Rando points Flashcards

1
Q

Paraneoplastic antibodies: Anti CV2/CRMP5

A

Associated cancers - SCLC, Thymoma, other
Syndrome - Encephalomyelitis, cerebellar degeneration, chorea, peripheral neuropathy

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2
Q

Paraneoplastic antibodies - Anti Ma proteins

A

Associated Cancer - Testicular germ cell tumors, lung cancer, other solid tumors
Syndrome - Limbic, hypothalamic, brainstem encephalomyelitis (infrequently cerebellar degeneration)

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3
Q

Paraneoplastic antibodis: Anti-VGCC

A

Associated Cancer - SCLC
Other - Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome (50% will have malignancy)
Syndrome - Cerebellar degeneration

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4
Q

Paraneoplastic antibodies: Anti-amphiphysin

A

Associated Cancer - Breast, Lung
Syndrome - Stiff person syndrome, encephalomyelitis

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5
Q

Paraneoplastic antibodies: Anti-PCA2 (MAP1B)

A

Associated Cancer - SCLC
Syndrome - peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia, encephalopathy

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6
Q

Paraneoplastc antibodies: Anti-bipolar cells of the retina

A

Associated Cancer - Melanoma
Syndrome - Melanoma associated retinopathy

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7
Q

Which feature conveys the best prognosis in oropharyngeal cancer

A

HPV positive

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8
Q

Management of spinal cord compression in malignancy - draw

A
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9
Q

drug class and common toxicity

A
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10
Q

Biological effects and Normal Tissue Toxicity after radiotherapy

A
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11
Q

Tumour Suppressor involved in familial melanoma, glioblastoma and pancreatic Ca

A

CDKN2a

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12
Q

Drug profile: Cyclophosphamide

A
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13
Q

Taxane Chemotherapy

  • mechanism of action
  • 7 common side effects
A
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14
Q

Paraneoplastic antibodies: Anti-recoverin

A

Associated Cancer - SCLC
Syndrome - Cancer associated retinopathy

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15
Q

ECOG status
-Describe a patient at each level

A
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16
Q

Summary of Treatment of Advanced Testicular Cancer

A
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17
Q

Mechanism of CTLA-4

A
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18
Q

Up to how many brain mets and what size could you use stereotactic radiotherapy

A

4 mets all less than <4cm

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19
Q

Oncovirus - Malignancy
HCV (2)
HBV (1)
HPV (6)
EBV (4)
CMV (1)
HTLV (1)
HHV8 (2)

A
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20
Q

Li Fraumeni Syndrome

A
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21
Q

Rasburicase Drug Profile

A
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22
Q

Risk Factors of Tumour Lysis Syndrome

A
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23
Q

Malignancies with highest association with TLS

A
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24
Q

Brain Tumours
-Epidemiology and RFs

A
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25
Recurrent Disease in Ovarian Ca - ?benefit of Ca125 monitoring - Platinum sensitivity definition and secondary agents
26
Oesophageal Ca: Risk Factors and Epidemiology
27
Oesophageal Ca - treatment of metastatic disease
28
Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors
29
Gallbladder Cancer: Summary
30
Gastrointestinal Stromal tumours - subtypes - Which is most common - Which gene mutation is most common
31
Management of HER2+ Gastric Ca (met)
32
Testicular Ca
33
Pathophysiology of Tumour Lysis Syndrome
34
Human Papilloma Virus Types and Association with Malignancy
35
HPV Vaccination
36
Diagnosis of Brain Tumour (Radiological) -best modality and features of each
37
Treatment of High Grade Glioma
38
Oesophageal Ca: Treatment of Localised Disease
39
Gastric/GOJ Cancer: Risk Factors
40
Gastric/GOJ Cancer: Treatment
41
Pancreatic Disease: Determinants of whether it is resectable
42
Choliangiocarcinoma - Summary
43
Anal Cancer -Treatment and post treatment surveillance
44
GIST - Treatment
45
Immunotoxicity with , general principles and management - what's the most common reaction - which reaction won't respond to steroids
Higher incidence of immunotoxicity with CTLA4 inhibitor (ipilimumab)
46
Paraneoplastic antibody: Anti-Hu
Associated cancer - **SCLC,** others Syndrome - **Encephalomyelitis** including cortical, limbic, and brainstem encephalitis; c**erebellar degeneration; myelitis; sensory neuronopathy; and/or autonomic dysfunction**
47
Paraneoplastic antibodies - Anti-Ri
48
CEA - what's it's role (2) - what common activity will give a false positive?
49
Pancreatic Ca: Treamtent
FOLFIRINOX is preferred but more toxic
50
Which chemo agent is the most gonadotoxic?
Alkalyting agents Other - MTx
51
Paraneoplastic anti-bodies: **Anti-Tr (DNER)**
Associated Cancer - **Hodgkin lymphoma** Syndrome - **Cerebellar degeneration**
52
Genetic Mutations associated with Lynch Syndrome
patients have **autosomal dominant germline** mutation in 1 of the following DNA mismatch repeair genes: * MLH1 * MSH2 * MSH5 * PMS2 - lower penetrance than other genes * EPCAM gene Lynch syndrome patients have a germline mutation in one allele of a MMR gene 2nd allele is inactivated somatically by mutation, loss of heterozygosity or epigenetic silencing by promoter hypermethylation * **Muir-Torre syndrome:** variant characterised by **sebaceous tumors** and **cutaneous keratoacanthomas** + normal ca associated with Lynch syndrome. **MSH2** mutations seem to be particularly predisposed
53
Role of MESNA and cyclophosphamide
* used therapeutically to reduce the incidence of haemorrhagic cystitis and haematuria * Ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide can be/may be converted to urotoxic metabolites such as acrolein * MESNA assists to neutralise these metabolites by binding through its sulfhydryl-moieties and also increases urinary excretion of cysteine
54
Treatment of Bladder Cancer
55
Paraneoplastic antibody: Anti-Yo (Anti-purkinje cell)
Associated Cancer - **Gynae, breast** Syndrome **- cerebellar degeneration**
56
Strongest RF for chemotherapy induced ovarian failure
57
Mechanism of PD-1 in Cancer and Immune Tolerance
58
What are the most common causes of infection in neutropoenic patients? Which subset are at risk of fungal pathogens?
* Most commonly by **bacterial infection** * GPCs are the most common pathogens * Common * Staph epidermitis, by far the most common * Staph aureus * Streptococci * Less common * Corynebacterium, bacillus, leuconostoc, lactobacillus, propionibacterium acnes, rhodococcus * GNBs used to be more common, but now account for only 10-20% of neutropoenic infections * Generally associated with the most severe infections * Increasing trend in multiresistant GNB infections * Empiric broad cover is targeted at the small but significant risk of infection * Fungal * Candida and aspergillus spp account for most invasive fungal infections during neutropoenia * Disseminated candidiasis with hepatosplenic involvement may not have symptoms until neutropoenia resolves * Non albicans spp more common when fluconazole prophylaxis used
59
When is G-CSF use indicated? Is it of use in neutropoenic fever?
**Primary prophylaxis** * Initiation of G-CSF during first cycle of myelosuppressive chemotherapy with the goal of preventing neutropoenic complications through all chemotherapy cycles * May be used to allow for dose dense/intense strategies when reduction in density/intensity is known to be associated with poorer prognosis * *Indicated when anticipated incidence of neutropoenic fever is \>=20%* **Secondary prophylaxis** * Use of G-CSF in subsequent cycles when neutropoenic fever has occurred in a previous cycle * *Reduces incidence of subsequent neutropoenic fever by 50%* **NOT recommended for routine use in those with established fever and neutropoenia** * *Data show no change in overall mortality or infection related mortality* **Filgrastim** * Start 24-72hrs post end of chemo and continuing until count reaches 5000-10000 **Pegfilgrastim** * Start 24hrs post chemo and leave at least 14 days before next cycle
60
What is myeloid reconstitution syndrome? (In haem onc)
Onset or progression of an inflammatory focus that manifests at time o**f neutrophil recovery** * - Defined clinically or radiologically Need to consider superinfection
61