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Radiology > Radiology 4 > Flashcards

Radiology 4 Flashcards

1
Q

When measuring a patient’s blood pressure, the first pressure read will be:

A. Systolic

B. Metastolic

C. Diastolic

D. Epistolic

A

Systolic

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2
Q

The patient must be informed of ___ to ensure legal informed consent.

A. Potential risks of the procedure

B. Suggested alternatives

C. Consequences of not completing the exam

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

potential risks of the procedure, suggested alternatives, consequences of not completing the exam

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3
Q

At what stage do infectious microbes begin to multiply?

A. Disease

B. Latent

C. Incubation

D. Somatic

A

Incubation

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4
Q

Which of the following would reduce the viscosity of contrast media utilized for angiography?

A. Warm the contrast media to body temperature

B. Utilize a contrast media with a higher iodine content

C. Utilize a contrast media with an oil base

D. Cool the contrast media to 65 degrees

A

Warm the contrast media to body temperature

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of tube used for support of patient breathing?

A. N-G tube

B. Tracheostomy tube

C. Nasal airway tube

D. Endotracheal tube

A

N-G tube

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6
Q

The first stage of the grieving process according to Elizabeth Kubler Ross is:

A. Bargaining

B. Acceptance

C. Anger

D. Denial

A

Denial

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7
Q

Which of the following does NOT require airborne precautions?

A. Extrapulmonary TB

B. Active TB

C. SARS

D. Measles

A

Extrapulmonary TB

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8
Q

Any linens used by patients are:

A. Considered contaminated

B. Can serve as fomites even if not stained

C. Should be handled as little as possible

D. All of the above

A

All

considered contaminated, can serve as fomites even if not stained, should be handled as little as possible

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9
Q

If a urinary bag needs to be emptied, it is important to:

A. Check the chart to see if urinary output needs to be measured

B. Wear protective gloves

C. Re-close clamp on bottom of bag

D. A &; B

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

check the chart to see if urinary output needs to be measured, wear protective gloves, re-close clamp on bottom of bag

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10
Q

The rules of body mechanics include:

A. Use a wide base of support

B. Work at a comfortable height

C. Pull heavy objects

D. A & B

E. A, B & C

A

A & B

use a wide base of support, work at a comfortable height

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11
Q

If you will be sending confidential information via fax, the information should be:

A. Seen only by the receiving physician

B. Preceded by a phone call to the recipient

C. Transmitted by e-mail instead

D. Transmitted by mail instead

A

Preceded by a phone call to the recipient

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12
Q

When a patient arrives in the x-ray department with dressings covering an open wound, the radiographer should:

A. Maintain the dressings

B. Remove the dressings to prevent artifacts

C. Just replace the dressings if bleeding is severe

D. Wrap gauze tightly around the dressings to prevent further bleeding

A

Maintain the dressings

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13
Q

Which of the following should be done before transferring a patient from their bed to a wheelchair?

A. Raise the bed as high as possible and lower the head

B. Position wheelchair parallel to the bed, wheels locked

C. Position wheelchair facing the bed, wheels locked, footrests out of the way

D. Position wheelchair back to the bed, footrests down

A

Position wheelchair parallel to the bed, wheels locked

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14
Q

Using ___ can block communication between the radiographer and the patient.

A. Using judgmental statements

B. Acting defensive

C. Giving false reassurances

D. A & C

E. A, B & C

A

A, B & C using judgmental statements, acting defensive, giving false reassurances

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15
Q

Which of the following individuals would perform a surgical scrub before starting an operative cholangiogram?

A. Scrub nurse

B. Circulating nurse

C. Anesthetist

D. A, B & C

A

Scrub nurse

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16
Q

If an open sterile tray is found unattended it should be:

A. Used immediately

B. Covered until procedure starts

C. Considered sterile

D. Discarded

A

Discarded

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17
Q

Match the radiation type with the corresponding quality factor. X-rays ___

A. 1

B. 2

C. 10

D. 50

E. 100

A

1

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18
Q

Match the radiation type with the corresponding quality factor. Gamma rays ___

A. 1

B. 2

C. 10

D. 50

E. 100

A

1

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19
Q

Match the radiation type with the corresponding quality factor. Alpha ___

A. 1

B. 2

C. 20

D. 50

E. 100

A

20

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20
Q

When using an under-table fluoroscopy unit, the bucky slot cover should have at least ___ of lead.

A. .25 mm

B. .5 mm

C. 72 mm

D. 1.0 mm

A

.25mm

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21
Q

A group of cells with a high mitotic rate will also possess:

A. High radiosensitivity

B. Low radiosensitivity

C. The rate of mitosis does not affect radiosensitivity

A

High radiosensitivity

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22
Q

Primary radiation barriers require ___” lead shielding.

A. 1/32

B. 1/16

C. 1/8

D. 1/4

A

1/16”

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23
Q

Which of the following procedures, a blend of CT and Nuclear Medicine, uses a positron-emitting radionuclide?

A. PET

B. SPECT

C. DEXA

D. Functional MRI

A

PET

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24
Q

Which of the following radiation survey instruments contains a gas-filled chamber?

A. Ionization chamber

B. Geiger-Muller detector

C. Proportional chamber

D. All of the above

A

All

ionization chamber, geiger-muller detector, proportional chamber

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25
Q

The ___ is the site of thermionic emission.

A. Anode

B. Cathode

C. Rectifier

D. Ionization chamber

A

Cathode

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26
Q

During fluoroscopy the dose at the tabletop should be limited to ___R per minute.

A. 1

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

A

10

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27
Q

The Compton effect is an interaction between an x-ray photon and:

A. An inner shell electron

B. An outer shell electron

C. A nucleus

D. Another photon

A

An outer shell electron

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28
Q

Employers must provide personnel monitoring whenever it is likely that the workers would exceed ___ rem in a given year.

A. .5

B. 1.25

C. 5

D. 15

A

.5

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29
Q

The dose-response relationship of radiation induced leukemia is considered to be:

A. Linear, nonthreshold

B. Linear, threshold

C. Nonlinear, nonthreshold

D. Nonlinear, threshold

A

linear, nonthreshold

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30
Q

Possible early effects of radiation exposure include:

  1. nausea and vomiting 2. carcinogenesis 3. cataract formation

A. 1 only

B. 1 & 2

C. 2 & 3

D. 1, 2 & 3

A

nausea and vomiting

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31
Q

Radiation badge results are reported in ___ to reflect deep and shallow doses.

A. Rad

B. Rem

C. Roentgen

D. Curie

A

Rem

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32
Q

The use of protective devices like lead aprons and lead glasses are designed to protect the user from:

A. The primary beam

B. Remnant radiation

C. Exit radiation

D. Scattered radiation

A

Scattered radiation

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33
Q

Increasing beam restriction will reduce patient dose by:

A. Increasing scattered radiation

B. Decreasing scattered radiation

C. Decreasing field size

D. B & C

E. A & C

A

B & C

decreasing scattered radiation, decreasing field size

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34
Q

Which of the following could decrease patient dose?

A. Increased grid ratio

B. Increased mAs

C. Increased focal spot size

D. Increased filtration

A

Increased filtration

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35
Q

Which of the following types of radiation monitors contains aluminum oxide?

A. Film badge

B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

C. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

D. Geiger counter

A

Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

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36
Q

The function of filtration is to attenuate:

A. High frequency, short wavelength radiation

B. High frequency, long wavelength radiation

C. Low frequency, short wavelength radiation

D. Low frequency, long wavelength radiation

A

Low frequency, long wavelength radiation

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37
Q

When performing portable x-ray exams, the area with the least scatter would be:

A. The head of the bed

B. At a 90 degree angle from the patient

C. At a 45 degree angle from the patient

D. At a 180 degree angle from the patient

A

At a 90 degree angle from the patient

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38
Q

If an individual was exposed to 1 rad of each of the following types of radiation, which one would deliver the greatest dose in rem?

A. Diagnostic x-rays

B. 200 Kev x-rays

C. Beta radiation

D. Alpha radiation

A

Alpha radiation

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39
Q

Which of the following could be used to reduce the CT scan dose to pediatric patients?

A. Use technique charts based on part diameter

B. Increase the pitch for helical scanning

C. Reduce number of scans taken before, during, and after contrast injection

D. A, B & C

A

A, B & C

use technique charts based on part diameter; increase the pitch for helical scanning; reduce number of scans taken before, during, and after contrast injection

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40
Q

What is the dose equivalent limit for a radiography student under the age of 18?

A. .1 rem per year

B. .25 rem per year

C. .5 rem per year

D. 5 rem per year

A

.1 rem per year

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41
Q

To reduce patient exposure during pulsed mode fluoroscopy ___ should be chosen.

A. Highest mA

B. Smallest pulse width

C. Lower kVp

D. Reduced SSD

A

Smallest pulse width

42
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of x-rays?

A. Highly penetrating

B. Travel in straight lines

C. Travel at the speed of sound

D. Are not affected by magnets

A

Travel at the speed of sound

43
Q

Which of the following procedures is least likely to produce injury to a patient’s skin?

A. Stent placement

B. Vascular embolization

C. Upper GI series

D. Biliary stone removal

A

Upper GI series

44
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

400 mA 200 mA

.04 second ____ second

65 kVp 75 kVp

A. 04

B. .08

C. .12

D. .16

E. .30

A

.04

45
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

200 mA ____ mA

.07 second .14 second

5:1 grid 8:1 grid

A. 200

B. 300

C. 400

D. 500

E. 600

A

200

46
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

600 mA 400 mA

.07 second ___ second

90 kVp 77 kVp

A. .03

B. .06

C. .12

D. .21

E. .50

A

.21

47
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

300 mA ____ mA

.10 second .25 second

5:1 grid 6:1 grid

48” SID 72” SID

A. 200

B. 300

C. 400

D. 500

E. 600

A

400

48
Q

Determine the missing factor that will produce the same exposure to the image receptor as the original set of exposure factors.

200 mA 100 mA

.20 second ___ second

45” SID 40” SID

A. .04

B. .08

C. .16

D. .32

E. .50

A

.32

49
Q

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot.

The kVp is increased to 104. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to:

A. 1/2 second

B. 3/4 second

C. 1 second

D. 2 seconds

E. 3 seconds

A

3/4 second

50
Q

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot.

The kVp is increased to 104. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to: 3/4 second.

Due to the compensated change, what would be the resultant effect to patient dose?

A. Increased patient dose

B. Decreased patient dose

C. Patient dose would not be affected

A

Decreased patient dose

51
Q

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot.

The kVp is increased to 104. In order to compensate for the change in receptor exposure with all other factors remaining the same, the exposure time should be adjusted to: 3/4 second.

Due to the compensated change, what would be the resultant effect to exposure latitude?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain the same

A

Increase

52
Q

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot.

Resultant effect of utilizing a .6 mm focal spot.

A. Increased spatial resolution, no effect to receptor exposure

B. Decreased spatial resolution, increased receptor exposure

C. Increased magnification

D. Decreased spatial resolution

A

Increased spatial resolution, no effect to receptor exposure

53
Q

A portable lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine is obtained using the following exposure factors: 200 mA, 1.5 sec., 90 kVp, 40” SID, 8:1 grid, and 1.2 mm, focal spot.

Resultant effect of utilizing a .35” SID.

A. Increased spatial resolution

B. Increased contrast

C. Increased magnification

D. Decreased magnification

A

Increased magnification

54
Q

The letter A refers to the ___ layer.

A. Protective

B. Phosphor

C. Support

D. Conductor

A

Protective

55
Q

Which letter refers to the phosphor layer?

A. Letter A

B. Letter B

C. Letter C

D. Letter E

A

Letter B

56
Q

Which of the following pathological conditions would require an increase in mAs or kVp to maintain an acceptable density?

A. Osteoporosis

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pleural effusion

D. Osteolytic tumor

A

Pleural effusion

57
Q

A stationary anode x-ray tube utilizes copper:

A. As the target material

B. To conduct heat away from the tungsten anode

C. In the construction of the filament

D. In the construction of the focusing cup

A

To conduct heat away from the tungsten anode

58
Q

The Moire effect can be caused by:

A. Grid error with a digital image receptor system

B. Poor monitor quality control

C. Overexposing the image receptors

D. Underexposing the image receptors

A

Grid error with a digital image receptor system

59
Q

Which of the following would improve the contrast resolution on a digital image?

A. Smaller pixel size

B. Larger pixel size

C. Smaller pixel bit depth

D. Larger pixel bit depth

E. Larger matrix

A

Larger pixel bit deepth

60
Q

The ___ selector uses an autotransformer.

A. mA

B. Timer

C. kVp

D. AEC chamber

A

kVp

61
Q

What is between the TV or CCD camera and the computer of a digital fluoro system?

A. Image storage device

B. Image intensifier tube

C. Analog to digital converter

D. Digital to analog converter

A

Analog to digital converter

62
Q

A ___ grid is recommended for digital imaging to obtain the best quality images.

A. High ratio

B. Low ratio

C. High frequency

D. Low frequency

A

High frequency

63
Q

Which of the following would eliminate white and black pixels that contribute little diagnostic information in digital radiography?

A. Histogram equalization

B. Unsharp masking

C. Background substraction

D. Energy substraction

A

Histogram equalization

64
Q

The output current of a full-wave rectifier is:

A. Alternating current

B. Direct current

C. Pulsating direct current

A

Pulsating direct current

65
Q

The photocathode of the image intensifier emits:

A. Light photons

B. X-ray photons

C. Protons

D. Electrons

A

Electrons

66
Q

The exposure timer on a three phase generator can be evaluated using a/an:

A. Spinning top

B. Synchronous spinning top

C. Ion chamber

D. B & C

E. A, B & C

A

B & C

synchronous spinning top, ion chamber

67
Q

Which type of x-ray generator (power supply) should provide the highest quality x-ray beam?

A. Self rectified

B. High frequency

C. Full wave rectified

D. Three-phase, six pulse

A

High frequence

68
Q

DQE can be defined as:

A. The quality of digital enhancement

B. The quantity of digital enhancement

C. How efficiently a system converts the x-ray exposure into an image

D. Quality control of digital systems

A

How efficiently a system converts the x-ray exposure into an image

69
Q

The structure designated as No. 1 on Radiograph A is the:

A. Articular pillar

B. Body

C. Pedicle

D. Transverse process

A

Body

70
Q

The structure designated as No. 2 on Radiograph B is the:

A. Vertebral foramen

B. Lamina

C. Transverse foramen

D. Intervertebral foramen

A

Intervertebral foramen

71
Q

In order to improve Radiograph A, the technologist should:

A. Increase patient obliquity

B. Decrease patient obliquity

C. Increase CR angle

D. Decrease CR angle

A

Increase patient obliquity

72
Q

In order to obtain a projection similar to Radiograph B, the degree of angulation between the mid-sagittal plane and the plane of the film should be adjusted to approximately:

A. 20-25 degrees

B. 30-35 degrees

C. 40-45 degrees

D. 50-55 degrees

E. 60-65 degrees

A

40-45 degrees

73
Q

What are the four MAIN divisions of the respiratory system?

A. Diaphragms, lungs, trachea, esophagus

B. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, epiglottis, lungs

C. Nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, trachea, lungs

D. Pharynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs

A

Pharynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs

74
Q

Which of the following bones of the skull articulates with the spinal comumn?

A. Sphenoid bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Occipital bone

D. Parietal bone

A

Occipital bone

75
Q

The body of the ischium forms the:

A. Anterior portion of the obturator foramen

B. Anterior portion of the acetabulum

C. Posterior portion of the acetabulum

D. Medial portion of the SI joint

A

Posterior portion of the acetabulum

76
Q

The superior articulation of the calcaneus is with the:

A. Distal tibia

B. Talus

C. Cuboid

D. Cuneiforms

A

Talus

77
Q

Which of the following would reduce foreshortening of the scaphoid?

A. PA projection

B. Radial deviation position

C. Ulnar deviation position

D. Lateral projection

A

Ulnar deviation position

78
Q

In order to obtain a lateral projection of the humerus with the patient supine, it would be necessary to:

A. Abduct the humerus slightly and place back of hand against the body

B. Abduct the humerus and place palm of hand flat on table

C. Abduct the humerus and extend the elbow

D. Abduct the humerus and flex the elbow

A

Abduct the humerus slightly and place back of hand against the body

79
Q

The clavicle articulates with the:

A. Sternum and spine

B. Humerus and sternum

C. Scapula and sternum

D. Scapula and humerus

A

Scapula and sternum

80
Q

The function of the thoracic duct is to transmit:

A. Blood to the intercostal muscles

B. Air from the trachea to the bronchi

C. Blood from the superior vena cava to the heart

D. Lymph to the left subclavian vein

A

Lymph to the left subclavian vein

81
Q

In the diagram, demonstrating the axial PA projection of the intercondyloid fossa, which is the correct central ray?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. None

A

1

82
Q

Which of the following would be utilized to demonstrate the axillary region of the ribs with the patient prone?

A. Elevate the affected side

B. Elevate the unaffected side

C. Direct the central ray caudad

D. Direct the central ray cephalad

A

Elevate the affected side

83
Q

A patient is suspected of having a subluxation of the cervical vertebrae. Since the patient cannot be rotated, an oblique projection could be obtained by directing the central ray to form an angel of ___ degrees with the coronal plane.

A. 15

B. 25

C. 30

D. 45

E. 90

A

45

84
Q

The smooth prominence located between the eyebrows and superior to the nasal bones is the:

A. Acanthion

B. Bregma

C. Nasion

D. Glabella

E. Inion

A

Glabella

85
Q

The Valsalva maneuver would be utilized to demonstrate:

A. A gastric ulcer

B. A gastric diverticulum

C. Polyps

D. Esophageal varices

A

Esophageal varices

86
Q

Which of the following would best demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses?

A. PA Axial (Caldwell method)

B. Lateral projection

C. Parietoacanthial Projection (Waters method)

D. Posterior Profile Position (Stenvers method)

A

Lateral projection

87
Q

A 45 degree right posterior oblique position of the lumbar vertebrae fails to adequately demonstrate the lumbosacral zygaplphyseal articulation. In order to demonstrate this area, the patient should be positioned with the mid-coronal plane and the plane of the image receptor forming an angle of:

A. 30 degrees

B. 45 degrees

C. 60 degrees

D. 90 degrees

A

30 degrees

88
Q

A lateral projection of the tibia and fibula is to be obtained, but due to the patient’s condition, the exam is performed on the stretcher with the IR flat. The leg can only be rotated externally 45 degrees. In order to obtain a lateral projection, with the leg rotated externally 45 degrees, the central ray should be directed:

A. 45 degrees lateral

B. 45 degrees medial

C. Perpendicular to the IR

D. 90 degrees medial

A

45 degrees lateral

89
Q

The most superior process of the ulna is the:

A. Radial notch

B. Coronoid process

C. Semilunar notch

D. Olecranon process

A

Olecranon process

90
Q

For a lateral projection of the foot, the central ray would be directed to the:

A. Head of the third metatarsal

B. Base of the third metatarsal

C. Tibiotalar joint

D. Navicular

A

Base of the third metatarsal

91
Q

In order to demonstrate the sacroiliac joint utilizing an anterior oblique position, the central ray should be directed:

A. Cephalad

B. Caudad

C. To the joint nearest the film

D. To the joint furthest from the film

A

To the joint nearest the film

92
Q

The concave superior border of the manubrium is terned the:

A. Coastal notch

B. Sternal angle

C. Jugular notch

D. Clavicular notch

A

Jugular notch

93
Q

A correctly positioned open-mouth projection of the dens should demonstrate the upper incisors:

A. Projected superior to the petrous pyramids

B. Projected superior to the mastoid processes

C. superimposed upon the cranial base

D. Superimposed upon the body of the atlas

A

Superimposed upon the cranial base

94
Q

A patient is positioned in a 45 degree right posterior oblique position. A perpendicular central ray is directed to a point 2” medial and 2” inferior to the upper outer border of the shoulder. This position would best demonstrate the:

A. Right glenoid cavity

B. Left glenoid cavity

C. Right coracoid process

D. Left coracoid process

A

Right glenoid cavity

95
Q

Which of the following would be utilized to best demonstrate the right colic flexure during an examination of the colon?

A. AP projection

B. Right lateral projection

C. Right anterior oblique position

D. Left anterior oblique position

A

Right anterior oblique position

96
Q

An AP projection of the scapula shows the inferolateral border superimposed by the thoracic cavity. Which of the following would correct the positioning of this radiograph?

A. Pronate the hand

B. Angle the central ray 10 degrees cephalic

C. Abduct the humerus

D. Put patient in an upright position

E. No correction needed

A

Abduct the humerus

97
Q

The structure depicted in the diagram as #1 is the:

A. Glomerulus

B. Glomerular capsule

C. Loop of Henle

D. Efferent arteriole

A

Glomerular capsule

98
Q

The structure depicted in the diagram as #3 is the:

A. Glomerulus

B. Glomerular capsule

C. Loop of Henle

D. Efferent tubule

A

Loop of Henle

99
Q

The network of capillaries where filtration occurs is depicted by number:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

2

100
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

A. Nephron

B. Hilum

C. Calyx

D. Medulla

A

Nephron

Radiology (4 decks)

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