Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y6 PSA > Random > Flashcards

Random Flashcards

1
Q

Management for acute oculogyric/dystonic crisis?

A

Procyclidine 10mgIV superior to IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Management of acute COPD on top of ipratropium and salbutamol?

A

Prednisolone 30mg for 7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient on HRT having withdrawal bleeds, wants a patch that won’t cause withdrawal bleeds?

A

Everol Conti self adhesive patch. 1 patch transdermal twice a week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is contraindicated in peripheral vascular disease?

A

BB’sThey cause vasoconstriction which can worsen ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Two medicines that contribute to biventricular failure?

A

Corticosteroids and CCB’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What renal meds cause hyperkalaemia?

A

ACE inhibitors and aldosterone inhibitors (Spiro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drugs may contribute to candida?

A

Oral steroidsAntibiotics e.g. amoxicillin and Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should you never do with steroids?

A

Never stop them abruptly, continue them through any illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maintenance dose of omeprazole for GORD?

A

10-20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a patient on biphasic insulin has bad afternoon BM’s, what do we do?

A

Alter her morning dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Signs of early scarlet fever and Mx?

A

Macular red rash, strawberry tongue, red throat, fever >38If can tolerate oral fluids = oral antibiotics = Phenoxymethylpenicillin 125mg PO QDS for 10 daysNo fluids = IV BenPen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

INR range for mechanical valve?

A

3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What counts as missing a pill for contraceptive?

A

> 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rules for missed pill?

A

If miss one anywhere you will be protected. Take the missed pill and todays pill together. If a woman misses 2 or more pills (especially from the first 7 in a packet), she may not be protected. She should take an active pill as soon as she remembers and then resume normal pill-taking. Use condoms for 7 days. If any of these 7 days fall in the pill free week miss this week.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should you monitor with eplerenone?

A

Potassium (it is a potassium sparing diuretic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Advice for men on methotrexate?

A

Contraception taken during and for at least 6 months after stopping treatment Same advice for women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Side effect of mirtazapine?

A

Abnormal dreams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which diuretics cause hypokalaemia?

A

Thiazide like diuretics e.g. indapamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What interacts with simvastatin to increase severe myopathy risk?

A

Gemfibrozil - potent CYP inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Unconscious hypoglycaemic Mx?

A

1st line = glucose 20% 50-100mL IV, over less than 20 minutes2nd line = Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How to monitor BB effect in AF?

A

Check heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What to monitor electrolyte wise for amiodarone?

A

Potassium - check prior to starting treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do you stop the statin in myopathy?

A

If CK is > 5 times the upper normal limit or severe muscular symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does fentanyl convert to oral morphine?

A

25ug/hour of fentanyl = 60mg of morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What to give to alleviate breathlessness and oedema in heart failure?

A

Furosemide 40mg IV IV IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Patient needs post-op prophylaxis, scared of needles?

A

Apixiban can be given orallyApixiban oral 2.5mg PO BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment for moderate severe acne, having tried topical therapy?

A

DoxycyclineLymecycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Standard dose for tacrolimus?

A

Maintenance dose is commonly 1-2mg BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What electrolyte abnormality do both tacrolimus and Dalteparin cause?

A

Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should anti-platelets be stopped prior to surgery?

A

7 daysExcept if recent vascular stenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What drugs to hold in renal function?

A

ACEI’s, ARBSAllopurinol is really excreted so BNF advises max daily dose of 100mg in renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can AKI cause confusion?

A

Decreased clearance of medicines e.g. co-codamol and diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do steroids affect blood sugar levels?

A

Hyperglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does citalopram affect electrolytes?

A

Cause hyponatraemia, due to inappropriate ADH secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do you take levothyroxine daily or weekly?

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Monitoring furosemide effect in heart failure?

A

Check weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Alcohol withdrawal Tx?

A

Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride 20mg PO TDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If INR >1.5 on the day before surgery what do you give?

A

Phytomenadione (Vitamin K) 1-5mg orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should you advise with anti-depressants?

A

Suicidal idealation may worsen before it gets better / May take 6 weeks to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What should the patient report if on rivoroxaban?

A

Any abnormal unexplained bruising / bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does topiramate affect progesterone only contraception?

A

It reduces the efficacy, so you should an alternative contraceptive during the treatment and for at least 4 weeks afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Side effect of beta blockers ?

A

Erectile dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is an example of a cholestatic drug and who it primarily affects?

A

Co-amoxicalvClassically affects men > 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What interacts with dabigatran etexilate to cause increased bleeding risk?

A

Citalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an acceptable rise in creatinine when starting an ACEI?

A

<20% is acceptable, if it rises to <20% do not stop, just repeat renal function tests in 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Monitoring in carbimazole?

A

FBC for neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

monitoring the affect of ACEI in heart failure?

A

Excercise tolerance - think NYHA classification is how we grade severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Most serious adverse affect of ciclosporin and monitoring?

A

NephrotoxicityBefore starting you must assess renal functionThen check it 2-weekly until stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Whats the usual increase of an insulin dose when the patient goes on glucocorticoids?

A

10% increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What should non-HDL cholesterol have decreased by once started on statins?

A

> 40% reduction in is the target. If you don’t hit this you need to up the dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When should gentamicin levels be measured after the dose?

A

Within a 6-14 hour window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What anti-emetic do you give in patients who are at risk of extra-pyramidal SE’s or prolonged QT?

A

Cyclizine 50mg TDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Management of shingles in a high risk / immunocompromised patient e.g. oncology?

A

Aciclovir at the higher 800mg 5/day dose. For 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How much and how long for a fluid challenge?

A

ideally 500ml in under 15mins, or 1 litre under 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Starting dose for metformin?

A

500mg PO OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Max dose of citalopram in old people?

A

20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What drugs cause ‘indigestion’?

A

Steroids, NSAIDS, alendrotnic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Two common drugs causing diarrhoea?

A

Alendronic acid and PPI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Other than CCB’s, what can cause ankle swelling?

A

Naproxen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pregnant lady with vaginal candidiasis, whats the Tx?

A

It has to be prolonged therapy. Clotrimazole pessary / creamDon’t give oral anti-fungals in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Patient with DKA on short acting insulin (Humulin) and long acting (Lantus). How do we manage her insulin ?

A

Fixed rate insulin infusionStop short actingContinue long acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Management of pain in post-herpetic neuralgia?

A

Paracetamol NSAIDs too but caution if old people with renal risk / ulcer risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Important information to give to people taking loperamide?

A

Initial dose of 4mgthen take 2mg after each loose stool - MAX 16mg/24 hour period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What must we monitor in ciclosporin?

A

Renal function as it is highly nephrotoxic.Monitor creatinine every 2 weeks for first 3 months then 3 monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Is ciclosporin an absolute contra-indication to pregnancy?

A

No, just not recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most likely SE of Liraglutide (GLP1 mimetic)

A

Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does tramadol do the given with SSRI’s?

A

Increases risk of serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What TB drug increases metabolism or oestrogen / progestogens?

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Mx of anti-psychotic induced Parkinsonism?

A

Procyclidine 2.5mg oral TDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does COCP cause short term and how should it be monitored?

A

BP increase, BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What should you measure prior to initiating azathioprine / mercaptopurine?

A

TPMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What should be monitored with apixiban?

A

nothing, just tell patient to report any bleeding / bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

If someone has renal impairment what analgesics should be avoided?

A

Morphine is metabolised in liver and active metabolite is excreted in the kidneys - so will accumulate in renal impairmentOxycodone is metabolised to inactive metabolites by the liver, so use this in renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Management of warfarin and bleeding?

A

> 8 = PTC, IV Vit K and stop warfarin Minor bleeding > 8 IV Vit K and Stop warfarinminor bleeding 5-8 = Oral Vit K and stop warfarin5-8 = withhold 2 doses of warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

If amiodarone causes thyrotoxicosis what should we do?

A

Stop the amiodarone

76
Q

Drugs contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Thiazolinediones = Fluid retentionVerapamil = negative inotropeNSAIDs / glucocorticoids = = Fluid retention (except low dose aspirin) Class 1 anti-arrhythmics = Flecainide (Don’t use in those with structural heart disease)

77
Q

What electrolyte values do people need as maintenance?

A

25-30ml / kg1mmol/kg of potassium, sodium and chloride50-100g/day of glucose

78
Q

What does 0.9% saline have in it?

A 
Sodium = 154Chloride = 154
79
Q

What is in Hartmann’s?

A 
Sodium = 131Chloride = 111Potassium = 5 HCO3 = 29
80
Q

What laxative do you use in opioid induced constipation?

A

Osmotic laxative e.g. lactulose

81
Q

What oxygen should be given in critically ill patients?

A

Resevoir mask 15L/minute

82
Q

What three drugs are contraindicated in asthma?

A

NSAIDs - increased risk in those with nasal polypsBB’s Adenosine

83
Q

What type of fluids should you avoid in stroke patients?

A

5% glucose - increases risk of cerebral oedema

84
Q

Two emergency contraceptions and when you take them?

A

Levonogesterol - within 72 hours, can be used twice in the cycle Ulipristal - Within 120 hours, only once within a cycle. Affects other contraception so restart normal stuff after 5 days and use barrier protection in the mean time.

85
Q

what are the CYP450 inducers?

A

PC BRAS = Enzyme up = drug conc. down PhenytoinCarbamazepineBarbituratesRifampicinAlcohol (CHRONIC EXCESS)Sulphonylureas

86
Q

CYP450 inhibitors?

A

AO DEVICES = enzyme down = drug conc. increaseAllopurinolOmeprazole

DisulfiramErythromycinValproateIsoniazidCiprofloxacinEthanolSulphonamides
87
Q

Drugs to stop pre-surgery?

A

LICK OAPSLithium = day beforeInsulinCOCP = 4 weeks beforeK-sparing diuretics = day ofOral hypoglycaemicAnticoags / plateletsPerindopril (ACEI’s) = Day of

88
Q

Steroid side effects (and loosely the CI’s)

A

STEROIDS

Stomach ulcersThin skinEdemaR + LHFOsteoporosisInfection (Candida)DiabetesSyndrome of Cushings
89
Q

When not to use NSAIDs?

A

Heart failureRenal failureStomach ulcersAsthma

90
Q

Which diuretic causes gout?

A

Thiazides

91
Q

Which diuretic causes gynaecomastia?

A

K Sparing

92
Q

When do you give 5% glucose?

A

If patient is hypernatraemic| Hypoglycaemic

93
Q

When do you give gelofusin?

A

Systolic <90 in trauma etc

94
Q

When shouldn’t you use cyclizine as an anti-emetic?

A

Heart failure as can cause fluid retention

95
Q

When shouldn’t you use metoclopramide?

A

Parkinsons

96
Q

When should you not use COCP?

A

Migraines

97
Q

What causes hypovolaemic hyponatraemia?

A

Urine Na < 20 = extra-renal e.g. D&V, fistula, burnsUrine Na > 20 = renal e.g. Diuretics, salt losing nephropathy

98
Q

What causes euvolaemic hyponatraemia?

A

SIADH, adrenal insufficiency or hypothyroid

99
Q

What causes hypervolaemic hyponatraemia?

A

Cardiac failure, cirrhosis, and kidney failure

100
Q

What causes hypernatraemia?

A

Unreplaced losses = GI, DI

101
Q

Causes of hypokalaemia?

A

1) Renal loss = RTA, thiazides/Gitelmans and Loops/Barters2) GI loss3) Excess aldosterone = Conns4) insulin and salbutamol

102
Q

causes of hyperkalaemia?

A

1) Renal failure2) Drugs e.g. NSAIDs, ACEI, ARBs and Spiro3) Low aldosterone = Addisons4) Redistribution = Rhabdomyolysis or any acidosis

103
Q

Drugs causing neutropenia?

A

Carbimazole and Clozapine

104
Q

Drugs causing cholestasis?

A 
FlucloxacillinCo-amoxiclavNitrofurantoinSteroidsSulphonylureas
105
Q

Signs of digoxin toxicity?

A

Visual halos, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias

106
Q

Lithium toxicity?

A 
Early = tremorLate = Arrhythmias, seizures and DI
107
Q

Phenytoin toxicity?

A

Gum hypertrophy, ataxia, nystagmus and peripheral neuropathy

108
Q

Gent and vancomycin toxicity?

A

Ototoxic and nephrotoxic

109
Q

Dosing in gentamicin normal vs renal failure?When do you measure?

A

Normally high dose = 5mg/kgRenal failure = 1mg/kg6-14 hours post dose

110
Q

What interacts with erythromycin to prolong QT?

A

Domperidone

111
Q

What interacts with fluconazole to cause QT prolongation?

A

Domperidone and haloperidol

112
Q

Side effects of quinolones?

A

Convulsions and tendon damage

113
Q

Side effects of barbiturates?

A

Behavioural disturbances

114
Q

SE’s of carbamazepine?

A

Skin reactions. Asians get Steven Johnsons

115
Q

Management of hyperkalaemia?

A

10ml 10% calcium gluconate 100ml 20% glucose + 10 units actrapidSalbutamol 5mg

116
Q

Management of HTN?

A

1) Under 55 = ACEI / ARB. Over 55 / black = CCB2) A+C3) A+C+ diuretic4) A + C + D + Spiro / alpha blocker / BB / SPECIALIST

117
Q

STEMI and NSTEMI Mx?

A

GTN, morphine, STEMI = PCI / thrombolysis. GRACE >3% = Tirofiban. NSTEMI = LMWH. Angioplasty if GRACE >3% ± PCI. If GRACE>3% = tirofiban.Long term = Aspirin + clopidogrel, statin, BB and ACEI

118
Q

Anaphylaxis Mx?

A

0.5ml 1:1000 adrenaline200mg Hydrocortisone10mg Chloramphenamine

119
Q

Heart failure Mx?

A

1st = ACE and BB2nd line = increase dose3rd: ARB if mild. Mod to severe = Spiro in whites, hydrazine and isosorbide nitrate in blacks.

120
Q

AF Mx?

A

Rate if >65 or IHD:- metoprolol- asthmatics = diltiazem- heart failure = DigoxinRhythm if 1st time, lone AF, young, secondary precipitant:<48 hours = cardiovert –> DC, flecainide or amiodarone if structural heart disease> 48 hours = anticoagulant until INR 2-3, then cardiovert

121
Q

Asthma Mx?

A 
1 = SABA PRN2 = Low dose ICS and SABA3 = + LRTA4 = SABA + ICS + LABA     ± LRTA if worked5 = SABA + ICS ±LRTA    +  MART6 = ICS to moderate7 = high dose ICS
122
Q

COPD Mx?

A

1 = SABA / SAMA2 = FEV > 50% = LABA or LAMA = FEV < 50% = LABA +ICS, OR LAMA3 = LABA + LAMA + ICS

123
Q

Diabetes drugs: Metformin MOA and SE’s?

A

OralDecreases hepatic neogenesis and increases insulin secretionSE’s = NADL = Nausea, abdo pain, diarrhoea and lactic acidosisCI = eGFR < 30

124
Q

Diabetes drugs: Sulphonylurea MOA and SE’s?

A

Oral, gliclazideIncrease B cell secretion of insulinSE’s = Hypos, hyponatraemia and weight gain

125
Q

Diabetic drugs: Thiazolinediones MOA and SE’s?

A

Oral, pioglitazoneActivates gamma PPAR receptor = increased adipogenesisand fatty acid uptake = increased peripheral insulin sensitivity SE’s = weight gain and fluid retentionCI’s = heart failure and bladder cancer

126
Q

Diabetic drugs: DPP4 / gliptins MOA and SE’s?

A

Oral sildagliptin Increases incretin levels = inhibits glucagonSE = pancreatitis

127
Q

Diabetic drugs: SGLT-2 inhibitors MOA and SE’s?

A

OralInhibit glucose reabsorption in the kidneyGet weight loss…. but also UTI’s as increased glucose in urine

128
Q

Diabetic drugs: GLP-1 mimetics MOA and SE’s?

A

Subcut, ExanitideIncretin mimetic SE’s = nausea, vomiting and pancreatitis

129
Q

Common AED SE’s?

A

Lamotrigine = skin hypersensitivityValproate = 3T’s ==> Teratogenic, tremor and tubbyPhenytoin = Ataxia, peripheral neuropathy and gingival hyperplasiaCarbamazepine = SIADH, nystagmus

130
Q

Alzheimers Mx?

A

Mild/moderate = AchE inhibitors e.g. donepezil, rivastigmineSevere = memantine

131
Q

Crohns Mx?

A

Induction = Prednisolone, then sulfasalazine, then Azathioprine, then infliximabMaintain = Azathioprine

132
Q

UC Mx?

A

Induction = Mesalazine, prednisolone then Tacmaintain = Mesalazine, azathioprine then infliximab

133
Q

What do we do with ramipril in pregnancy?

A

Stop as teratogenic, give labetalol

134
Q

What does tamoxifen increase risk of?

A

DVT and endometrial cancer

135
Q

How often is methotrexate given, what do you give with it and what do you not give it with?

A

Once weeklyFolic acidTrimethoprim / co-trimoxazole

136
Q

If on long term steroids what should you take?

A

bisphosphonates and PPIs

137
Q

What does 1% for drugs mean?

A

10mg in 1ml

138
Q

What to monitor in vancomycin?

A

Kidney function as renal cleared

139
Q

What to monitor in statins?

A

Baseline LFT’s then check at 3 and 12 monthsBaseline of creatinine if old / renal disease

140
Q

When do you check phenytoin levels?

A

Trough at 14 days

141
Q

What is lithium range, when do we monitor?

A

0.4-0.8, check 12 hours after last doseMonitor dose weekly after initiation / dose change3 monthly once stable

142
Q

Methotrexate monitoring?

A

Monitor 3 monthly FBC’s

143
Q

What do you monitor in clozapine?

A

First 18 weeks FBC weeklyAny agranulocytosis = stop ASAP

144
Q

Sodium valproate monitoring?

A

Hepatotoxic = LFT’s

145
Q

Amiodarone monitoring?

A

Baseline CXR and do TFT’s + LFT’s

146
Q

What electrolyte affects digoxin levels?

A

PotassiumPotassium competes for digoxin binding, so low potassium means digoxin level raised!

147
Q

SE of amiodarone?

A

Thyroid problems and fibrosis

148
Q

When to use vancomycin in C.Diff vs Metronidazole?

A

Acute rise in creatinineEvidence of colitis e.g. fresh bleedingWCC > 15

149
Q

Anti-emetics in pregnancy?

A

1st line = cyclizine / promethazine2nd line = metoclopramide

150
Q

What two cardiac drugs do you not give together as risk pre-syncope?

A

Verapamil and BB

151
Q

How do drugs cause digoxin toxicity?

A

By decreasing potassium / magnesium e.g. loop or thiazidesBy increasing digoxin plasma conc. e.g. Amiodarone, CCB’s and Spiro

152
Q

Big side effect of tamsulosin?

A

alpha blocker = postural hypotension

153
Q

Side effect of clozapine?

A

Affect glucose metabolism = metabolic syndrome.Polyuria, polydipsia and blurred vision

154
Q

What is DRESS syndrome and three common drug precipitants?

A

Drug Reaction with Eosinophilia and Systemic SymptomsAllopurinol, anti-epileptics, and sulphonamides (e.g. co-trimoxazole)

155
Q

What do you give in corneal abrasion?

A

1 week of topical eye drops e.g. chloramphenicol

156
Q

What must you have done monthly on isotrenitoin?

A

Pregnancy test

157
Q

Common SE of mirtazapine that puts patients off?

A

Weight gain

158
Q

How to monitor adverse affects of caffeine treatment?

A

Drug levels

159
Q

Monitoring in venlafaxine?

A

Regular BP’s and ECGs as can prolong QT

160
Q

If you have renal impairment what type of heparin should you use?

A

Unfractionated. LMWH is excreted really, so don’t use if renal impairment.

161
Q

Post surgery what thromboprophylaxis do you use?

A

Apixiban, rivaroxiban

162
Q

Pre surgery or for medical patients what VTE prophylaxis?

A

All surgery LMWH e.g. dalteparinRenal impairment = unfractionated

163
Q

Which PPI interacts with clopidogrel to reduce its efficacy?

A

Omeprazole. Try to use lansoprazole

164
Q

Which anti-epileptic can cause yellow skin, mistaken for jaundice sometimes?

A

Carbamazepine

165
Q

three common drugs that trigger gout?

A

Thiazides, aspirin and ACEI

166
Q

When managing AF, what counts as adverse signs meaning we cardiovert?

A

Heart failureShockMISyncope

167
Q

If patient has been on long term Benzo’s for anxiety/insomnia what should we do?

A

Switch to diazepam and taper off

168
Q

What type of rash does lithium exacerbate?

A

Psoriasis

169
Q

What should you monitor in tenofovir?

A

Renal function e.g. urinalysis

170
Q

How would you monitor the acute negative effects of aminophylline (i.e. not a theophylline level)?

A

Cardiac monitoring

171
Q

Quetiapine monitoring?

A

Annual BMI, lipids, glucose, FBC and ECG

172
Q

What should you avoid if penicillin allergic?

A

Cephalosporins e.g. ceftriaxones

173
Q

When do you need non-invasive ventilation?

A

Type 2 respiratory failure

174
Q

When should you not use nitrofurantoin?

A

If eGFR is <45. Use trimethoprim instead

175
Q

Most likely SE when giving steroids and amoxicillin?

A

Candidiasis

176
Q

What do you give for urticarial allergic rash, but not full blown anaphylaxis?

A

Chlorphenamine 4mg PO QDS

177
Q

Mx of thyroid storm?

A

Carbimazole

178
Q

What to tell pregnant people taking LMWH worried about baby?

A

It does not cross the placenta

179
Q

What is a patient on a Benzo and nitrate at risk of?

A

Falls

Benzo = confusionNitrate = postural hypotension
180
Q

What happens when you give buprenorphine with morphine?

A

Buprenorphine has a partial agonist effects, counteracting the morphine and reducing efficacy

181
Q

How do you treat a PC of gout if the person has heart failure?

A

Use colchicine

NSAIDs are contraindicated in heart failure, particularly diclofenac

182
Q

Which anti-malarial is contraindicated in pregnancy? Which common medication decreases this drugs absorption?

A

DoxycyclineAntacids decrease doxycycline absorption - don’t prescribe together

183
Q

Why is metformin stopped before surgery? When is it stopped?

A

Risk of lactic acidosis in the event of renal compromise during surgery

Day before surgery

Diabetic patients are all considered for initiation of insulin infusion by ‘sliding scale’

184
Q

Impact on erythromycin on INR in patients taking warfarin

A

Erythromycin (a macrolide) is a P450 enzyme inhibitor and may be responsible for a excessively high INR (through reducing warfarin breakdown and thus increasing its accumulation).

185
Q

Which antihypertensives should NOT be stopped before surgery?

A

BB and CCBs

Due to tachycardia risk

186
Q

Which three LMWHs are available?

A

enoxaparin, dalteparin, and tinzaparin

Unfractionated heparin is used intravenously when tighter control is needed (i.e. much less commonly).

187
Q

What is the most effective way of relieving nausea on SBO?

A

Remove the obstruction or decompress the system with a nasogastric tube; concomitant IV fluids should be given to prevent dehydration while nil by mouth, hence the term ‘drip and suck’.

Y6 PSA (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions