Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

Discovered the X-ray in 1895 while experimenting with a cathode Ray tube.

A

Wilhelm Roentgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Production of ions.

A

Ionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Radiation capable of producing ions by removing or adding an electron to an atom; X-rays produce ionization.

A

Ionizing radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Propagation of wave-like energy (without mass; without particles) through space or matter. X-rays is an example

A

Electromagnetic radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Speed of a wave

A

Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Wavelength

A

Distance between crest of one wave to the crest of the next wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Number of wavelengths that pass a point in a certain amount of time

A

Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Very short wavelength resulting from the bombardment of tungsten by highly accelerated electrons in a vacuum.

A

X-Ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are X-rays absorbed by?

A

Matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do X-rays travel?

A

In straight lines and cannot be focused to a point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

High vacuum glass tube surrounded by refined oil with high insulating powers; the oil helps to absorb excess heat.

A

Protective leaded glass housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Made of tungsten filament and molybdenum sup; negative charge, supplies the electrons necessary to generate X-rays, thermionic emission.

A

Cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Made of copper arm and focal spot; positive charge, focal spot is made of tungsten (target=tungsten)

A

Anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This happens inside the X-ray tube.

A

Electron stream travels from negative cathode to positive anode, 99% of the energy is lost as heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Electrical pressure or potential difference between two electrical charges.

A

Voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Determines the quality of the X-ray beam (quality refers to the penetrating power of the beam) regulates electrons from cathode to anode.

A

Kilovoltage Peak (kVp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Overall darkness or blackness of an image.

A

Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

KVp is increased, what will the image exhibit?

A

Increased density and appears darker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

kVp is decreased, what will the image exhibit?

A

Decreased density and appears lighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How sharply dark and light areas are separated on an image

A

Contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What results from a Low kVp (65 tp 70)?

A

High contrast image, short-scale of contrast, consider for viewing dental caries, density is low (lighter) resultant image is black and white.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What results from a high kVp ( 90)?

A

Low contrast image, long-scale of contrast, consider for viewing periodontal disease. Density is high (darker) and resultant image is many grays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What affects contrast?

A

Only kVp and filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What affects quality?

A

Only kVp and filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ampere is the unit of quantity of electric current. Controls the temp of the tungsten filament.

A

Milliamperage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An increase in mA will result in?

A

Increased density and a darker image (mA does not affect image contrast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does mA also control?

A

The temp of the tungsten filament (the hotter the filament, the greater number of X-rays produced)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source of radiation.

A

Inverse square law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If cone length is changed from 8 to 16 inches, how does this affect the intensity of the beam?

A

Intensity will decrease, 1/4 as intense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If cone length is changed from 16 to 8 inches, how does this affect the intensity of the beam?

A

Intensity will increase, 4x as intense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If a person standing 3 feet from an X-ray source receives 4 rads of exposure, how much would they receive at 6 feet?

A

1 RAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Time that elapses between exposure to radiation and appearance of observable clinical signs.

A

Latent period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Follows latent period, cell death, changes in cell function and abnormal mitotic activity may result.

A

Period of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cells repair the damage in this phase.

A

Recovery period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Caused by repeated radiation exposure leading to health problems that accumulates in the tissues and is unrepaired.

A

Cumulative effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What dose is the Panoramic dose equivalent to?

A

4 bitewings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

First sign of overexposure to x-radiation?

A

Erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Seen in the person irradiated; not transmitted to future generations.

A

Somatic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Not seen in the person irradiated but are passed to future generations

A

Genetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cells that divide frequently and more sensitive to radiation.

A

Mitotic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cells that are immature and more sensitive to radiation.

A

Cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cells that have higher metabolism and more sensitive to radiation.

A

Cell metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Highest cell sensitivity to radiation.

A

Reproductive tissue, lymphoid sx, bone marrow, intestines, and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lowest cell sensitivity to radiation.

A

Nerve tissue-nosey radioresistant, skeletal muscle, heart, optic lens and mature bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Allows the more penetrating X-rays pass through by absorbing long wave radiation and removes the “soft” radiation.

A

Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Reduces the surface area exposed by the use of a lead diaphragm and reduction in size of beam of radiation.

A

Collimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the beam size at the patient’s face?

A

Can be no larger than 2.75 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How much does the rectangular collimation reduce the skin surface area by?

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Less volume of tissue is irradiated if a long cone is used; less scatter produced with a long cone

A

Position indicating device (PID, cone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

This protects the reproductive and blood-forming tissues and absorbs 90% of the scatter radiation, lead equivalent is usually 0.25 mm.

A

Lead apron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Most effective method of radiation protection; E-speed film is twice as fast as D-speed and needs half the exposure time.

A

Fast Film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Reduce exposure time and reduce the amount of radiation needed to properly expose a film, therefore reducing the amount of radiation the patient receives

A

Intensifying screens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What must the operator remember when performing X-rays?

A

Stand at least 6 feet away from X-ray tubehead, stand behind barrier or wall, be positioned at a 90-135 angle to the beam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the MPD for occupational use?

A

5 REM/year (5000 mrem) or 0.05 Sv/year (50mSv)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the MPD for non-occupational use?

A

0.1 REM/year (100 mrem) or 0.001 Sv/year (1 mSv)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is ALARA?

A

As low as reasonably achievable

57
Q

The smaller the focal spot size increases this, composition of film emulsion influences this, the smaller the silver halide crystals the sharper the image appears, a loss of this occurs when the patient moves during exposure.

A

Sharpness

58
Q

Refers to an image that appears larger than the actual size of the object it represents.

A

Magnification

59
Q

What results in less image magnification and decrease in magnification?

A

Less image magnification-longer PID And target to film distance
Decrease in magnification-decrease in object to film distance

60
Q

How do you minimize distortion?

A

Object and film must be parallel to each other and the X-ray beam must be directed perpendicular to the tooth and film

61
Q

Manual film processing basics

A

Developer/wash/fixer/wash/dry

62
Q

Turns energized silver halide crystals into black metallic silver

A

Developer

63
Q

The 2 ingredients in developer that soften the film emulsion

A

Hydroquinone and Elon

64
Q

What’s the optimum time/temperature for developer?

A

5 mins at 68 degrees

65
Q

What does the rinsing step do?

A

Removes the developer from the film and stops the development process and usually takes 30 seconds

66
Q

Removes the unexposed, Unenergized silver halide crystals from the film emulsion. Removes ALL UNEXPOSED CRYSTALS; clears the film

A

Fixer solution

67
Q

2 main ingredients in fixer that harden the film emulsion

A

Sodium thiosulfate and ammonium thiosulfate

68
Q

How long does it take for fixer?

A

10 mins (twice the development time)

69
Q

Thermometer in which solution?

A

Developer

70
Q

Automatic film processing basics

A

Developer/fixer/wash/dry. Designed to work at higher temperatures and no rinse step exists between developer and fixer.

71
Q

Provides sufficient illumination in the darkroom, low wattage bulb (7 1/2 or 15 Watts) placed a minimum of 4 feet away from the film and working area, GBX-2 filter can be used for extraoral and intraoral films, extraoral films have an increased sensitivity to light.

A

Safe lighting

72
Q

What error caused a completely black film?

A

Film was exposed to light before processing

73
Q

What error caused a completely clear film?

A

Film was not exposed to x-radiation

74
Q

What error results in a light film?

A

Underdeveloped film; Inadequate or depleted developer, developer too cool

75
Q

What error results in a dark film?

A

Overdeveloped film; excessive developing time, developer too hot, concentrated developer.

76
Q

What results in dark spots?

A

Developer spots; developer splashed on film before processing.

77
Q

What results in light spots?

A

Fixer spots; fixer splashed on film before processing

78
Q

What results in herringbone or tire track pattern?

A

Backwards film; film placed backwards in the mouth

79
Q

What results in diagonal black line?

A

Severely bent film

80
Q

What results in air space seen and lack of apices?

A

Patient not biting on bite block

81
Q

What results in overlapping of teeth contacts?

A

Overlapped images; incorrect horizontal angulation

82
Q

What results in short teeth with blunted roots?

A

Foreshortened images; too much vertical angulation.

83
Q

What results in long, distorted teeth?

A

Elongated images; too little vertical angulation.

84
Q

What results in an unexposed area on film?

A

Cone-cut; central ray not in center of film

85
Q

What may appear as dental caries and is radiolucent?

A

Cervical burnout; radiolucent artifact seen in areas of different densities

86
Q

Same lingual; opposite buccal.

A

SLOB rule

87
Q

How is an occlusal radiograph exposed?

A

Directing the central ray at a right angle (perpendicular) to the radiograph and shows the object in the buccal-lingual and anterior-posterior relationships

88
Q

What’s the standard receptor size?

A

Size 2; anterior and posterior teeth in adults.

89
Q

What’s the receptor size for occlusal?

A

Size 4

90
Q

Small ovoid RL between the roots of the maxillary central incisors.

A

Incisive foremen; hole in bone at midline of anterior portion of hard palate

91
Q

Thin RL line between max central incisors.

A

Median palatial suture; immovable joint between 2 palatine processes of maxilla.

92
Q

Large RL area above max incisors.

A

Nasal cavity; pear shaped compartment located superior to maxilla.

93
Q

Vertical RO partition that divides the nasal cavity.

A

Nasal septum; vertical bony wall/partition divides nasal cavity into right and left nasal fossae

94
Q

V shaped RO area located at intersection of floor of the nasal cavity and the nasal septum.

A

Anterior nasal spine; sharp projection of maxilla located at anterior and inferior portion of nasal cavity.

95
Q

RL area superior to the apices of the maxillary posterior teeth.

A

Maxillary sinus; paired compartments of bone located within the maxilla located above max premolar and molar teeth

96
Q

Thin RO lines that surround/divide the sinus.

A

Floor of the maxillary sinus

97
Q

RO upside down Y located superior to the max canine.

A

Inverted Y; intersection of max sinus and nasal cavity.

98
Q

RO bulge distal to third molar region.

A

Maxillary tuberosity; rounded prominence of bone that extend posterior to the third molar region

99
Q

RO hook like projection posterior to the maxillary tuberosity.

A

Hamulus

100
Q

J or U shaped RO located superior to the max first molar region

A

Zygomatic process of maxilla; bony projection of maxilla that articulates with the zygoma.

101
Q

Diffuse RO band extending posterior from the zygomatic process of the maxilla.

A

Zygoma; cheek bone composed of dense cortical bone

102
Q

Ring-shaped RO below the apices of the mandibular incisors

A

Genial tubercles; tiny bumps of bone that serve as muscle attachment sites

103
Q

Small RL dot surrounded by the genial tubercles.

A

Lingual foramen; hole in bone on internal surface of mandible near midline

104
Q

Vertical RL lines.

A

Nutrient canals; tube-like passageways that house nerves and blood vessels.7

105
Q

Thick RO band that extends from the premolars to the incisor region.

A

Mental ridge; linear prominence of bone.

106
Q

RL area located above the mental ridge.

A

Mental fossa; scooped out, depressed area of bone.

107
Q

Small ovoid or round RL in the apical region of the mandibular premolars.

A

Mental foramen; hole in bone located on external surface of mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars.

108
Q

RL band outlined by RO lines and appears below the apices of mandibular molars.

A

Mandibular canal; tube like passageway thru bone that travels length of mandible.

109
Q

RO band extending downward from the ramus; May continue on as the mylohyoid ridge. Also is the inferior land mark.

A

Internal oblique ridge; linear prominence of bone located on the internal surface of mandible and extends downward and forward from the ramus.

110
Q

RO band extending downward from the ramus and typically ends in third molar region.

A

External oblique ridge; linear prominence of bone located on external surface of body of mandible.

111
Q

RL area in the mandibular molar region below the mylohyoid ridge.

A

Submandibular fossa; scooped out, depressed area of bone on internal surface of mandible.

112
Q

Triangular RO superimposed over the max tuberosity region; only mandibular landmark to appear on maxillary films.

A

Coronoid process; marked prominence of bone on anterior ramus of mandible.

113
Q

Completely RO with irregular borders.

A

Amalgam; overhangs; and fragments

114
Q

Completely RO; smooth borders

A

Gold restorations; crown, bridges, gold foil.

115
Q

RO, but not as dense as amalgam, does not appear to fit the tooth well; “see through areas”

A

Stainless steel and chrome crowns

116
Q

RL to RO

A

Composite restorations

117
Q

Seen in endodontically treated teeth.

A

Post extends into the pulp canal and core resembles the prepped portion of a tooth

118
Q

Slightly RO; appearance similar to enamel.

A

Porcelain restorations

119
Q

Metal component is completely RO and porcelain component is slightly RO

A

Porcelain fused to metal crown

120
Q

Slightly RO to RL; endodontic materials.

A

Gutta percha

121
Q

RO endodontic material

A

Silver points

122
Q

RO posts places within the bone to support restorations for missing teeth.

A

Dental implants

123
Q

Used to ensure strength and stability with a larger restoration; generally appear RO.

A

Retention pins

124
Q

Fixed bridge in which the Pontic is supported only on one side

A

Cantilevered bridge

125
Q

Seen on panoramic, between the palate and tongue horizontal RL band.

A

Palatoglossal air space

126
Q

Seen on panoramic, refers to portion of pharynx posterior to the nasal cavity, diagonal RL

A

Nasopharyngeal air space

127
Q

Seen on panoramic, refers to portion of pharynx posterior to the tongue, vertical RL band.

A

Glossopharyngeal air space

128
Q

Seen on panoramic, passes through the floor of the orbit and the external auditory meatus.

A

Frankfort plane

129
Q

Seen on panoramic, divides the body into right and left sides

A

Midsagittal plane

130
Q

Seen on panoramic, 3D curved zone in which structures are clearly demonstrated on a panoramic radiograph.

A

Focal trough

131
Q

Maxillary incisors appear blurred and magnified; reverse smile line; hard palate superimposed over the maxillary apices.

A

Frankfort plane upwards (chin up)

132
Q

Mandibular incisors blurred; exaggerated smile line; condyles may not be visible.

A

Frankfort plane down (chin down)

133
Q

Anterior teeth appear skinny and out of focus.

A

Teeth anterior to focal trough.

134
Q

Anterior teeth appear fat and out of focus.

A

Teeth posterior to focal trough

135
Q

Unequal magnification; posterior teeth are larger on one side than the other.

A

Midsagittal plane not centered (head turned)

136
Q

Cervical spine appears as a RO in the center of the image.

A

Position of the spine (pt. Slumped or slouched, ex. Scoliosis).

137
Q

A dark RL shadow obscures the apices of the max teeth; cannot see maxillary teeth well.

A

Position of the tongue (tongue not against hard palate)

138
Q

RO cone-shaped artifact obscuring the mandible; no thyroid collars with panoramic X-rays

A

Lead apron placed too high.