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Radiology > Radiology 5 > Flashcards

Radiology 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a parenteral route of drug adminstration?

A. Sublingual

B. Intrathecal

C. Subcutaneous

D. Intradermal

A

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2
Q

According to the American Hospital Association Patient Bill of Rights a patient has the right to:

A. Consent to a treatment

B. Decline to take part in research

C. Review their own medical record

D. A, B & C

A

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3
Q

What’s the most IMPORTANT action to be taken by a radiographer when the patient starts to have a seizure?

A. Initiate CPR

B. Restrain the patient

C. Protect the patient from injury

D. Go find a radiologist

A

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4
Q

A signed order on the patient’s chart the orders the staff not to perform CPR is called:

A. DNI

B. DNR

C. Full code

D. BUN

A

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5
Q

The MOST frequent site of nosocomial infection in hospitals is:

A. Urinary tract

B. Respiratory tract

C. Skin

D. Gastrointestinal tract

A

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6
Q

Iodinated contrast agents are less painful to the patient when administered at:

A. 55 degrees F

B. 70 degrees F

C. 98 degrees F

D. 104 degrees F

A

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7
Q

It is not appropriate for the radiographer to discuss this topic with the patient.

A. Hobbies

B. Weather

C. Ability to get on the x-ray table

D. Patient chart

E. All of these are appropriate topics

A

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8
Q

There are four procedures commonly referred to as vital signs. They are blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and ____.

A. Heart beat

B. Alertness

C. Temperature

D. Motor coordination

A

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9
Q

Any material that is wet with blood must be placed in a:

A. Plastic bag

B. Regular trash bag

C. Green bag

D. Red biohazard bag

A

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10
Q

If an x-ray exam requires fasting, which of the following patients should have their exam last?

A. Children

B. Elderly patients

C. Diabetic patients

D. Adult patients

A

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11
Q

Which of the following would be true when performing a radiographic exam on a substance abuse patient?

A. The patient may be agitated and/or violent

B. The patient may be left unattended in the x-ray room

C. Retraints can never be used

D. A, B & C

A

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12
Q

When a patient with chest-tube drainage comes to Radiology, you should take special care to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Keep drainage bottle below the patient’s chest

B. Clamp the tube when you stand the patient up

C. Be sure the water seal straw is immersed in water

D. Never disconnect the tube from the drainage bottle

A

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13
Q

The complete removal of all microorganisms and their spores is referred to as:

A. Asepsis

B. Sterile field

C. Surgical asepsis

D. Medical asepsis

A

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14
Q

The highest risk of occupational exposure to HIV for a health care professional is:

A. Blood transfusion

B. Needle stick

C. Blood/body fluid splash

D. Sexual intercourse

A

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15
Q

The radiographer should use ___ for a patient with influenza or whooping cough.

A. Airborne precautions

B. Droplet precautions

C. Contact precautions

D. Expanded precautions

A

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16
Q

The term that describes a normal ECG is:

A. Sinus bradycardia

B. Sinus tachycardia

C. Sinus rhythm

D. Atrial fibrillation

A

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17
Q

The type of dose-response relationship depicted by line B in the diagram is a:

A. Linear, nonthreshold relationship

B. Nonlinear, nonthreshold relationship

C. Linear, threshold relationship

D. Nonlinear, threshold relationship

A

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18
Q

Which of the following assumptions could be made about line A from the diagram above?

A. A minimum amount of radiation is necessary for manifestation of effects

B. The effects of radiation are proportional to the dose received

C. No threshold dose is required for manifestation of effects

A

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is correct in regards to the molecular effects of ionizing radiation?

A. Most ionizing interactions occur in the DNA molecules

B. The direct effect usually occurs with low LET radiation

C. The majority of cell damage is not repairable

D. The indirect effect occurs most frequently

A

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20
Q

The barrier which separates a radiographic exam room from the general public must have shielding so that the annual exposure in the adjoining area does not exceed:

A. 0.25 mSv

B. 1 mSv

C. 5 mSv

D. 10 mSv

A

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21
Q

The most effective type of gonodal shielding for males for use during fluoroscopic procedures like an upper GI exam would be:

A. Contoured contact

B. Flat contact

C. Cylindrical cone

D. Diaghragm

A

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22
Q

What supplies free electrons for x-ray production?

A. Anode

B. Thermionic emission

C. Focusing cup

D. Attenuation

A

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23
Q

Which of the following types of interactions would occur in the diagnostic x-ray range (50 to 150 kVp)?

  1. Photoelectric effect 2. Compton effect 3. Pair production

A. 1

B. 1 & 2

C. 1 & 3

D. 2 & 3

E. 1, 2 & 3

A

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24
Q

The main goal of the radiographer regarding their personal radiation safety should be:

A. Avoiding whole body exposure

B. Wearing protective apparel while holding difficult patients

C. Staying below the maximum dose allowed each year

E. Keeping their radiation dose as low as possible

A

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25
Q

Acute radiation lethality is measured quantitatively by:

A. LET

B. Manifest illness

C. LD 50/30

D. RBE

A

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26
Q

Radium watch dial painters of the 1920’s and 1930’s were part of a group that developed a high rate of ___ cancer.

A. Bone

B. Lung

C. Thyroid

D. Leukemia

A

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27
Q

Filtration of the x-ray beam would have the least effect on:

A. Beam quality

B. Short wavelength photons

C. Long wavelength photons

D. Exposure rate

A

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28
Q

The minimum target-to-tabletop distance for mobile fluoroscopic units must not be less than:

A. 6 inches

B. 12 inches

C. 30 inches

D. 40 inches

A

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29
Q

An optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter contains a/an:

A. Small piece of photographic film

B. Chip of litium fluoride

C. Aluminum oxide detector

D. Gold leaf electroscope

A

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30
Q

In case of accidental exposure to a pregnant patient, the fetal dose should be calculated by the:

A. Medical Physicist

B. Lead Technologist

C. Nuclear Physicist

D. Radiologist

A

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31
Q

What is the unit that expresses the sum of all the weighted equivalent doses for irradiated tissues or organs?

A. Effective dose

B. Equivalent logarithm

C. Efficay limit

D. Additive equivalency

A

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32
Q

The minimum source to skin distance for mobile radiography equipment is:

A. 12”

B. 24”

C. 36”

D. 48”

E. 72”

A

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33
Q

High-level-control fluoroscopy (HCLF) is often used for interventional procedures within the radiology department. What effect does HCLF have on radiation dose?

A. Increases radiation dose

B. Decreases radiation dose

C. Will increase visibility of small structures, but will not affect dose.

D. Will decrease visibility of small structures, but will not affect dose.

A

1.

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34
Q

As the L.E.T. of the radiation increases, the biological response will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain the same

A

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35
Q

If the frequency on a sine wave increases, the wavelength will:

A. Decrease

B. Increase

C. Stay the same

D. Can’t predict what wavelength will do

A

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36
Q

Which of the following statements regarding x-ray tube housing is correct?

A. X-rays leak through the housing constantly

B. Leakage radiation may not exceed 100 mR/hour at 1 meter

C. The tube housing is lead so there is never leakage radiation

D. Only the patient is at risk from leakage radiation

A

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37
Q

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions results in the ejection of a K-shell electron?

A. Pair production

B. Coherent scatter

C. Compton’s interaction

D. Photoelectric interaction

A

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38
Q

Which of the following agencies issues a report that specifies the annual effective absorbed dose limits for the general public?

A. ALARA

B. NRC

C. NCRP

D. ICRP

A

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39
Q

Patient radiation dose reduction in computed radiography is limited by:

A. System noise

B. Slow-scan mode

C. Fast-scan mode

D. Image contrast

A

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40
Q

Which of the following phases in the cycle of the cell would possess the highest radiosensitivity?

A. G1

B. S

C. G2

D. M

A

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41
Q

The wavelengths of diagnostic x-rays would range from:

A. .00001 to .0001 Angstrom

B. .001 to .01 Angstrom

C. .1 to 1 Angstrom

D. 10 to 100 Angstrom

A

1

42
Q

A lead apron with .5 mm lead equivalent will attenuate about ___% of a kVp x-ray beam.

A. 100

B. 90

C. 75

D. 66

A

1

43
Q

At what level of radiation does the FDA recommend that a notation be placed in the patient’s record?

A. 1 to Fy (100 to 200 rad)

B. 2 to 3 Gy (200 to 300 rad)

C. 4 to 5 Gy (400 to 500 rad)

D. 6 Gy (600 rad)

A

1

44
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

500 mA ____ mA

.12 second .2 second

48” SID 40” SID

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

E. 500

A

1

45
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

400 mA 200 mA

.12 second ____ second

80” kVp 68 kVp

A. .04

B. .08

C. .16

D. .30

E. .50

A

1

46
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

200 mA ____ mA

.07 second .03 second

6:1 grid 5:1 grid

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

E. 500

A

1

47
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

600 mA 400 mA

.10 second ____ second

36” SID 42” SID

A. .07

B. .15

C. .20

D. .40

E. .60

A

1

48
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

100 mA 200 mA

6 second ____ second

12:1 grid 8:1 grid

48” SID 36” SID

A. .07

B. .14

C. .3

D. .4

E. .5

A

1

49
Q

A lateral projection of the skull is obtained utilizing the following exposure factors: 200 mA; .25 sec; 70 kVp; 8:1 grid; 40” SID; and a 1.2 mm focal spot.

Due to the patient’s condition, a cross table lateral is necessary utilizing a 5:1 grid and a 50” SID. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure, the mAs should be adjusted to:

A. 10 mAs

B. 20 mAs

C. 40 mAs

D. 60 mAs

E. 80 mAs

A

1

50
Q

A lateral projection of the skull is obtained utilizing the following exposure factors: 200 mA; .25 sec; 70 kVp; 8:1 grid; 40” SID; and a 1.2 mm focal spot.

Due to the patient’s condition, a cross table lateral is necessary utilizing a 5:1 grid and a 50” SID. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure, the mAs should be adjusted to:

Due to the compensated changes, what would be the resultant effect to patient dose?

A. Increased patient dose

B. Decreased patient dose

C. Patient dose would not be affected

A

1

51
Q

A lateral projection of the skull is obtained utilizing the following exposure factors: 200 mA; .25 sec; 70 kVp; 8:1 grid; 40” SID; and a 1.2 mm focal spot.

Due to the patient’s condition, a cross table lateral is necessary utilizing a 5:1 grid and a 50” SID. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure, the mAs should be adjusted to:

Due to the compensated changes, what would be the resultant effect to magnification?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain the same

A

1

52
Q

A lateral projection of the skull is obtained utilizing the following exposure factors: 200 mA; .25 sec; 70 kVp; 8:1 grid; 40” SID; and a 1.2 mm focal spot.

Resultant effect of utilizing a .6 mm focal spot and 100 mAs.

A. Increased spatial resolution, increased receptor exposure

B. Decreased spatial resolution, decreased receptor exposure

C. Increased spatial resolution, no affect to receptor exposure

D. Increased exposure latitude

E. Decreased exposure latitude

A

1

53
Q

A lateral projection of the skull is obtained utilizing the following exposure factors: 200 mA; .25 sec; 70 kVp; 8:1 grid; 40” SID; and a 1.2 mm focal spot.

Resultant effect of utilizing 80 kVp and 100 mA.

A. Increased spatial resolution, increased receptor exposure

B. Decreased spatial resolution, decreased receptor exposure

C. Increased spatial resolution, no affect to receptor exposure

D. Increased exposure latitude

E. Decreased exposure latitude

A

1

54
Q

Diagram A would demonstrate:

A. Larger pizel pitch

B. Wider window width

C. Greater dynamic range

D. Higher pixel density

A

1

55
Q

Diagram B would demonstrate:

A. Lower window level

B. Lower pixel density

C. Increased spatial resolution

D. Increased luminance

A

1

56
Q

When adjusted, which of the following factors provides a direct proportional relationship with the number of x-rays produced?

A. mA

B. SID

C. kVp

D. Intensifying screen speed

E. Grid ratio

A

1

57
Q

Which of these pieces of equipment would be used for testing the focal spot size?

A. Pinhole camera

B. Wire mesh

C. Penetrometer

D. Sensitometer

A

1

58
Q

The x-ray capture element of a computer radiography imaging plate would be:

A. A CCD

B. A laser beam

C. Light collecting optics

D. Berium fluorohalide

A

1

59
Q

The component of the image intensifier is responsible for focusing the electron beam.

A. Input phosphor

B. Photocathode

C. Electrostatic lens

D. Output phosphor

A

1

60
Q

Which of the following would be located between the transformer and the x-ray tube on an x-ray circuit?

A. Timer

B. Autotransformer

C. Rheostat

D. Rectifiers

A

1

61
Q

Which of the following would be most effective in reducing the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR?

A. Extension cone

B. Collimator

C. Grid

D. Filter

A

1

62
Q

This term means the detail of a digital image.

A. Contrast

B. Spatial resolution

C. Nyquist frequency

D. Matrix

A

1

63
Q

The electronic version of a film file and reading room is:

A. DICOM

B. PACS

C. CCD

D. AAPM

A

1

64
Q

The anode and cathode are contained in an evacuated envelope to:

A. Prevent leakage radiation

B. Accelerate the electrons from cathode to anode

C. Harden the beam

D. Prevent electrons from colliding with gas molecules

A

1

65
Q

Which of the following would be the resultant effect of utilizing a combination of a 25” SID and 14 x 17” field size?

A. Increased exposure latitude

B. Decreased exposure latitude

C. Decreased magnification

D. Demonstration of the anode heel effect

A

1

66
Q

Which of the following would NOT reduce the production of scattered radiation?

A. Decreasing the area being exposed

B. Decreasing the thickness of the area being exposed

C. Use of a grid

D. Use of a lower kVp technique

A

1

67
Q

The kVp is set at the:

A. Step-up transformer

B. Step-down transformer

C. Autotransformer

D. Rectifier

A

1

68
Q

Which of the following exams would be most likely to utilize compensating filtration?

A. Cerebral arteriography

B. Renal arteriography

C. Coronary arteriography

D. Femoral arteriography

A

1

69
Q

The structure desingated as No. 1 on Radiograph No. 1 is the:

A. Hamate

B. Lunate

C. Trapezium

D. Scaphold

A

1

70
Q

The structure designated as No. 2 on Radiograph No. 1 is the:

A. Capitate

B. Lunate

C. Hamate

D. Pisiform

A

1

71
Q

The structure designated as No. 3 on Radiograph No. 2 is the:

A. Pisiform

B. Capitate

C. Hamate

D. Trapezium

A

1

72
Q

Radiograph No. 2 was obtained with the hand:

A. Supinated

B. Un ulnar deviation

C. In radial deviation

D. In the oblique position

A

1

73
Q

In comparison to Radiograph No. 1, Radiograph No. 2 demonstrates:

A. Reduction of foreshortening of the hamate

B. Foreshortening of the scaphold

C. Reduction of foreshortening of the scaphold

D. Improved visualization of the joint between the lunate and the pisiform

A

1

74
Q

A patient is suspected of having a fraacture of the right 6th rib in the axiliary region. Which of the following positions or projections would best demonstrate this fracture?

A. AP projection

B. Right lateral projection

C. RAO position

D. LAO position

A

1

75
Q

Which of the following are structures of the ethmoid bone?

  1. Crista Galli 2. Perpendicular Plate 3. Superior Nasal Conchae

A. 1

B. 2

C. 1 & 2

D. 2 & 3

E. 1, 2 & 3

A

1

76
Q

A radiograph of the cervical vertebrae obtained utilizing an anterior oblique position would best demonstrate the:

A. Zygapophyseal articulations

B. Vertebral foramina

C. Intervertebral foramina of the side closes to the IR

D. Intervertebral foramina of the side furthest from the IR

A

1

77
Q

Which of the following projections of the thumb would best describe the result of directing the central ray to the first metacarpal joint with the palm of the hand in contact with the IR?

A. AP projection

B. PA projection

C. Lateral projection

D. PA Oblique projection

A

1

78
Q

Which method is used to demonstrate a ligament tear of the ankle joint?

A. Weight bearing composite

B. Kite

C. Axial calcaneus

D. AP stress studies

A

1

79
Q

In which of the following positions or projections for an air contrast colon would air be demonstrated in the lateral portion of the ascending colon?

A. AP projection

B. Left lateral decubitus

C. Right lateral decubitus

D. Right lateral projection

A

1

80
Q

The head of the radius articulates with the:

A. Trochlea

B. Styloid process

C. Olecranon process

D. Capitulum

A

1

81
Q

Which of the following structures of the scapula is located most posterior?

A. Coracoid process

B. Coronoid process

C. Spine

D. Glenoid fossa

A

1

82
Q

The central ray for an AP projection of the knee should enter:

A. 1 cm inferior to the apex of the patella

B. 1 cm superior to the apex of the patella

C. 1 cm superior to the base of the patella

D. 2 cm superior to the base of the patella

A

1

83
Q

Referring to the diagram above, which central ray angulation would provide maximum demonstration of the petrous pyramids free of superimposition?

A. #1

B. #2

C. #3

A

1

84
Q

Referring to the diagram above, which central ray angulation would demonstrate the orbits projected superior to the petrous pyramids?

A. #1

B. #2

C. #3

A

1

85
Q

The central ray for a translateral projection of the hip should be directed:

A. Perpendiculaar to the shaft of the femur

B. Parallel to the shaft of the femur

C. Perpendicular to the neck of the femur

D. Parallel to the neck of the femur

A

1

86
Q

The longest segment of the small bowel is the:

A. Duodenum

B. Jejunum

C. Ascending

D. Ileum

A

1

87
Q

The structures projecting downward from the bases of the transverse processes of a lumbar vertebra are the:

A. Laminae

B. Pedicles

C. Spinous processes

D. Inferior articulating processes

A

1

88
Q

Which of the following bones forms a portion of the posterior wall of the nasal cavity?

A. Lacrimal

B. Frontal

C. Vomer

D. Palatine

E. Zygoma

A

1

89
Q

Which of the following would indicate correct obliquity of a medical oblique position of the foot?

A. The joint spaces around the cuboid are open

B. The medial and lateral cuneiforms are seen without superimposition

C. The joint spaces between all the metacarpals are closed

D. The domes of the talus are superimposed

A

1

90
Q

The intercondyloid fossa is located on the ____, ____ surfaces of the femur.

A. Distal, anterior

B. Distal, posterior

C. Proximal, anterior

D. Proximal, posterior

A

1

91
Q

The outer layer of tissue encasing the lung is the:

A. Extended pleura

B. Visceral peritoneum

C. Parietal peritoneum

D. Parietal pleura

E. Visceral pleura

A

1

92
Q

To demonstrate the sacroiliac joint with the patient supine, the affected side should be elevated:

A. 15 degrees

B. 25 degrees

C. 45 degrees

D. 60 degrees

A

1

93
Q

The femoral neck is located:

A. Parallel to the shaft of the femur

B. Perpendicular to the symphysis pubis

C. Perpendicular to an imaginary line from the symphysis pubis to the ASIS

D. Perpendicular to the shaft of the femur

A

1

94
Q

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the sphenoid sinus?

A. Waters

B. Caldwell

C. PA

D. SMV

A

1

95
Q

Which of the following are examples of an amphiarthrotic joint?

  1. Skull suture 2. Symphysis pubis 3. Intervertebral joints

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 & 2 only

D. 2 & 3 only

E. 1, 2 & 3

A

1

96
Q

The bicipital groove of the humerus separates the:

A. Condyles

B. Anatomical head and neck

C. Surgical neck and head

D. Tuberosities

A

1

97
Q

Select the proper sequence of blood flow leaving the heart at the aorta and returning at the vena cava.

  1. arteries 2. venules 3. veins 4. capillaries 5. arterioles

A. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

B. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5

C. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

D. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1

E. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3

A

1

98
Q

Which of the following would articulate with the structure designated as No. 1 on the diagram?

A. The inferior articular process of the next superior vertebra

B. The head of a rib

C. The tubercle of a rib

D. Costal cartilage

A

1

99
Q

Which of the following would articulate with the structure designated as No. 2 on the diagram?

A. The spinous process of the next superior vertebra

B. The head of a rib

C. The neck of a rib

D. The tubercle of a rib

A

1

100
Q

Which of the following would articulate with the structure designated as No. 3 on the diagram?

A. The spinous process of the next inferior vertebra

B. The transverse process of the next inferior vertebra

C. The superior articulating process of the next inferior vertebra

D. The tubercle of a rib

E. The head of a rib

A

1

Radiology (4 decks)

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