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C2 > RADIOGRAPHIC FILM & PROCESSING THE FILM > Flashcards

RADIOGRAPHIC FILM & PROCESSING THE FILM Flashcards

1
Q

What are image-forming X-rays?

A

X-rays that exit the patient and interact with the image receptor.

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2
Q

What is the exit beam?

A

X-rays that remain as the useful beam exits the patient.

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3
Q

The medium that converts the x-ray beam into a visible image.

A

Image receptor

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4
Q

What are the basic parts of radiographic film?

A

Base and emulsion.

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5
Q

What are the additional parts of radiographic film?

A

Adhesive layer and overcoat.

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6
Q

What is the thickness range of radiographic film?

A

150-300 μm.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the adhesive layer in radiographic film?

A

To allow the emulsion and base to maintain proper contact and integrity.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the overcoat in radiographic film?

A

To protect the emulsion from scratches, pressure, and contamination, allowing rough manipulation before exposure.

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9
Q

What is the base of radiographic film designed for?

A

To provide a rigid structure for the emulsion.

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10
Q

Describe the characteristics of the base in radiographic film.

A

Flexible, fracture-resistant, maintains size/shape (dimensional stability), uniformly lucent, tinted with blue dye to reduce eyestrain.

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11
Q

What was the original film base made from?

A

Glass plate.

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12
Q

What is cellulose nitrate, and what characteristic does it have?

A

It is the standard base for radiographic film, and it is flammable.

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13
Q

What base was introduced in the mid-1920s as a safety alternative?

A

Cellulose triacetate, which is less flammable than cellulose nitrate.

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14
Q

What is the film base of choice in radiographic film today, and why?

A

Polyester, because it is more resistant and has superior dimensional stability.

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15
Q

What are the two main components of the emulsion in radiographic film?

A

Gelatin and silver halide crystal.

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16
Q

What is the thickness of the emulsion layer?

A

3-5 μm.

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17
Q

What is the principal function of gelatin in the emulsion?

A

To provide mechanical support for silver halide crystals.

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of gelatin?

A

Clear and sufficiently porous.

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19
Q

What is the active ingredient of the emulsion?

A

Silver halide crystal.

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20
Q

Why is a high atomic number significant in silver halide crystals?

A

It contributes to the crystal’s high sensitivity to radiation, aiding in image formation.

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21
Q

What are the two primary chemical components of silver halide crystals

A

Silver bromide (98%) and silver iodide (2%).

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22
Q

List the possible shapes of silver halide crystals.

A

Tabular (mostly used), cubic, octahedral, polyhedral, and irregular shapes.

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23
Q

What is double emulsion film?

A

Film coated with emulsion on both sides.

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24
Q

What is silver sulfide’s role in silver halide crystals?

A

Acts as a chemical contaminant that creates physical imperfections in the crystals.

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25
Q

What are the main factors affecting radiographic film performance?

A

number of sensitivity centers per crystal
crystal concentration in the emulsion,
size/distribution of the crystals.

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26
Q

Why is radiographic film manufactured in total darkness?

A

To prevent exposure and ensure the integrity of the film’s sensitivity.

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27
Q

An invisible change induced in the silver halide crystal.

A

latent image

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28
Q

What is the photographic effect in radiographic film?

A

The formation of the latent image.

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29
Q

The accepted, although incomplete, explanation of latent image formation.

A

Gurney-Mott Theory

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30
Q

An inherent defect in the structure of silver halide crystals.

A

Frankel Defect

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31
Q

How does photon interaction with silver halide crystals contribute to the latent image?

A

Through photoelectric (total absorption) and Compton (partial absorption) interactions.

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32
Q

What are the steps in latent image production?

A

1) Radiation releases electrons,
2) electrons migrate to the sensitivity center,
3) atomic silver forms,
4) silver buildup creates the latent image.

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33
Q

What is the latent image center?

A

A cluster of silver atoms within the emulsion crystal.

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34
Q

List the types of film used in medical imaging.

A

Screen-film
laser printing
copy/duplicating
dental
radiation monitoring
dry transfer films.

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35
Q

What are the characteristics of screen-film in radiography?

A

Dual emulsion, blue or green sensitivity, used in general radiography, reduces technique and dose, but causes some image blur.

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36
Q

Single emulsion with antihalation backing, pre-exposed to Dmax, and used for duplicating radiographs.

A

copy/duplicating film

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37
Q

Dual emulsion packed in a sealed envelope with lead foil to reduce backscatter;

A

dental film

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38
Q

Dual emulsion packed in a sealed envelope; one emulsion can be removed to adjust the optical density scale; used for radiation monitoring.

A

radiation monitoring film

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39
Q

Single emulsion, thermally sensitive, used for “dry” printers.

A

dry transfer film

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40
Q

What must be considered when selecting screen-film?

A

Contrast, speed, spectral matching, anticrossover/antihalation dyes, and safelight requirements.

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41
Q

What is contrast in radiographic film?

A

degree of difference between the light and dark areas of a radiograph.

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42
Q

Describe high contrast film.

A

Produces black and white images with smaller grains.

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43
Q

Describe low contrast film.

A

Produces images with shades of gray and has larger grains.

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44
Q

What is latitude in radiographic film?

A

The range of exposure techniques (kVp and mAs) that produce an acceptable image.

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45
Q

The sensitivity of the screen-film combination to x-rays and light.

A

film speed

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46
Q

What determines film speed for direct exposure?

A

Concentration and number of silver halide crystals.

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47
Q

What determines film speed for screen-film?

A

Silver halide grain size and shape.

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48
Q

The efficient use of silver in the emulsion.

A

covering power

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49
Q

Exposure of one emulsion by light from the opposite radiographic intensifying screen, leading to image blur.

A

crossover

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50
Q

What are ways to reduce crossover?

A

Tabular grain emulsions, light-absorbing dyes, and IS that emits short-wavelength light (Blue or UV).

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51
Q

What are the three critical characteristics of crossover control layer?

A

Absorbs most crossover light
doesn’t diffuse into emulsion
is removed during processing.

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52
Q

The color of light emitted by the screen must match the response of the film.

A

spectral matching

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53
Q

States that optical density is proportional to the total energy imparted to the film

A

reciprocity law

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54
Q

What is the formula for the reciprocity law?

A

Exposure = Intensity x Time = Constant Optical Density.

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55
Q

Provides enough light to work without exposing the film, composed of an incandescent lamp with a filter.

A

SAFELIGHT

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56
Q

Film used without intensifying screens, thicker emulsion, higher silver halide concentration, and a clear gelatin coating on the backside.

A

direct-exposure film

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57
Q

Single emulsion with antihalation backing.

A

mammography film

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58
Q

Reflection of screen light transmitted through the emulsion and base.

A

halation

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59
Q

An absorbing dye that reduces reflection of screen light, used in single emulsion screen-films.

A

ANTIHALATION

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60
Q

Silver halide film sensitized to red light emitted by lasers, with single emulsion and antihalation backing; used in CT, MRI, and ultrasound printers.

A

laser film

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61
Q

What is the purpose of laser beam modulation in radiographic film?

A

To vary the laser beam intensity in direct proportion to the strength of the image signal.

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62
Q

What is cine film, and what is its application?

A

35mm film used in cinefluorography.

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63
Q

Static image in small-format intensifier screen taken during fluoroscopy, with sizes ranging from 70 to 105 mm.

A

spot film

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64
Q

What are artifacts in radiographic film?

A

Marks or spurious images that sometimes appear on processed radiographs.

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65
Q

An artifact caused by creasing of the film.

A

line artifact

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66
Q

An artifact caused by dirt on the hands or on the intensifying screens (IS).

A

specular artifact

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67
Q

An artifact caused by a dry environment.

A

static

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68
Q

What are the ideal storage temperature conditions for radiographic film?

A

Less than 20°C (68°F) for regular storage and 10°C (50°F) for refrigeration.

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69
Q

Caused by high temperatures, leading to reduced contrast on the film.

A

fog effect

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70
Q

What is the recommended humidity range for film storage?

A

Between 40% and 60% relative humidity.

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71
Q

What happens if humidity falls below 40% during film storage?

A

It can cause static artifacts on the film.

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72
Q

What happens if humidity exceeds 60% during film storage?

A

It can cause fog on the film.

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73
Q

How does light exposure affect film fog?

A

Low-level, diffuse light exposure increases fog, while bright light exposure can cause artifacts or partial exposure of the film.

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74
Q

How does radiation exposure affect stored film?

A

It increases fog and reduces contrast on the film.

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75
Q

What happens to film as it ages past its expiration?

A

It loses speed and contrast, and fog increases.

76
Q

How should film boxes be stored to prevent pressure artifacts?

A

vertically

77
Q

What is the recommended supply schedule for film storage?

A

every 5 weeks

78
Q

What is the purpose of film processing?

A

To convert the latent image on the film into a visible image through a sequence of chemical steps.

79
Q

When was the first automatic film processor introduced?

A

In 1942 by Pako, with a 120 films per hour rate and a 40-minute dry-to-drop time.

80
Q

What significant development occurred in film processing in 1956?

A

Eastman Kodak introduced the first roller transport system processor with a 6-minute dry-to-drop time.

81
Q

What advancement in film processing was made in 1965?

A

Eastman Kodak introduced a 90-second rapid automatic film processor, becoming the standard.

82
Q

What are the steps in the standard processing sequence for radiographic film?

A

Wetting
Developing
Stop Bath
Fixing
Washing
Drying.

83
Q

What is the dry-to-drop time in manual film processing?

A

70 minutes and 45 seconds.

84
Q

What is the dry-to-drop time in automatic film processing?

A

90 seconds.

85
Q

What is the purpose of wetting in film processing?

A

To swell the emulsion for chemical penetration.

86
Q

How long does manual wetting take in film processing?

A

15 seconds.

87
Q

What is the purpose of developing in film processing?

A

To create a visible image from the latent image on the film.

88
Q

How long does manual developing take?

A

5 minutes.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the stop bath in film processing?

A

To terminate development and remove excess chemicals from the emulsion.

90
Q

How long does manual stop bath take?

A

30 seconds.

91
Q

What is the purpose of fixing in film processing?

A

To remove remaining silver halide and harden the gelatin to stabilize the image.

92
Q

How long does manual fixing take?

A

15 mins

93
Q

What is the purpose of drying in film processing?

A

To remove water from the film and prepare it for viewing.

94
Q

How long does manual drying take?

A

30 minutes.

95
Q

What is the main agent used in the wetting stage?

A

Water, to swell the gelatin and allow chemical penetration.

96
Q

What is the principal action of the developing stage in film processing?

A

To reduce silver ions of exposed crystals into metallic silver.

97
Q

What is the primary component of the developing agent?

A

Hydroquinone, which acts as a reducing agent.

98
Q

What is the function of Phenidone in the developer?

A

To rapidly produce shades of gray and control the toe of the characteristic curve.

99
Q

What is the role of hydroquinone in the developer?

A

To slowly produce black tones and control the shoulder of the characteristic curve.

100
Q

What are the chemicals used in the activator or buffering agent in the developer?

A

Sodium carbonate and sodium hydroxide, which help swell the gelatin, produce alkalinity, and control pH.

101
Q

What is the strongest alkali used in the developer, and what is its other name?

A

Sodium hydroxide, also known as lye.

102
Q

What is the purpose of potassium bromide in the developer?

A

It acts as an antifog agent, protecting unexposed crystals and preventing development fog.

103
Q

What chemical acts as the preservative in the developer, and what is its role?

A

Sodium sulfite, which controls oxidation and maintains balance among developer components.

104
Q

What is aerial oxidation, and how is it controlled in film processing?

A

It occurs when air mixes with the developer, turning it brown; it is controlled with close-fitting floating lids.

105
Q

What is the primary chemical in the hardener for the developer, and what is its role?

A

Glutaraldehyde, which controls emulsion swelling and enhances archival quality.

106
Q

What happens if glutaraldehyde is depleted?

A

It causes damp film to emerge from the processor.

107
Q

The permanence of the radiograph, meaning the image does not deteriorate with age.

A

archival quality

108
Q

What is the purpose of a sequestering agent in the developer?

A

To remove metallic impurities and stabilize the developing agent, using chelates.

109
Q

What are the three physical factors affecting film development?

A

Time, temperature, and concentration of the developer.

110
Q

What causes underdevelopment in radiographic film?

A

When the crystals containing a latent image are not fully reduced, resulting in a dull radiograph.

111
Q

What causes overdevelopment in radiographic film?

A

Partial reduction of unexposed crystals, which also results in a dull radiograph.

112
Q

What is development fog, and what causes it?

A

Increased developer time, temperature, and concentration cause unwanted fog on the film.

113
Q

What causes radiation fog in radiographic film?

A

Unintentional exposure to radiation or improper storage at high temperature and humidity.

114
Q

What are the principal actions of the fixing stage?

A

To treat the film so that the image remains permanent and to achieve archival quality.

115
Q

What chemicals are used as fixing agents in the fixer?

A

Ammonium thiosulfate and sodium thiosulfate, which remove undeveloped silver bromine.

116
Q

What is hypo retention, and how does it affect film quality?

A

The undesirable retention of fixer in the emulsion, resulting in a brownish film.

117
Q

What is the most common cause of poor archival quality in radiographs?

A

Silver sulfide staining, often from hypo retention or improper fixing.

118
Q

What is the purpose of the hardener in the fixer?

A

ensure the film is properly transported and to allow rapid, complete drying.

119
Q

List the chemicals used as hardeners in the fixer.

A

Potassium alum, aluminum chloride, and chromium alum, which stiffen and shrink the emulsion.

120
Q

What is the preservative in the fixer, and what is its role?

A

Sodium sulfite, which maintains chemical balance in the fixer.

121
Q

What is the function of the buffer in the fixer?

A

To maintain the proper pH level in the fixer, using acetate.

122
Q

What is the role of the sequestering agent in the fixer?

A

To remove aluminum ions, with boric acid or boric salts, which are the principal impurities at this stage.

123
Q

What is the purpose of washing in film processing?

A

To remove any residual chemicals from the emulsion, particularly hypo, to maintain archival quality.

124
Q

What is the wash agent in film processing?

A

water

125
Q

What is the recommended wash water temperature in automatic film processing?

A

3°C/5°F lower than the developer temperature (typically 35°C/95°F).

126
Q

What are the effects of inadequate washing on film quality?

A

Causes excessive hypo retention, resulting in poor archival quality and a brownish radiograph.

127
Q

What is the purpose of drying in the film processing sequence?

A

To remove water used in washing and prepare the film for viewing.

128
Q

What are the principal components of an automatic processing system?

A

Transport system
temperature control system
circulation system
replenishment system
dryer system.

129
Q

What are the three subsystems of the transport system?

A

Roller, transport rack, and drive subsystems.

130
Q

It is where the transport system begins, allowing the film to enter the processing cycle

A

feed tray in automatic processor

131
Q

They grip the film to initiate its journey through the processor.

A

entrance rollers

132
Q

Controls the replenishment rate of processing chemicals.

A

microswitch

133
Q

They convey the film along its path through the processor.

A

transport rollers

134
Q

3-inch rollers used when the film makes a turn in the processor.

A

master/solar rollers

135
Q

Positioned around the master roller and guide shoes to support film movement around bends in the processor.

A

planetary rollers

136
Q

What is the purpose of the transport rack assembly?

A

To move and change the direction of the film through rollers and guide shoes.

137
Q

What are guide shoes, and what is their purpose?

A

Components used to steer the film around bends in the transport rack assembly.

138
Q

A structure at the bottom of the transport rack that consists of the master roller, planetary roller, and guide shoes, guiding the film’s path.

A

turnaround assembly

139
Q

A structure made of rollers and guide shoes that transports film from one tank to the next in the processing sequence.

A

crossover track

140
Q

What is the purpose of the drive subsystem in automatic processing?

A

To provide power to turn the rollers at a precise rate, controlling the film’s movement through the processor.

141
Q

What provides power for the transport system in an automatic processor?

A

A fractional horsepower drive motor.

142
Q

List the three main mechanical devices in the drive subsystem.

A

A belt and pulley, a chain and sprocket, and gears.

143
Q

What is the purpose of the temperature control system in film processing?

A

To monitor and adjust the temperature at each stage of the processing sequence.

144
Q

What is the most critical temperature in film processing, and what is the standard value?

A

The developer temperature, typically set at 35°C (95°F).

145
Q

What device monitors temperature in film processing?

A

A thermocouple or thermistor.

146
Q

What is the purpose of the circulation system in automatic processing?

A

To agitate fluids to maintain a consistent temperature and ensure uniform exposure of the emulsion to chemicals.

147
Q

What is the minimum flow rate for wash water in the wash tank circulation system?

A

12 liters per minute (3 gallons per minute).

148
Q

What is the purpose of the replenishment system in film processing?

A

To meter the correct quantity of chemicals into each tank, maintaining volume and chemical activity.

149
Q

What is the standard replenishment rate for developer solution?

A

60-70 mL per 14 inches of film.

150
Q

What is the standard replenishment rate for fixer solution?

A

100-110 mL per 14 inches of film.

151
Q

What is the effect of increasing the replenishment rate on film contrast?

A

It slightly increases film contrast.

152
Q

What is the effect of decreasing the replenishment rate on film contrast?

A

It significantly decreases film contrast.

153
Q

What is the purpose of the dryer system in an automatic processor?

A

To remove moisture from the film and vent exhaust.

154
Q

What components make up the dryer system?

A

Blower, ventilation ducts, drying tubes, and exhaust system.

155
Q

A 30-second dry-to-drop processing method essential in angiography, surgery, emergency rooms, and special procedures.

A

rapid processing

156
Q

What temperatures are used for rapid processing chemicals?

A

Higher developer and fixer temperatures than standard processing.

157
Q

A 3-minute dry-to-drop processing method used primarily in mammography.

A

extended processing

158
Q

What are the advantages of extended processing in mammography?

A

Greater image contrast (15% increase) and lower patient dose (30% increased IR sensitivity).

159
Q

What are the disadvantages of extended processing in mammography?

A

A longer dry-to-drop time.

160
Q

What type of film is used in extended processing?

A

Single-emulsion film only

161
Q

A method that allows radiographers to process films without a darkroom, providing uninterrupted patient care.

A

daylight processing

162
Q

What are the advantages of daylight processing?

A

No darkroom needed, speed, and a 2-minute dry-to-drop time.

163
Q

Monitors the unloading and reloading of the cassette.

A

microprocessor

164
Q

Development of images without wet chemistry, eliminating the need for handling and disposal of chemicals, saving space, and reducing costs and maintenance.

A

dry processing

165
Q

List two methods used in dry processing.

A

Photothermography (PTG) and thermography (TG).

166
Q

Uses a laser to form a latent image and heat to process it, offering precise laser modulation with short dwell time.

A

photothermography

167
Q

What are the advantages of photothermography (PTG)?

A

Short dwell time (15 seconds) and accurate laser modulation over short intervals (1 μm).

168
Q

Uses heat (printhead) to produce a visible image directly.

A

thermography

169
Q

What are the disadvantages of thermography (TG) in radiography?

A

Increased image blur and a pixelated appearance.

170
Q

What chemical compound classically refers to “hypo” in radiographic processing?

A

Sodium thiosulfate.

171
Q

What is the appearance of a radiograph affected by hypo retention?

A

The radiograph appears brown.

172
Q

What are the two main functions of the hardener in the fixer?

A

To stiffen and shrink the emulsion, ensuring proper drying and transport through the processor.

173
Q

What is the function of the acetic acid in the fixer?

A

It acts as a stop bath by neutralizing the developer and stopping its action.

174
Q

What does a close-fitting floating lid prevent in the developer solution?

A

Prevents aerial oxidation.

175
Q

What chemical is sensitive to aerial oxidation in the developer?

A

Hydroquinone.

176
Q

What term describes the combination of two agents in developing, making them more effective than each alone?

A

Synergism.

177
Q

Why is the length of exposure time crucial in the developer?

A

Longer exposure increases reduction of silver in each grain, affecting density.

178
Q

How are oxidation and reduction reactions remembered in radiographic processing?

A

Electrons are Used in Reduction (EUR), Oxidation Produces Electrons (OPE).

179
Q

What is the temperature tolerance in the transport system controlled by?

A

The motor speed and the gear reduction system.

180
Q

What is a common cause of damp film emerging from the processor?

A

Depletion of glutaraldehyde in the developer solution.

181
Q

Why must the shorter dimension of the film be placed against the side rail during processing?

A

To ensure the proper replenishment rate is maintained.

182
Q

What is the relationship between contrast and exposure latitude in radiographic film?

A

Contrast is inversely proportional to exposure latitude.

183
Q

A dye that absorbs crossover light, reducing image blurring by keeping light within its layer.

A

anticrossover dye

184
Q

Describe the difference between orthochromatic and panchromatic film.

A

Orthochromatic is green-sensitive, while panchromatic is sensitive to the entire visible spectrum.

185
Q

What is the minimum light wavelength required for safelight filters for green-sensitive film?

A

Greater than 600 nm (red filter).

186
Q

What is the primary purpose of silver sulfide in the emulsion?

A

To create a physical imperfection that acts as a sensitivity center for the latent image.

187
Q

What is meant by “manifest image” in radiographic film?

A

The visible image created after processing the latent image through chemical reactions.

C2 (7 decks)

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