancy?
A bulk-forming laxative is the first choice during pregnancy if fibre supplements fail. An osmotic laxative, such as lactulose, can also be used.
73
Which of the following medicines should be avoided in chicken pox? calamine lotion, chlorphenamine, ibuprofen, menthol in aq cream or paracetamol?
Ibuprofen Should avoid NSAIDS
74
Which marker is often raised in patients who have a liver blockage?
ALP
75
Binds to acidic drugs...
Albumin
76
Only antipsychotic licsend for the management of behavioural and psychological symptoms of dementia
Risperidone
77
Drug given to patients taking high doses of cyclophosphamide
Mesna - to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis
78
Dose limiting side effect of capecitabine
Diarrhoea - need to give loperamide
79
What CD schedule does midazolam belong to?
Schedule 3
80
Manufacturers state avoid metformin if eGFR is < ?
30
81
Amphotericin and digoxin interaction
Amphotericin is predicted to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity
82
Max dose of simvastatin when in combination with amlodipine
20mg
83
Which drugs increases the risk of convulsions when used in combination with ciprofloxacin?
NSAIDS
84
Does amiodarone cause hypothyrodism or hyper?
Both
85
What is bromocriptine used for?
Suppression of lactation
| Sometimes used as a dopamine agonist in PD
86
Piogliatazone can lower the risk of bone fractures T/F
False - increases risk!
87
What important safety information is there concerning bromocriptine
Bromocriptine has been associated with pulmonary, retroperitoneal, and pericardial fibrotic reaction
Exclude cardiac valvulopathy with echocardiography before starting treatment with these ergot derivatives for Parkinson's disease or chronic endocrine disorders (excludes suppression of lactation); it may also be appropriate to measure the erythrocyte sedimentation rate and serum creatinine and to obtain a chest X-ray. Patients should be monitored for dyspnoea, persistent cough, chest pain, cardiac failure, and abdominal pain or tenderness. If long-term treatment is expected, then lung-function tests may also be helpful.
88
Which antimalarial drugs are NOT suitable to give to a patient with epilepsy?
mefloquine - CI if Hx of convulsions
| and chloroquine
89
What is the principle benefit of nitrates in treating angina?
Nitrates have a useful role in angina. Although they are potent coronary vasodilators, their principal benefit follows from a reduction in venous return which reduces left ventricular work.
90
Outline some unwanted side effects associated with nitrates
Unwanted effects such as flushing, headache, and postural hypotension may limit therapy, especially when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.
91
Hydralazine is given as an adjunct to other antiHTN for the treatment of resistant hypertension but is rarely used. When used alone it causes....
Tachycardia and fluid retention
92
What is the major disadvantage with using clonidine as an antihypertension?
sudden wthdrawal may cause severe rebound hypertension
93
H.pylori treatment regimen
PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin or metronidazole
94
Preparations that do not contain what sugars are classed as sugar free?
Glucose, sucrose and fructose
95
Which EHC can you use more than once in a cycle?
Levonelle can be taken more than once
EllaOne - can only be used once per menstrual cycle
96
Risk of bulk forming laxatives in opioid use?
may predispose pt taking opioids to faecal impacting
97
What type of service is the minor ailments scheme?
Is a locally commissioned enhanced service
98
Why are ACEi contraindicated in renal artery stenosis?
Disrupts the autoregulation of perfusion
99
Which of these NSAID has the lowest risk of cardiovascular events?
Ibuprofen
Diclofenac
Naproxen
Naproxen
| or low dose of ibuprofen
100
Which of these NSAID has the lowest risk of of gastro-intestinal side effects?
Ibuprofen
Diclofenac
Naproxen
Ibuprofen
101
What drug should be considered for long-term gout control if allopurinol is not tolerated?
Febuxostat
102
A patient presents to the pharmacy with a prescription for buprenorphine 10mg patches that has been written by a prescriber in France. Legally, you can dispense the prescription providing all usual prescription requirements are met...T/F?
False
Buprenorphine is a schedule 3 controlled drug. Prescriptions for schedule 2, 3, or 4 controlled drugs that are written by EEA or Swiss prescribers cannot be dispensed in the UK
103
What CD schedule is tramadol?
Schedule 3
104
A patient should be referred to their GP if a mouth ulcer persists for longer than how long?
3 weeks
105
Liver failure can most commonly occur as a result of treatment with which one of the following anti-diabetic medicines
a) Pioglitazone
b ) Metformin
c ) Sitagliptin
d ) Lixisenatide
Pioglitazone - Rare reports of liver dysfunction; discontinue if jaundice occurs.
Patients should be advised to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue and dark urine develop.
106
Loss of visual acuity and colour blindness is associated with what anti TB drug?
Ethambutol
107
```
Which one of the following is a schedule 3 controlled drug that is exempt from safe custody requirements?
a ) Phenobarbital
b ) Temazepam
c ) Oxycodone
d ) Buprenorphine
```
Phenobarbital
108
```
Which one of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer?
a ) Phenobarbital
b ) Erythromycin
c ) Cimetidine
d ) Ciprofloxacin
```
Phenobarbital
109
```
n patients treated with antibacterial drugs, H.pylori 13C-urea breath tests should not be carried out until how long after treatment has finished?
a ) 2 weeks
b ) 1 week
c ) 4 weeks
d ) 8 weeks
```
4 weeks
110
Repeat dispensing prescriptions for schedule 5 controlled drugs must be dispensed for the first time within 28 days
a ) True
b ) False
False
Feedback/Solution : Repeat dispensing prescriptions for schedule 5 controlled drugs must be dispensed for the first time within 6 months
111
Loop diuretics have a longer duration of action than thiazide like diuretics. true/false?
False
Loop diuretics have a shorter duration of action than thiazide diuretics and can be given twice daily without diuresis interfering with sleep as diuresis lasts about 6hrs
112
Oral decongestants are associated with rebound congestion if used for longer than 5 days
a ) True
b ) False
no
Nasal decongestants are associated with rebound congestion if used for longer than 5 days. Rebound congestion does not occur with oral decongestants
113
What medication is used for dissolution of gallstones?
Ursodeoxycholic acid
114
Omeprazole has a quicker onset of action than ranitidine
a ) True
b ) False
Proton pump inhibitors have a slower onset of action than H2 receptor antagonists
but tend to be more effective
115
GSL medicines can be sold whilst the pharmacist is absent from the pharmacy premises
a ) True
b ) False
true
116
```
Which one of the following drugs is an enyzme inducer?
a ) Carbamazepine
b ) Cimetidine
c ) Ketoconazole
d ) Warfarin
```
carbamazepine
117
```
Liver function tests are routinely recommended for patients who take which one of the following drugs?
a ) Spironolactone
b ) Warfarin
c ) Digoxin
d ) Simvastatin
```
Simvastatin
118
Celecoxib is a better choice than colchicine for treating an acute attack of gout in a patient with a history of myocardial infarction
a ) True
b ) False
False - COX-2 selective NSAIDs, like celecoxib, have been associated with increased risk of myocardial infarction
119
A patient presents to the pharmacy at 12:15pm. They took their combined hormonal contraceptive at 9:15am the same morning but were sick at 11:30am. The patient should be advised to take another pill as soon as possible
a ) True
b ) False
False - A second pill is only necessary if a patient vomits within 2 hours of taking a contraceptive pill
(Note: for EHC the rule is 3 hours)
120
Liquid antacid preparations are generally more effective at treating symptoms of dyspepsia than tablet preparations
a ) True
b ) False
True
121
```
Which one of the following is a stimulant laxative?
a ) Ispaghula husk
b ) Macrogol
c ) Lactulose
d ) Bisacodyl
```
Bisacodyl
122
```
mpotence is a well-documented side effect of which one of the following antihypertensive drugs?
a ) Ramipril
b ) Amlodipine
c ) Furosemide
d ) Atenolol
```
Atenolol
| Impotence is a side effect of beta blockers (such as atenolol)
123
Requisitions for schedule 2 or 3 controlled drugs must state the purpose for which the medicine is required
a ) True
b ) False
True - requisitions for sch 2 and 3 controlled drugs must state the purpose for which the medicine is required
124
A box of thirty-two paracetamol 500mg tablets can be sold over-the-counter to a customer if the pharmacist is absent from the pharmacy premises
a ) True
b ) False
False - 32 pack is a P medicine. Can see 16 pack size.
125
```
Which one of the following is a long-acting insulin?
a ) Soluble insulin
b ) Insulin detemir
c ) Isophane insulin
d ) Insulin aspart
```
Insulin determir
126
Simvastatin has a significant interaction with which of the following?
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Erythromycin
All three!
| There is increased risk of myopathy when simvastatin is given with diltiazem, erythromycin or verapamil
127
The virus responsible for shingles is primarily transmitted through respiratory secretions
a ) True
b ) False
False
| The shingles virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact with fluid from blisters on the skin
128
When selling co-codamol over the counter to a patient, they should be advised to use it for no longer than 5 days
a ) True
b ) False
False - should be advised not to use for longer than 3 days
129
Chickenpox is infectious from one or two days before the rash develops and until all blisters have scabbed over
a ) True
b ) False
True
130
Question 29 ) Requisitions for schedule 1, 2, or 3 controlled drugs should be made using FP10PCD
a ) True
b ) False
Requisitions for sch 1, 2 and 3 CDs should be made used FP10CDF
131
A steroid card should be issued to a patient if their course of prednisolone exceeds how long?
3 weeks
132
What drug should be given to someone with severe IBS and constipation?
Lincoclotide
133
What drugs increase the risk of tendon damage when used in combination with ciprofloxacin?
the risk of tendon damage is increased by the concomitant use of corticosteroids
