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Radiology > Radiology 2 > Flashcards

Radiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following choices identifies the median cubital vein?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

4

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2
Q

The number 2 indicates which of the following choices?

A. Cephalic vein

B. Basilic vein

C. Median antebrachial vein

D. Subclavian vein

A

Cephalic vein

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3
Q

A ___ is necessary to take an apical pulse.

A. sphygmomanometer

B. Stethoscope

C. Pulse oximeter

D. Two fingers

A

Stethoscope

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4
Q

The code of ethics for radiographers was developed by:

  1. ASRT 2. ARRT 3. AHRA

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 & 2

D. 1, 2 & 3

A

C. ASRT & ARRT

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5
Q

MSRA, VRSA, and ESBL are transmitted by:

A. Droplet contact

B. Airborne contact

C. Direct contact

D. Vector contact

A

Direct contact

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6
Q

The radiographer is responsible for explaining ___ to the patient before an x-ray procedure.

A. Purpose of the procedure

B. Amount of time the procedure may take

C. Any follow-up care needed after the procedure

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

All (A, B, C)

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7
Q

Which of the following is an anticoagulant drug?

A. Penicillin

B. Benadryl

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Heparin

A

Heparin

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8
Q

A patient having an attack of vertigo likely suffers from:

A. Allergies

B. Inner ear problems

C. Angina

D. Pleurisy

A

Inner ear problems

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9
Q

Which of the following would be considered objective data in the patient history?

A. Patient’s description of pain

B. Vital signs

C. Patient’s description of cough

D. All of the above

A

Vital signs

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10
Q

Which of the following catheters is NOT used to provide access to the circulatory system on a continuing basis?

A. Swan Ganz

B. Hickman

C. PICC

D. Miller-Abbott

A

Miller-Abbott

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11
Q

All of the following actions could be taken when a patient feels faint EXCEPT:

A. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

B. Place the patient in the Fowler position

C. Place the patient’s head between their knees

D. Place the patient in a supine position from an upright position

A

Place the patient in the Fowler position

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12
Q

The patient could bring charges of negligence if he/she gives:

A. Express consent

B. Implied consent

C. Inadequate consent

D. Informed consent

A

Inadequate consent

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13
Q

The term ___ describes any disease producing organism.

A. Pathogen

B. Fungus

C. Bacterium

D. Virus

A

Pathogen

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14
Q

The best method to use when transferring a patient with a spinal injury from a cart to the x-ray table is:

A. 6 person log roll with slide board

B. 2 person sheet assisted transfer

C. 2 person slide board transfer

D. Move upper body then lower body on to table

A

6 person log roll with slide board

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15
Q

Which of the following procedures do not require the use of sterile technique?

A. Angiography

B. Upper GI

C. Myelography

D. Arthrography

A

Upper GI

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16
Q

If a patient has a shoulder injury and is wearing a shirt and jacket, the technologist should:

A. Leave the clothing on

B. Cut the clothing away

C. Remove the clothing from the unaffected side first

D. Remove the clothing from the affected side first

A

Remove the clothing from the unaffected side first

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17
Q

The greatest skin dose would be produced by using a ___ fro an x-ray exam.

A. High kilovoltage technique

B. Low milliamperage technique

C. Short OID

D. Short SID

A

Short SID

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18
Q

Which of these factors can contribute to a higher absorbed dose when multiple slices are obtained during a CT scan?

A. Interslice scatter

B. Higher pitch ratio-2:1 or more

C. Overlap of the margins of the slices

D. A & C

E. A, B & C

A

A & C

(Interslice scatter & Overlap of the margins of the slices)

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19
Q

What is the most common type of interaction within the diagnostic range of 70-150 kVp?

A. Coherent

B. Photoelectric

C. Compton

D. Pair

A

Compton

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20
Q

Which of the following combinations would result in the least tissue damage?

A. Fractionated dose, highly oxygenated tissue

B. Fractionated dose, adult tissue

C. Non-protracted dose, fetal tissue

D. Non-protracted dose, highly oxygenated tissue

A

Fractionated dose, adult tissue

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21
Q

Which of the following atmonic number and density (grams/cc) combinations would be most effective to utilize as a protective barrier from radiation?

A. Low atomic number and low density

B. Low atomic number and high density

C. High atomic number and low density

D. High atomic number and high density

A

High atomic number and high density

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22
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used by radiation safety officers when calculating patient exposure?

A. Organ dose

B. Entrance skin dose

C. Gonadal dose

D. Bone marrow dose

A

Entrance skin dose

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23
Q

What is the dose equivalent limit to the fetus of a pregnant radiographer fro the gestation period?

A. 1.0 mSv

B. 2.5 mSv

C. 5.0 mSv

D. 25 mSv

A

5.0 mSv

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24
Q

As tube current is decreased, which of the following would occur?

A. The quantity of x-ray photons would increase

B. The quantity of x-ray photons would decrease

C. The quality of x-ray photons would increase

D. The quality of x-ray photons would decrease

A

The quantity of x-ray photons would decrease

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25
Q

Which of the following would be representative of a linear dose-response relationship?

A. The response is directly proportional to the dose of radiation

B. The response is inversely proportional to the dose of radiation

C. A minimum dose is required for demonstration of effects

D. No minimum dose is required for demonstration of effects

A

The response is directly proportional to the dose of radiation

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26
Q

Which of the following varies with the LET?

A. RBE

B. Roentgen

C. Target theory

D. ALARA

A

RBE

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27
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a type of secondary radiation?

  1. Scatter radiation 2. Primary radiation 3. Leakage radiation

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 1 & 3 only

D. 1, 2 & 3

A

1 & 3

Scatter radiation & Leakage radiation

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28
Q

The most efficient beam restricting device overall is the:

A. Collimator

B. Aperture diaphragm

C. Cylinder cone

D. Flare type cone

A

Collimator

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29
Q

An exposure of 10 Gy of x-ray to an individual would result in a dose of:

A. 1 Sv

B. 5 Sv

C. 10 Sv

D. 100 Sv

A

10 Sv

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30
Q

Which of these is a personnel monitoring devide that provides immediate results?

A. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

B. Pocket ionization chamber

C. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

D. Film badge

A

Pocket ionization chamber

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31
Q

The lifetime ___ limit for a radiation worker is her/her age x 10 mSv

A. E/D

B. LED

C. GSD

D. TLD

A

E/D

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32
Q

Energy in transit from one location to another is known as:

A. Attenuation

B. Radiation

C. Gamma

D. Absorption

A

Radiation

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33
Q

Appropriate gonadal shielding can reduce the exposure received by ___ % for males and ___ % for females.

A. 50%, 50%

B. 50%, 90%

C. 90%, 90%

D. 90%, 50%

A

90%, 50%

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34
Q

Which of the following would NOT affect patient dose during an x-ray procedure?

A. SID

B. Filtration

C. kVp

D. Focal spot size

E. More than one of the above

A

Focal spot size

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35
Q

The doubling dose for humans is estimated to have a mean value of:

A. 1.56 Sv

B. 15.6 Gy

C. 156 mSv

D. 156 mGy

A

1.56 Sv

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36
Q

Adjusting the absorbed dose value to measure biological effects of different types of ionizing radiation is accomplished by the:

A. Ionization factor

B. Quality factor

C. Rate of linear energy transfer

D. Exposure absorbed dose ration

A

Quality factor

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37
Q

Which of the following types of radiation are the most highly ionizing?

A. Alpha particles

B. Beta particles

C. Gamma rays

D. Diagnostic x-rays

A

Alpha particles

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38
Q

Somatic effects of radiation will be manifested in the:

A. Reproductive cells of the individual exposed

B. Future generations of the individual exposed

C. Lifespan of the individual exposed

D. Both the individual exposed and future generations

A

Lifespan of the individual exposed

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39
Q

Permanent sterility in females would typically occur with a dose in excess of:

A. .5Gy

B. 1Gy

C. 3Gy

D. 6Gy

A

6Gy

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40
Q

What is the reddening of the skin due to a large dose of radiation called?

A. Erythema

B. Evanescent

C. Dermabrasion

D. Dermatoplasty

A

Erythema

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41
Q

Added filtration results in:

A. An x-ray beam of higher average energy

B. Removal of hard x-rays from the beam

C. An x-ray beam that is more heterogeneous

D. a completely homogeneous x-ray beam

A

An x-ray beam of higher average energy

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42
Q

Which of the following types of acute radiation syndrome would have the longest latency period?

A. Hematologic syndrome

B. Gastrointestinal syndrome

C. Central nerwous system syndrome

A

Hematologic syndrome

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43
Q

Genetic cells divide through this process:

A. Mitosis

B. Meiosis

C. Telophase

D. Prophase

A

Meiosis

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44
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

200 mA 300 mA

.5 second ___ second

68 kVp 75 kVp

A. 1/25

B. 1/12

C. 1/6

D. 1/3

E. 1

A

1/6

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45
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

300 mA ___ mA

.2 second .25 second

5:1 grid 8:1 grid

A. 200

B. 300

C. 400

D. 500

E. 600

A

500

46
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

300 mA 200 mA

0.66 second ___ second

55” SID 45” SID

A. .16

B. .033

C. .66

D. .20

E. .50

A

.66

47
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

400 mA ___ mA

.05 second .066 second

80 kVp 92 kVp

5:1 grid 8:1 grid

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

E. 500

A

300

48
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

200 mA 300 mA

.2 second ___ second

80 kVp 68 kVp

A. .10

B. .15

C. .20

D. .26

E. .30

A

.26

49
Q

A lateral projection of the knee is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, .03 sec., 65 kVp, non-grid, 40” SID and a .6 mm focal spot.

A radiograph is to be obtained using an 8:1 grid. In order to compensate for the change in exposure to the IR with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to:

A. .03 second

B. .06 second

C. .12 second

D. .25 second

E. .50 second

A

.12 second

50
Q

A lateral projection of the knee is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, .03 sec., 65 kVp, non-grid, 40” SID and a .6 mm focal spot.

A radiograph is to be obtained using an 8:1 grid. In order to compensate for the change in exposure to the IR with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to .12 second.

Due to the compensated changes, what would be the resultant effect to patient dose?

A. Patient dose would be increased

B. Patient dose would be decreased

C. Patient dose would not be affected

A

Patient dose would be decreased

51
Q

A lateral projection of the knee is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, .03 sec., 65 kVp, non-grid, 40” SID and a .6 mm focal spot.

A radiograph is to be obtained using an 8:1 grid. In order to compensate for the change in exposure to the IR with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to .12 second.

Due to the compensated changes in the first question, what would be the resultant effect to recorded detail?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain the same

A

Decrease

52
Q

A lateral projection of the knee is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, .03 sec., 65 kVp, non-grid, 40” SID and a .6 mm focal spot.

Which of the following changes in exposure factors would result in increased magnification distortion?

A. Decrease the SID to 30” and utilize 3.5 mAs

B. Increase the SID to 50” and utilize 10 mAs

C. Decrease the kVp to 55 and increase the mA to 400

E. Increase the kVp to 75 and decrease the mA to 100

A

Decrease the SID to 30” and utilize 3.5 mAs

53
Q

A lateral projection of the knee is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, .03 sec., 65 kVp, non-grid, 40” SID and a .6 mm focal spot.

Which of the following changes in exposure factors would result in an increase in the number of useful densities demonstrated between minimum and maximum levels?

A. Decrease the SID to 30” and utilize 3.5 mAs

B. Increase the SID to 50” and utilize 10 mAs

C. Decrease the kVp to 55 and increase the mA to 400

D. Increase the kVp to 75 and decrease the mA to 100

A

Increase the kVp to 75 and decrease the mA to 100

54
Q

Number 5 refers to the ___ on the diagram.

A. Secondary of the low voltage transformer

B. Primary of the step-up transformer

C. Secondary of the high voltage transformer

D. Primary of the high voltage transformer

A

Secondary of the high voltage transformer

55
Q

The primary of the step-down transformer is represented by number ___ on the diagram.

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

A

2

56
Q

The autotransformer is represented by number ___ on the diagram.

A. 2

B. 4 & 5

C. 2 & 3

D. 1

A

1

57
Q

The dynamic range of an IR is determined by its”

A. Matrix size

B. Exposure detection ability

C. Array size

D. CCD

A

Exposure detection ability

58
Q

The pinhole camera can be used to check:

A. Focal spot size

B. Lead aprons

C. Timer

D. Spectral matching

A

Focal spot size

59
Q

As compared to a low ratio grid, a higher ratio could be manufactured by:

A. Decreasing the height of the lead strips

B. Reducing the width of the interspace materials

C. Decreasing the width of the lead strips

D. Decreasing the number of lead strips

A

Reducing the width of the interspace materials

60
Q

The image receptor ___ during conventional linear tomography.

A. Remains fixed

B. Moves opposite the tube

C. Moves with the tube

D. Is not utilized

A

Moves opposite the tube

61
Q

Distortion of the radiographic image is NOT caused by:

A. Grid cut-off

B. Improper tube alignment

C. Improper tube/part alignment

D. Increased OID

A

Grid cut-off

62
Q

When comparing the diameter of components of the image intensifier:

A. The output phosphor is larger than the input phosphor

B. The input phosphor is larger than the output phosphor

C. The input and output phosphors should be identical in diameter

D. Depends on the manufacturer

A

The input phosphor is larger than the output phosphor

63
Q

The layers of a flat-panel indirect capture detector include the following:

A. Protective layer, PSP, reflective layer, base

B. Scintillator phosphor, photodiode, TFT array

C. Reflective layer, PSP, photodiode

D. Scintillator phosphor, PSP, TFT array

A

Scintillator phosphor, photodiode, TFT array

64
Q

Adjusting the image post-processing will not ___ if the exposure index is out of range.

A. Degrade the final image

B. Improve the final image

C. Affect the final image in any way

A

Improve the final image

65
Q

The function of a grid is to:

A. Transmit exit and scattered radiation

B. Transmit scattered radiation and absorb exit radiation

Transmit exit radiation and absorb scattered radiation

D. Absorb scattered radiation and reduce patient dose

A

Transmit exit radiation and absorb scattered radiation

66
Q

If the digital image size is increased, the monitor resolution is:

A. Decreased

B. Increased

C. Unchanged

D. Compressed

A

Unchanged

67
Q

A wider window width:

A. Increases contrast

B. Decreases contrast

C. Increases grays

D. B & C

A

B & C

(Decreases contract & Increases grays)

68
Q

Which of the following is not a type of bucky motion?

A. Single-stroke

B. Reciprocating

C. Oscillating

D. Elliptical

A

Elliptical

69
Q

The number 6 on the radiograph is on the:

A. 3rd metacarpal

B. 3rd distal phalanx

C. 3rd middle phalanx

D. 3rd proximal phalanx

A

3rd proximal phalanx

70
Q

Which of the following numbers is on the radius?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 7

D. 8

A

1

71
Q

Which of the following choices would correct the positioning on the radiograph?

A. Be sure the hand is not obliqued

B. Straighten the fingers

C. Angle the central ray 10 degrees cephalad

D. No improvement of positioning needed

A

Straighten the fingers

72
Q

The central ray for this radiograph should be centered at the:

A. Middle of 2nd metacarpal

B. 3rd metacarpal phalangeal joint

C. 3rd proximal interphalangeal joint

D. 2nd distal interphalangeal joint

E. 3rd carpometacarpal joint

A

3rd metacarpal phalangeal joint

73
Q

Which of the following is located opposite the interspace of the 4th and 5th thoracic

A. Manubrial notch

B. Sternal angle

C. Xiphoid process

D. Thyroid cartilage

A

Sternal angle

74
Q

Which of the following would provide maximum demonstration and closest placement to the IR of the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical vertebrae?

A. PA projection

B. Right lateral projection

C. Right anterior oblique position

D. Left anterior oblique position

A

Right anterior oblique position

75
Q

An AP projection of the foot could also be termed:

A. Dorsoplantar projection

B. Plantodorsal projection

C. Axial projection

D. None of the above

A

Dorsoplantar projection

76
Q

Which of the following would be closest to the IR for an SMV projection of the skull?

A. Parietal bone

B. Sphenoid bone

C. Occipital bone

D. Mandible

A

Parietal bone

77
Q

The head of the fibula is located:

A. Distal to the lateral condyle of the tibia

B. Distal to the medial condyle of the tibia

C. Proximal to the lateral condyle of the tibia

D. Prosimal to the medial condyle of the tibia

A

Distal to the lateral condyle of the tibia

78
Q

Which of the following criteria is not true in regard to a properly positioned lateral radiograph of the forearm?

A. The radial head should superimpose the coronoid process

B. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed

C. The elbow should be fully extended

D. Wrist and sital humerus should be included

A

The elbow should be fully extended

79
Q

Which of the following forms the acetabulum?

A. Ischium

B. Ilium

C. Pubis

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

(Ischium, Ilium, Pubis)

80
Q

Which central ray angulation would best demonstrate the body of the mandible?

A. No. 1

B. No. 2

C. No. 3

A

No. 2

81
Q

Which central ray angulation would best demonstrate the rami of the mandible?

A. No. 1

B. No. 2

C. No. 3

A

No. 3

82
Q

Which of the following joints are synarthrodial?

A. Costochondral joints (ribs 1-10)

B. Sternoclavicular joints

C. Sternocostal joints

D. Costovertebral joints

A

Costochondral joints (ribs 1-10)

83
Q

Which position/projection shows the left colic flexure filled with air for a double contrast barium enema?

A. Ventral decubitus

B. Left lateral decubitus

C. PA

D. Right lateral decubitus

A

Right lateral decubitus

84
Q

In order to demonstrate the lumbosacral junction with the patient supine, the central ray should be directed:

A. Cephalad

B. Caudad

C. Perpendicular to the IR

D. Medially

E. Laterally

A

Cephalad

85
Q

Which of the following would be closest to the film for an infero-superior axial projection of the patella?

A. apex

B. Base

C. Medial surface

D. Lateral surface

A

Base

86
Q

The elbow joint is formed by the articulation of the trochlea and the:

A. Olecranon process

B. Coracoid process

C. Trochlear notch

D. Acromion

A

Trochlear notch

87
Q

The mitral valve is situated between the:

A. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery

B. Left ventricle and aorta

C. Right atrium and right ventricle

D. Left atrium and left ventricle

A

Left atrium and left ventricle

88
Q

The location of the stomach of a patient with an asthenic habitus is:

A. Low, vertical and near the midline

B. High, vertical and away from the midline

C. Low, transverse and near the midline

D. High, transverse and away from the midline

A

Low, vertical and near the midline

89
Q

A thoracic vertebra would differ from a lumbar vertebra due to the:

A. The foramen located in the transverse process

B. Bifid spinous process

C. Articular facet located on the transverse process

D. Location of the pedicles parallel to the median sagittal plane

A

Articular facet located on the transverse process

90
Q

The pointed process extending inferior from the base of the petrous portion of the temporal bone is the:

A. Clinoid process

B. Pterygoid process

C. Styloid process

D. Zygomatic process

A

Styloid process

91
Q

The navicular articulates anteriorly with which tarsal bone?

A. Talus

B. Bases of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals

C. Heads of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals

D. Cuneiforms

E. Cuboid

A

Cuneiforms

92
Q

On a correctly positioned AP projection of the pelvis on a non-trauma patient, which structure should NO be visualized?

A. Greater trochanter

B. Lesser trochanter

C. Femoral neck

D. Femoral head

A

Lesser trochanter

93
Q

A Trans-scapular Y position of the shoulder demonstrates that the lateral scapular border is next to the ribs, and the vertebral border is seen laterally. The humeral head is superimposed over the thorax. Which of the following will correct the position of this radiograph?

A. Decrease patient obliquity

B. Increase patient obliquity

C. Angle the central ray 10 degrees caudally

D. Angle the central ray 10 degrees cephalic

E. No correction needed

A

Decrease patient obliquity

94
Q

Which of the following functions both in the digestive and respiratory systems?

A. Trachea

B. Pharynx

C. Larynx

D. Glottis

A

Pharynx

95
Q

Which of the following helps to form the ankle mortise?

  1. Lateral malleolus of the fibula
  2. Medial malleolus of the tibia
  3. Inferior surface of the tibia

A. 1 & 2

B. 1 & 3

C. 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

A

All three

96
Q

The trochlea lies ___ to the capitulum

A. Lateral

B. Medial

C. Superior

D. Inferior

A

Medial

97
Q

The structure designated in the diagram as No. 1 is the:

A. Transverse process

B. Pedicle

C. Lamina

D. Articular pillar

A

Transverse process

98
Q

The structure designated in the diagram as No. 2 is the:

A. Intervertebral foramen

B. Vertebral foramen

C. Transverse foramen

D. Neural foramen

A

Transverse foramen

99
Q

The structure designated in the diagram as No. 3 is the:

A. Transverse process

B. Superior articular process

C. Pedicle

D. Lamina

A

Superior articular process

100
Q

The structure designated in the diagram as No. 4 is the:

A. Lamina

B. Pedicle

C. Transverse process

D. Articular pillar

A

Lamina

101
Q

The dose-response relationship demonstrated on the diagram above would be a

A. Linear, nonthreshold relationship

B. Linear, threshold relationship

C. Nonlinear, nonthreshold relationship

D. Nonlinear, threshold relationship

A

Nonlinear, threshold relationship

102
Q

The artery designated as No. 1 on the diagram is the:

A. Inferior mesenteric artery

B. Superior mesenteric artery

C. Femoral artery

D. Renal artery

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

103
Q

Which of the following would be located at the same level as No. 2 on the diagram?

A. The body of L1

B. The interspace of L1 & L2

C. The body of S1

D. The body of L4

A

The body of L4

104
Q

The artery designated as No. 3 on the diagram is the:

A. Splenic artery

B. Inferior mesenteric artery

C. Iliac artery

D. Femoral artery

A

Iliac artery

105
Q

The structure designated as number 2 on the radiograph is the:

A. Superior ramus of the pubis

B. Inferior ramus of the pubis

C. Ramus of the ischium

D. Upper body of the ischium

E. Body of pubis

A

Superior ramus of the pubis

106
Q

The structure designated as number 3 on the radiograph is the:

A. Superior ramus of the pubis

B. Inferior ramus of the pubis

C. Ischium

D. Ischial tuberosity

E. Upper body of the ischium

A

Ischium

107
Q

The radiograph demonstrates:

A. Elongation of the femoral neck

B. Foreshortening of the femoral neck

C. A 15 degree inversion of the foot

D. A 30 degree inversion of the foot

A

Foreshortening of the femoral neck

108
Q

The grid ratio depicted in the diagram above would be a:

A. 5:1 grid ratio

B. 10:1 grid ratio

C. 1:5 grid ratio

D. 1:10 grid ratio

A

5:1 grid ratio

109
Q

In the diagram above, if measurement No. 1 is decreased to 25 microns, the grid ratio would:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain the same

A

Increase

110
Q

Which of the central ray angulations in the diagram above would demonstrate the petrous pyramids projected in the lower portion of the orbits?

A. No. 1

B. No. 2

C. No. 3

A

No. 1

111
Q

Which of the central ray angulations in the diagram above would demonstrate the foramen magnum?

A. No. 1

B. No. 2

C. No. 3

A

No. 3

Radiology (4 decks)

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