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Radiology > Radiology 3 > Flashcards

Radiology 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The ___ of a sterile gown is/are considered sterile.

A. Sleeves

B. Front above waist

C. Back

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A & B

Sleeves & front above waist

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2
Q

One of the greatest risks to the patient during angiography is blood clot formation on the guide wire or catheter. The best way to keep blood clots from forming us.

A. Flushing with sterile saline

B. Contrast media with a hgiher concentration of iodine

C. Injection of heparin

D. Using a higher volume of contrast media

A

Injection of heparin

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3
Q

Patients in danger of possible internal hemorrhage should be monitored closely for:

A. Seizures

B. Shock

C. Convulsions

D. Ketoacidosis

A

Shock

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a viral disease?

A. Influenza

B. Measles

C. Hepatitis

D. Syphilis

A

Syphilis

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5
Q

Mechanical suction may be needed when a patient:

A. Become nauseated

B. Bleeds from the mouth

C. Cannot swallow

D. A & C

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

Become nauseated, bleeds from the mouth, cannot swallow

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6
Q

Pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) flow-directed catheters can be used to:

A. Measure cardiac output

B. Measure right heart pressures

C. Diagnose ventricular failure

D. All of the above

A

All

Measure cardiac output, measure right heart pressures, diagnose ventricular failure

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7
Q

What effect does a diuretic have on the body?

A. Decrease pain

B. Increases urine production

C. Fights bacterial growth

D. Helps prevent clotting

A

Increases urine production

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8
Q

The ___ administration of a drug is NOT considered parenteral.

A. Oral

B. Intravenous

C. Subdermal

D. Intramuscular

A

Oral

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9
Q

Tachycardia can be caused by:

A. Large blood loss

B. Inadequate oxygen supply

C. Damaged heart

D. All of the above

A

All

Large blood loss, inadequate oxygen supply, damaged heart

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10
Q

Which of the transmission based precautions should be used for an adult patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

A. Airborne precautions

B. Droplet precautions

C. Contact precautions

D. Airborne and contact precautions

A

Airborne precautions

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11
Q

Which area of the body in which temperature can be measured has an average temperature reading of 97.6 degrees Fahrenheit?

A. Oral

B. Rectum

C. Axila

D. Apical

A

Axila

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12
Q

Which of the following is not considered a “negative” contrast agent?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Iodine

C. Nitrous oxide

D. Air

A

Iodine

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13
Q

The ___ method of medication administration uses a 45 degree needle angle.

A. Topical

B. Intradermal

C. Subcutaneous

D. Intramuscular

A

Subcutaneous

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14
Q

When discussing safe transfer methods, the base of support can be described as:

A. The floor

B. The part of the body in contact with the floor

C. A line from the center of the pelvis to the floor

D. A line through the center of gravity

A

The part of the body in contact with the floor

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15
Q

Cathartics that are commonly used after a barium study include:

A. Milk of magnesia

B. Citrate of magnesium

C. Biscodyl

D. A & C

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

Milk of magnesia, citrate of magnesium, biscodyl

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16
Q

It is almost always advantageous to perform bedside radiography for patients in:

A. Orthopedic traction

B. Isolation

C. The emergency room

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A & B

Orthopedic traction, isolation

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17
Q

Patient dose will increase during cine fluoroscopy with a ___:

A. Larger field of view and an increased number of frames per second

B. Larger field of view and a decreased number of frames per second

C. Smaller field of view and an increased number of frames per second

D. Smaller field of view and a decreased number of frames per second

A

Smaller field of view and an increased number of frames per second

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18
Q

Which of the following types of radiation is classified as ionizing?

A. Infrared

B. Low energy ultraviolet

C. Microwave

D. Gamma rays

A

Gamma rays

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19
Q

Unstable atoms and free electrons are the result of:

A. RBE

B. Meiosis

C. Mitosis

D. Ionization

A

Ionization

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20
Q

Which of the following types of the acute radiation syndrome would require the greatest amount of exposure for mainfestation of effects?

A. Hemopoietic

B. Gastrointestinal

C. Central nervous system

A

Central nervous system

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21
Q

Which of the following measurements is easiest to calculate?

A. Organ dose

B. Entrance skin exposure

C. Gonadal dose

D. Bone marrow dose

A

Entrance skin exposure

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22
Q

Which of the following would be the acceptable leakage radiation rate at 1 meter from the tube housing?

A. 1.66 mR/minute

B. 75 mR/one half hour

C. 150 mR/hour

D. All of the above rates are acceptable

A

1.66 mR/minute

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23
Q

All of the following are beam limiting devices except:

A. Aperture diaphragm

B. Cones

C. Grids

D. Collimators

A

Grids

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24
Q

Which of the following effects would be considered a late deterministic somatic effect?

A. Carcinogenesis

B. Caratactogenesis

C. Congenital malformation

D. A & C

E. B & C

A

Caratactogenesis

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25
Q

Which of the following is a man-made source of radiation?

A. Radon

B. Tobacco leaves

C. Nuclear fuel

D. Cosmic source

A

Nuclear fuel

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26
Q

The exposure rate at 1 ft. from a fluoroscopic table is 300 mR/hr. The amount of exposure received in 30 min. at 4 ft. from the table would be:

A. 9.37 mR

B. 75.45 mR

C. 150.20 mR

D. 600.00 mR

A

9.37 mR

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27
Q

Gas-filled survey instruments used for radiation detection and measurement include:

A. Geiger-Muller counters

B. Scintillation detection devices

C. Ionization chamber instruments

D. All of the above

A

All

Geiger-Muller counters, scintillation detection devices, ionization chamber instruments

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28
Q

For fluoroscopy, the protective curtain or panel must have at least ___ lead equivalent between the patient and x-ray personnel.

A. .10 mm

B. .25 mm

C. .50 mm

D. 1.0 mm

A

.25 mm

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29
Q

Which of the following is a reason for shielding patients having radiographic procedures?

A. Protect the reproductive organs from exposure

B. Eliminate the need for collimation

C. Increase the frequency of the radiographic beam

D. All of the above

A

Protect the reproductive organs from exposure

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30
Q

In which of the following reactions is the photon completely absorded?

A. Compton

B. Photoelectric

C. Thompson

D. Pair production

A

Photoelectric

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31
Q

The acute radiation syndrome occurs when the whole body is exposed to at least ___ of ionizing radiation.

A. 1 Gy

B. 5 Gy

C. 10 Gy

D. 50 Gy

A

1 Gy

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32
Q

Why is it better to take a PA projection of the skull instead of an AP projection?

  1. Less dose to the lens of the eye
  2. Less magnification of the facial bones
  3. Greater patient comfort

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 & 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

A

1 & 2

Less dose to the lens of the eye, less magnification of the facial bones

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33
Q

When is it appropriate for a radiographer to stand in the primary beam?

A. When taking a radiograph of a pediatric patient

B. When taking radiographs of an uncooperative patient

C. Only during emergency room cases

D. Never

A

Never

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34
Q

When a radiographer declares her pregnancy she should..

A. Be limited to working in clerical areas

B. Wear extra protective apparel

C. No longer work in fluoroscopy

D. Wear an extra radiation monitor

A

Wear an extra radiation monitor

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35
Q

The ___ is used to determine the required thickness of a structural protective barried.

A. Distance between the radiation source and barrier

B. Occupancy factor

C. Workload factor

D. All of the factors above help determine the barrier thickness

A

All of the factors above help determine the barrier thickness

Distance between the radiation source and barrier, occupancy factor, workload factor

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36
Q

Lead aprons are needed to protect personnel during fluoro due to:

A. The photoelectric effect

B. The Compton effect

C. Pair production

D. Photodisintegration

A

The Compton effect

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37
Q

Biologic tissue damage through direct action is more likely to be caused by ___ radiation.

A. High LET

B. Low LET

C. Low OER

D. High NID

A

High LET

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38
Q

A ___ dose-response curve indicates that there is no safe dose of radiation.

  1. Linear non-threshold 2. Non-linear threshold 3. Non-linear non-threshold

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 & 2

D. 1 & 3

A

1 & 3

Linear non-threshold, Non-linear non-threshold

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39
Q

What happens when a grid is utilized?

A. Patient dose decreases and radiographic contrast increases

B. Patient dose increases and radiographic contrast increases

C. Patient dose increases and radiographic contrast decreases

D. Patient dose decreases and radiographic contrast decreases

A

Patient dose increases and radiographic contrast increases

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40
Q

Effective dose is partially based on:

A. Age of the worker

B. The shielding worn by the radiographer

C. The radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs

D. All of the above

A

The radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs

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41
Q

Which of the following affects the radiosensitivity of cells?

A. Maturity

B. Rate of division

C. Level of specialization

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

Maturity, rate of division, level of specialization

42
Q

In terms of radiation protection, the ___ is considered the largest source of scatter in fluoroscopy.

A. X-ray table

B. Bucky slot cover/closer

C. Control booth wall

D. Patient

A

Patient

43
Q

The function of filtration is to absorb:

A. High frequency, short wavelength radiation

B. High frequency, long wavelength radiation

C. Low frequency, short wavelength radiation

D. Low frequency, long wavelength radiation

A

Low frequency, long wavelength radiation

44
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

500 mA ____ mA

.1 second .1 second

12:1 grid 6:1 grid

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

E. 500

A

300

45
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

500 mA 300 mA

1/10 second _____ second

8:1 grid 6:1 grid

A. 1/25

B. 1/20

C. 1/8

D. 1/5

E. 1/2

A

1/8

46
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

100 mA _____ mA

.1 second .12 second

40” SID 54” SID

A. 50

B. 100

C. 150

D. 300

E. 400

A

150

47
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

200 mA 300 mA

.3 seconds _____ seconds

62 kVp 70 kVp

A. 07

B. .1

C. .2

D. .3

E. .5

A

.1

48
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

300 mA _____mA

1/4 second 1/3 second

70 kVp 80 kVp

45” SID 60” SID

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

E. 500

A

200

49
Q

A Water’s projection of the sinuses is to be obtained utilizing the following: 50 mAs, 70 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid and a .6 mm focal spot.

The kVp is increased to 80. Which of the following mA and time combinations would compensate for the change in receptor exposure?

A. 100 mA, 1/15 second

B. 300 mA, 1/12 second

C. 400 mA, 1/10 second

D. 200 mA, 1/5 second

E. 500 mA, 1/8 second

A

300 mA, 1/12 second

50
Q

A Water’s projection of the sinuses is to be obtained utilizing the following: 50 mAs, 70 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid and a .6 mm focal spot.

The kVp is increased to 80. Which of the following mA and time combinations would compensate for the change in receptor exposure?

300 mA, 1/12 second

Due to the compensated changes in the question above, what would be the resultant effect to patient dose?

A. Increased patient dose

B. Decrease patient dose

C. No effect to patient dose

A

Decrease patient dose

51
Q

A Water’s projection of the sinuses is to be obtained utilizing the following: 50 mAs, 70 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid and a .6 mm focal spot.

What would be the resultant effect of changing to a 1.2 mm focal spot with no compensation of mAs?

A. Decreased magnification

B. Decreased spatial resolution

C. Decreased receptor exposure

D. Increased receptor expense

A

Decreased spatial resolution

52
Q

A Water’s projection of the sinuses is to be obtained utilizing the following: 50 mAs, 70 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid and a .6 mm focal spot.

What would be the resultant effect of utilizing a 50” SID and 78 mAs?

A. Decreased magnification

B. Decreased spatial resolution

C. Decreased receptor exposure

D. Increased receptor exposure

A

Decreased magnification

53
Q

A Water’s projection of the sinuses is to be obtained utilizing the following: 50 mAs, 70 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid and a .6 mm focal spot.

  1. Decreased magnification
  2. Decreased spatial resolution
  3. Decreased receptor exposure
  4. Increased receptor exposure

A. 2 only

B. 4 only

C. 1 & 3

D. 2 & 3

E. 2 & 4

A

4

Increased receptor exposure

54
Q

See the attached image:

The diagram is an example of a/an:

A. Autotransformer

B. Step-up transformer

C. Step-down transformer

A

Step-up transformer

55
Q

See attached image.

Utilized in the x-ray circuit to:

A. Heat the filament of an x-ray tube

B. Supply high voltage across the x-ray tube

C. Vary the voltage input to the high voltage transformer

D. Control the voltage across the x-ray tube

A

Heat the filament of an x-ray tube

56
Q

See images.

Increasing the grid ratio will result in:

A. Decreased production of scattered radiation

B. Increased possibility of grid cut-off

C. Decreased absorption of scattered radiation

D. Increased production of scattered radiation

A

Increased possibility of grid cut-off

57
Q

PACS allow for ___ within an imaging department.

A. Digital image display

B. Digital image storage

C. Digital image acquisition

D. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

Digital image display, digital image storage, digital image acquisition

58
Q

Which of the following changes would result in an INCREASE in the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR?

A. Increasing the mAs and utilizing a higher grid ratio

B. Decreasing the volume of tissue being exposed and increasing the mAs

C. Increasing the mAs and decreasing the kVp

D. Decreasing the mAs and increasing the kVp

A

Decreasing the mAs and increasing the kVp

59
Q

In order to benefit from the results of the anode heel effect when performing an AP femur exam, the cathode end of the tube should be positioned over:

A. The right side of the femur

B. The left side of the femur

C. The proximal end of the femur

D. The distal end of the femur

A

The proximal end of the femur

60
Q

The purpose of the tube housing and the oil bath contained in the housing is to:

A. Provide shielding to prevent leakage radiation

B. Cool the tube

C. Insulate the tube

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

Provide shielding to prevent leakage radiation, cool the tube, insulate the tube

61
Q

Pixel value is defined as:

A. A digital representation of the contrast resolution

B. A digital representation of the tissue imaged

C. The size of the matrix

D. None of the above

A

A digital representation of the tissue imaged

62
Q

The ___ uses zinc cadmium sulfide in the phosphor layer

A. Image intensifier input screen

B. Image intensifier output screen

C. CR image plates

D. Intensifying screens

A

Image intensifier output screen

63
Q

Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE) can be defined as:

A. How effeciently a system converts an x-ray signal into a useful output image

B. Characteristic of digital imaging comparable to recorded detail

C. Shuttering

D. A histogram of luminance values

A

How efficiently a system converts an x-ray signal into a useful output image

64
Q

On the x-ray circuit, the line voltage compensator is located:

A. On the primary side of the high voltage transformer

B. On the secondary side of the high voltage transformer

C. Between the rectifier and the x-ray tube

D. On the filament circuit

A

On the primary side of the high voltage transformer

65
Q

Which of the following factors is most important in controlling size distortion?

A. Exposure time

B. SID

C. OID

D. Focal spot size

A

OID

66
Q

What would be the result of increasing the kVp by 20% when using AEC?

A. Increased exposure intensity

B. Increased contrast

C. Decreased exposure time

D. Increased mAs

A

Decreased exposure time

67
Q

The layers of a CR imaging plate include:

A. Phosphor

B. Reflective

C. Color

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

Phosphor, reflective, color

68
Q

Which of the following systems would use thin film transistors?

  1. Computed radiography systems
  2. Indirect detection systems
  3. Direct detection systems

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 & 2

D. 2 & 3

E. 1, 2 & 3

A

2 & 3

Indirect detection systems, direct detection systems

69
Q

The structure designated as No. 1 on the radiograph is:

A. The superior articular process of the axis

B. The inferior articular process of the axis

C. The lateral masses of the atlas

D. The occipital condyles

A

The lateral masses of the atlas

70
Q

The structure designated as No. 2 on the radiograph is the:

A. Odontoid process of the atlas

B. Odontoid process of the axis

C. Superior articular process of the axis

D. Inferior articular process of the axis

A

Odontoid process of the axis

71
Q

Which of the following is parallel to the central ray for the radiograph?

A. Occlusall plane of the upper teeth

B. Occlusal plane of the lower teeth

C. Orbitomeatal line

D. Glabellomeatal line

A

Occlusal plane of the upper teeth

72
Q

In order to obtain a lateral projection of the scapula, the body of the scapula should be adjusted:

A. Perpendicular to the central ray

B. Paralle with the central ray

C. Parallel with the IR

D. At a 45 degree angle with the plane of the IR

A

Parallel with the central ray

73
Q

What is the classification of a fracture where a small portion of bone breaks off at the site of attachment of a ligament or tendon?

A. Avulsion

B. Greenstick

C. Colles’

D. Comminuted

A

Avulsion

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT a structure of the sphenoid bone?

A. Anterior clinoid process

B. Pterygoid process

C. Lesser wing

D. Perpendicular plate

A

Perpendicular plate

75
Q

The medial border of the obturator foramen is formed by the:

A. Ischium

B. Ilium

C. Sacrum

D. Pubis

A

Pubis

76
Q

The number of ribs that should be demonstrated above the diaphragm on a chest radiograph with proper inspiration would be:

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

A

10

77
Q

Which of these is located at the junction of the transverse and descending colon?

A. Signoid flexure

B. Right colic flexure

C. Iliac flexure

D. Left colic flexure

A

Left colic flexure

78
Q

A patient is placed in a supine position with the knee flexed as far as possible. An image receptor is placed in contact with and parallel to the long axis of the femur. In order to obtain a tangential projection of the patella, the central ray should be directed:

A. Parallel to the long axis of the femur

B. Parallel to the long axis of the tibia

C. Cephalad

D. Caudad

A

Cephalad

79
Q

Which surface of the wrist should be closest to the IR in order to obtain the least amount of magnification for a lateral projection of the 2nd finger?

A. Medial

B. Lateral

C. Anterior

D. Posterior

A

Lateral

80
Q

The structure designated as No. 4 on the diagram is called the:

A. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla

D. Corpus callosum

A

Cerebellum

81
Q

The structure known as the pons is designated on the diagram by the No. ___

A. 6

B. 5

C. 7

D. 2

A

6

82
Q

The structure designated as No. 2 on the diagram is called the:

A. Thalamus

B. Hypothalamus

C. Mid brain

D. Corpus callosum

A

Corpus callosum

83
Q

The pituitary gland is designated by No. ___ on the diagram.

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

A

8

84
Q

The heads of the matatarsals articulate with the:

A. Cuneiforms

B. Cuboid bone

C. Phalanges

D. Tarsal bones

A

Phalanges

85
Q

In order to obtain a lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region, the:

A. Arm closest to the IR should be elevated

B. Arm closest to the tube should be elevated

C. Both arms should be elevated

D. Neither arm should be elevated

A

Arm closest to the IR should be elevated

86
Q

The separation of the external auditory meatus and the middle ear is provided by the:

A. Fenestra vestibuli

B. Auditory ossicles

C. Tympanic membrane

D. Auditory tube

A

Tympanic membrane

87
Q

Maximum demonstration of the lesser trochanter of the hip on an AP projection would result with the long axis of the foot:

A. Internally rotated 15 degrees

B. Internally rotated 25 degrees

C. Aligned perpendicular to the IR

D. Externally rotated 25 degrees

A

Externally rotated 25 degrees

88
Q

Which of the following would be the order of the proximal row of carpal bones from lateral to medial?

A. Pisiform, triquetrum, lunate, scaphoid

B. Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

C. Hamate, capitate, trapezoid, trapezium

D. Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

A

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

89
Q

Which of the following would be most appropriate for a patient on a backboard in a cervical collar to demonstrate cervical intervertebral foramina?

A. Cross table lateral

B. Pillar

C. AP axial oblique

D. Posterior oblique

A

AP axial oblique

90
Q

A glenoid cavity position of the shoulder shows that the glenohumeral joint space is closed, and the lateral tip of the coracoid process does not superimpose the humeral head. Which of the following would correct the positioning of this radiograph?

A. Position the patient’s shoulders on the same transverse plane

B. Place the shoulders in a neutral position

C. Decrease the degree of patient obliquity

D. Increase the degree of patient obliquity

E. No correction needed

A

Increase the degree of patient obliquity

91
Q

Improved demonstration of a diaphragmatic hernia during a stomach exam could be accomplished by placing the patient in a:

A. Prone position

B. Supine position

C. Right anterior oblique position

D. Trendelenburg position

A

Trendelenburg position

92
Q

The structures of the lumbar vertebrae that project posteriorly from the body and unite with the lamina are the:

A. Pedicles

B. Transverse processes

C. Superior articular processes

D. Inferior articular processes

A

Pedicles

93
Q

A patient is placed in the prone position with the median sagittal plane and the orbitomeatal line adjusted perpendicular to the IR. The central ray is directed perpendicular to the IR. On the radiograph, the petrous pyramids will be:

A. Projected below the orbits

B. projected into the lower third of the orbits

C. Completely filling the orbits

D. Projected below the foramen magnum

A

Completely filling the orbits

94
Q

In order to demonstrate the radial head free of superimposition, the humeral epicondyles should be adjusted to be:

A. Parallel with the CR

B. Perpendicular to the CR

C. At a 45 degree angle with the CR

D. Parallel with the IR

A

At a 45 degree angle with the CR

95
Q

The amount of angulation between the neck and shaft of the femur is approximately:

A. 45 degrees

B. 60 degrees

C. 120 degrees

D. 180 degrees

A

120 degrees

96
Q

If the patient is in the supine position for a lateral projection of the humerus, the:

A. Elbow must be fully extended

B. The posterior aspect of the hand rests against the patient’s side

C. The forearm should be rotated laterally for comfort

D. None of the above

A

The posterior aspect of the hand rests against the patient’s side

97
Q

A lateral projection of the ankle will demonstrate the talus:

A. Superimposing the navicular

B. Lateral to the calcaneus

C. Superior to the calcaneus

D. Anterior to the navicular

A

Superior to the calcaneus

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT an artery originating directly off the arch of the aorta?

A. Brachycephalic artery

B. Left common carotid artery

C. Right common carotid artery

D. Left subclavian artery

A

Right common carotid artery

99
Q

What position is demonstrated in the diagram.

A. Grashey

B. Stecher

C. Gaynor-Hart

D. Settegast

A

Gaynor-Hart

100
Q

According the diagram, which carpal bone would be demonstrated in its entirety?

A. Trapezium

B. Hamate

C. Scaphoid

D. Pisiform

A

Pisiform

Radiology (4 decks)

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