Radio Aids & Flight Planning

Question 1

The slaved gyro magnetic compass (gyrosyn) minimizes the oscillation and turning errors associated with P-type magnetic compasses through the utilization of:

Answer 1

A) magnetic compensator assembly
B) stabilized gyro to keep the flux valve in a horizontal position
C) directional gyro unit slaved to a remote compass transmitter
D) remote “sensing unit” equipped with a torque levelling actuator

C

Question 2

Frequency is:

Answer 2

A) A measure of the wave’s strength and decreases with distance from the transmitter
B) The number of cycles per second
C) The period of time to complete a full wave
D) the number of waves per metre

B

Question 3

The distance between the transmitting antenna and the point where the sky wave first returns to the surface of the earth is the the -

Answer 3

A) Skip Zone
B) Space Wave Distance
C) Skip Distance
D) L/F Radio Wave Propagation Distance

C

Question 4

Which of the following statements is true with reference to propagation of radio ground waves?

Answer 4

A) Reception of ground wave signals can only be accomplished at varying distances from the transmitter.
B) As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation decreases to provide a greater reception distance
C) As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation increases to provide less reception distance.
D) The distance from where the ground wave can no longer be received is dependent on the height and distance of the ionosphere, time of day, season and latitude.

C

Question 5

When navigating by use of the ADF, pilots should be aware that coastal refraction error is most pronounced when the radio beam being received by the aircraft from an inland ADB crosses the shoreline at an angle of:

Answer 5

A) 90 deg
B) 60-90 deg
C) 30-60 deg
D) less than 30 deg

D

Question 6

How can a pilot determine if the ADF is still in reception range of the tuned NDB?

Answer 6

A) Check for the OFF flag, which will appear if the aircraft is out of range.
B) The ADF pointer will always point towards north once it is out of range.
C) Listen to the Morse code ident for the tuned NDB to endure positive tracking.
D) The ADF pointer will begin to spin if it is out of range.

C

Question 7

A pilot is flying IFR within controlled airspace. The aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers, two DMEs and one ADF. The ADF malfunctions and is rendered unserviceable. The pilot should:

Answer 7

A) depart controlled airspace
B) advise ATS of the failure immediately
C) request a change of flight plan to VFR
D) squawk 7600 on the transponder

B

Question 8

How do the operating limitations differ between an NDB and a VOR?

Answer 8

A) Use of a VOR is limited by line of sight, while use of an NDB is limited by signal attenuation.
B) Use of both VORs and NDBs is limited by line of sight.
C) Use of a VOR is limited by signal attenuation, while use of an ND is limited by line of sight.
D) Use of both VORs and NDBs is limited by signal attenuation.

A

Question 9

Which of the following statements about the VOR is correct?

Answer 9

A) It depends upon a simultaneous comparison of several phased signals.
B) It depends upon a time difference between signals transmitted from the aircraft to a ground station.
C) It depends upon a phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a ground station.
D) It measures the frequency difference between two signals received from a ground station transmitter.

C

Question 10

What is the minimum reception distance and height for a VOR signal assuming no terrain interference?

Answer 10

A) 100 nm at 7000’
B) 60 nm at 3000’
C) 80 nm at 3000’
D) 40 nm at 1000’

D

Question 11

When flying an aircraft equipped with dual VOR receivers, you may check the accuracy of the sets against each other on the ground or in the air. Which of the following tolerances are correct?

Answer 11

A) +/- 3 deg ground, +/-4 deg air
B) +/- 4 deg ground, +/-4 deg air
C) +/-4 deg ground, +/-6 deg air
D) +/-3 deg ground, +/-6 deg air

B

Question 12

You are passing abeam a VOR station and you note that the CDI is fully deflected, and there is no TO/FROM indication. The reason for this indication is:

Answer 12

A) that the TO/FROM indicator is not serviceable
B) that the VOR station is of the Doppler type and does not provide valid TO/FROM indications unless the aircraft is established on the radial selected
C) that the aircraft is crossing a radial at 90 degrees to the one selected on the OBS
D) that the aircraft VOR set is receiving erroneous signals that have been reflected from the ground or from a nearby object

C

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true with reference to a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)?

Answer 13

A) The RMI bearing indicator always points to the navigation facility and therefore can display magnetic bearing to ADF, VOR, or Localizer transmitters.
B) The VOR/RMI needle head always displays the radial that the aircraft is tracking.
C) If the RMI compass card fails the ADF/RMI will function as fixed card ADF, but the VOR/RMI will continue to function normally.
D) The RMI is an instrument which can provide heading and magnetic bearing information to LF/MF and VHF omnidirectional range facilities.

D

Question 14

Identify from the statements which follow, the one that correctly describes the operating principle of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME):

Answer 14

A) the measurement of the time between the transmission of an aircraft interrogating signal and the receipt of a matched pulse reply signal from a ground station (the two signals having different frequencies)
B) pulse width measurement of coded signals that are transmitted every 37.5 seconds from a DME station
C) measurement of the time that elapses between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation transmitted from a particular DME station
D) the airborne set measures the exact phase of the DME station’s interrogation signal, the value of which undergoes electronic translation into a DME slant range readout

A

Question 15

An ILS localizer provides valid and reliable signal coverage of ___ degrees either side of the front course out to a distance of 10 nm

Answer 15

A) 10
B) 25
C) 35
D) 3-6

C

Question 16

The CDI needle indications from centre to “full scale” for VOR and ILS/Localizers are respectively:

Answer 16

A) 12 deg and 3 deg
B) 10 deg and 2.5 deg
C) 4.0 nm per side and 35 deg
D) There is no minimum tolerance

B

Question 17

An ILS localizer signal is considered to be reliable to approximately 10-degree splay between ____ and ____:

Answer 17

A) 0 and 10 nm
B) 17 and 35 nm
C) 10 and 18 nm
D) 10 and 35 nm

C

Question 18

What is the total depth of an ILS glide path beam?

Answer 18

A) 0.7 deg
B) 1.4 deg
C) 0.5 deg
D) 2.5 deg

B

Question 19

Which of the following statements is true with reference to Single Sideband (SSB) HF radios?

Answer 19

A) SSB radios incorporate a side and carrier wave circuit which is used to obtain better reception of unmodulated AM carrier wave transmissions.
B) SSB radios having long range, high quality and good propagation qualities, pride HF data link capability.
C) SSB transmitters utilize heigh frequency ground wave signals which are least affected by attenuation and bending due to diffraction to allow for ranges of several thousand miles.
D) SSB transmitters eliminate one sideband and and all or most of the carrier wave in order to increase transmission power; the carrier is reinserted by the receiver to reproduce the original message.

D

Question 20

Is it possible to increase the reception range on an HF radio by changing frequencies?

Answer 20

A) No, it will have the same range on all frequencies .
B) Yes, by using higher frequencies at night and lower frequencies during the day.
C) Yes, by using lower frequencies at night and higher frequencies during the day.
D) Yes, higher frequencies have a higher reception range

C

Question 21

SELCAL operates with a single selective call consisting of a combination of four preselected audio tones requiring approximately two seconds transmission time. The tones are generated:

Answer 21

A) in the ground station coder and are received by a decoder in the airborne receiver
B) in the airborne transmitter and received by the ground station decoder
C) in one airborne transmitter and are received by a paired airborne receiver in another aircraft
D) in the ground station coder and are transmitted on all co-located navigation air frequencies.

A

Question 22

Which of the following statements is false with respect to HF radio operations in North Atlantic Airspace (NAT)?

Answer 22

A) Fully functioning HF communication equipment is a requirement for unrestrictive operations.
B) On first voice contact with the Oceanic Communication Centres (OFFs), flight crews are required to request a SELCAL check with the OCCs to verify the operation of the SELCAL equipment.
C) When utilizing CPDLC and SATCOM for routine air/ground ATS communications, HF/SELCAL communication is not required.
D) When tuning an HF radio frequency, a long side tone tuning cycle could indicate a faulty HF radio.

C

Question 23

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the principle of operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)?

Answer 23

A) It depends upon a phase difference between two independently mounted gyroscopic platforms.
B) it requires external references in order to determine aircraft position and velocity.
C) it must utilize a radial and DME distance to determine its initial geographical position.
D) It measures acceleration against time to determine speed and position.

D

Question 24

An INS system is capable of providing:

1. Steering information to the autopilot
2. Ground proximity sensing
3. Runway alignment and glideslope information for precision approaches
4. Aircraft attitude information for flight instruments
5. Antenna stabilization for airborne weather radar
6. Yaw dampening information to the autopilot
7. Horizontal navigation data
8. Control surface actuation

Answer 24

A) 1, 2, 4, 7
B) 1, 4, 5, 7
C) 2, 4, 5, 7
D) 2, 5, 6, 8

B

Question 25

Select the true statement with reference to an Inertial Navigation System (INS)

Answer 25

A) It utilizes highly stable caesium frequency transmissions which are synchronized with up to eight ground stations to provide an accurate position fix.
B) It is a completely self-contained unit which can provide accurate measurement of aircraft position by comparing transmitted and received radio beams utilizing Doppler shift method
C) It utilizes accelerometers, in a gimbal assembly, to sense all vertical and horizontal accelerations to provide position and steering information
D) It calculates the elapsed time between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from the INS transmitter to provide a position readout.

C

Question 26

Inertial Reference Systems…

Answer 26

A) Operate using a strap-down system with ring laser gyros which measure rate of rotation.
B) Use GPS to calculate the aircraft’s position
C) Use a gyro-stabilized platform to ensure that readings from the accelerometers are accurate.
D) Rely on ground-based navigation aids to compute the aircraft’s position

A

Question 27

Select the correct statement with regards to IRS/FMS Systems:

Answer 27

A) The sensor package and navigation solution are contained in a single unit
B) INS systems are a more modern version of the IRS/FMS system
C) The navigation solution is provided by the Flight Management System which is integrated with the IRSs.
D) The sensor package uses 4 gyros and 4 accelerometers on a stable platform to calculate the aircraft’s position

C

Question 28

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the operation of GPS?

Answer 28

A) Position triangulation is provided by measuring distances from satellites by precise timing of radio signals.
B) It measures the phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a satellite.
C) It calculates the elapsed time between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from a particular satellite.
D) It computes the exact phase of the satellite radio signal, the value of which undergoes an electronic translation to provide a position readout.

A

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true with reference to GNSS overlay approaches?

Answer 29

A) GPS overlay approaches may be used for either precision or non-precision type approaches.
B) Ground-based NAVAIDs may be used in conjunction with GPS to establish way points that are not in the GPS database but depicted on the approach plate.
C) The appropriate NAVAID(s) which define the published approach must be operational. The pilot must revert to traditional means of navigation if there are any discrepancies between GPS and the traditional NAVAID(s).
D) Pilot are also allowed to fly a GPS overlay approach when the traditional underlying navigation aid is temporarily out of service.

D

Question 30

A pilot may take credit for a GPS based approach at an alternate airport when which of the following are met?

Answer 30

A) The destination and alternate airports are separated by at least 100 nm if both airports only have GNSS approaches.
B) Published LNAV minima are the lowest landing limits for which credit may be taken when determining alternate weather minima requirements.
C) For GPS units that do not have FDE (fault detection & exclusion), the pilot must fear form a RAIM prediction at least once before the mid-point of the flight to the destination.
D) All of the above

D

Question 31

Without RAIM capability, the pilot of a non-WAAS GPS-equipped:

Answer 31

A) may still navigate IFR for encounter and terminal operations and even fly GPS approaches if the CDI display sensitivity can be manually changed.
B) can execute a GPS stand-alone approach if a DME source is available for position updating at the destination airport.
C) is permitted to continue using GPS as the primary navigation source for IFR flight as long as a baro-input from the aircraft’s altitude encoder is continuously available.
D) will have no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.

D

Question 32

TSO C29(a)-compliant GPS avionics must be capable of automatically increasing the CDI display sensitivity as an aircraft moves closer to the airport during a GPS approach. This ‘stepping-up’ or ‘tightening’ of CDI sensitivity provides for the greater tracking accuracy required during the terminal and approach phases. From the following statements regarding GPS avionics operation during an approach, select those which are correct:

1. When the aircraft reaches 30 nm or less from the destination and an approach for that airport has been loaded into the flight plan, the CDI sensitivity automatically changes from +/- nm to the terminal value of +/- 1 nm (full scale deflection).
2. Manually setting the CDI display sensitivity automatically changes the RAIM sensitivity on all IFR certified GPS devices.
3. At a distance of 2 nm inbound to the final approach if waypoint the CDI display sensitivity begins to transition to the approach value of +/- 0.3 nm and will have achieved this extra sensitivity by the time the aircraft passes the FAF waypoint.
4. When the aircraft arrives at the missed approach waypoint, waypoint sequencing segment is always automatic and directs the pilot to fly to the missed approach holding waypoint.
5. As the aircraft starts to fly the missed approach segment the CDI display sensitivity reverts to the encounter value of +/- 5 nm.
6. If RAIM is not available when crossing the final approach fix waypoint, the pilot must execute the missed approach.

Answer 32

A) 2, 3, 5
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 3, 6
D) 4, 5, 6

C

Question 33

From the following statements that relate to the RAIM component of a TSO C-149 compliant GPS receiver, select the one which is correct:

Answer 33

A) RAIM is able to predict the scheduled removal of satellites from services as well as being able to predict satellite failure.
B) If RAIM is not available prior to crossing the final approach waypoint during an approach, the GPS receiver will not go into the approach “ACTIVE” mode.
C) RAIM function requires continuous input from ground-based NAVAIDs or facilities.
D) The RAIM alert level will automatically change when a pilot manually sets the CDI scale factor (or sensitivity) on any TSO C-129 receiver.

B

Question 34

WAAS-corrected GPS signals offer approximately 5 times greater position accuracy than basic or uncorrected GPS signals. Another true statement related to the use of this satellite-based augmentation system would be:

Answer 34

A) The databases of WAAS-enabled GPS receivers are compatible with those of earlier non-WAAS receivers.
B) WAAS-capable GPS receivers use differential correction signals to improve the accuracy of the position solutions but still rely on RAIM function to provide integrity.
C) WAAS geo satellites provide a ranging signal which improves availability.
D) WAAS-capable receivers are able to predict the availability of LPV approaches at destination airports.

C

Question 35

The statements that follow relate to GPS stand-alone approaches. Identify those that are correct:

1. Stand-alone approach design is usually based on a “T” pattern of waypoints which eliminates the need for a procedure turn.
2. GPS stand-alone approaches are charted as “RNAV (GNSS) RWY XX
3. Pilot verification of GPS stand-alone approaches is not required if they have been retrieved from a current data base supplied by a Transport Canada approved vendor.
4. GPS stand-alone approaches are charted as “(GNSS)” which appears following the runway identification.
5. Stand-alone approach waypoints retrieved from a current data base and inserted into the active flight plan may be deleted and replaced by manually entering the new coordinates for pilot-defined waypoints that facilitate direct routings to the FAF.
6. General aviation pilots do not require a special licence endorsement to qualify them to conduct GPS stand-along approaches.

Answer 35

A) 1, 2 6
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 6
D) 1, 3, 4

A

Question 36

Prior to commencing a GPS-based approach, pilots using TSO C129/129(a) avionics should:

Answer 36

A) Ensure that ATC approval has been received to descend to the equivalent of Category 1 ILS minima.
B) Determine that the avionics will present all of the approach waypoints as Fly-over waypoints.
C) Ensure that the CDI sensitivity is operating in the terminal mode if conducting an overlay approach.
D) Use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that the approach-level RAIM will be supported for the the ETA (+/- 15 min)

D

Question 37

When using a WAAS-certified GPS (TSO C146a) and planning a GPS approach at the alternate, is the pilot required to manually perform a RAIM check in flight?

Answer 37

A) Yes, as well as prior to the flight.
B) Yes, periodically during the flight and at least once prior to the mid-point of the flight to destination.
C) No, a WAAS-certified GPS will complete a RAIM check and self-test automatically.
D) No, unless there is a WAAS NOTAM predicting a satellite outage at the destination.

C

Question 38

A WAAS NOTAM predicts that approach-level RAIM will not be available at your destination. Upon arrival at the aerodrome during the period covered by the NOTAM, you note that approach-level RAIM is available. What are your options for the approach?

Answer 38

A) You may not use any GPS-based approaches as a result of the published NOTAM.
B) You may fly a GPS-based approach at the airport, but only to LNAV minima.
C) You are safely able to use a GPS-based approach.
D) You may only proceed with available GPS overlay approaches and must monitor the underlying NAVAID.

C

Question 39

What requirement must be met if a GNSS approach is planned at both the destination and the alternate aerodrome?

Answer 39

A) The destination and alternate aerodrome must be separated by a minimum of 100 NM.
B) The pilot must use the alternate minima requirements for “No IFR Approach Available”.
C) A GNSS approach cannot be planned at both the destination and the alternate - one aerodrome must have an approach based on traditional NAVAIDs.
D) An additional RAIM check must be completed prior to beginning the descent for the destination.

A

Question 40

Do cold temperatures have any effect on a constant Descent Angle style of non-precision approach?

Answer 40

A) Yes, the approach is steeper in cold temperatures due to a smaller altimeter error over the FAF than at the MDA/DA.
B) No, as long as he appropriate cold temperature corrections are made, there will be no effect on the descent angle.
C) Yes, the approach is shallower in cold temperatures due to the larger altimeter error over the FAF than at the MDA/DA.
D No, cold temperature corrections are not required when using this descent method because the descent angle does not vary with temperature.

C

Question 41

Pick the correct statements with reference to 406 MHz ELTs:

1. 406 MHz ELTs provide position information accurate within a radius of about 2-5 km.
2. 406 MHz is an exclusive, dedicated frequency that cannot be activated by any other type of equipment.
3. 406 MHz ELTs can be tested for a maximum of 5 seconds within the first 5 minutes of every hour just like 121.5 MHz ELTs.
4. One drawback of 406 MHz ELTs is that there are a higher number of false alerts.
5. Users of 406 MHz ELTs should listen on 406 MHz prior to flight to ensure that the ELT is not transmitting.
6. An alert will be sent to the Joint Rescue Coordination only after the switch on the 406 MHz ELT has been selected to the “ON” position for more than 50 seconds.

Answer 41

A) 1, 3, 6
B) 1, 2, 6
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 6

B

Question 42

With regards to Primary (PSR) and Secondary (SSR) Surveillance Radar, which statement is true?

Answer 42

A) PSR requires the aircraft be equipped with a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
B) SSR requires the aircraft be equipped with a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
C) PSR does not require a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
D) SSR does not require a transponder and is incapable of detecting weather.

C

Question 43

A pilot forgets to set 29.92 from 30.22 climbing through FL180 to FL220. After levelling at his assigned altitude, the pilot realizes the problem and then sets 29.92 on the altimeter sub scale. What indication will be seen by the ATS controller monitoring the aircraft’s altitude read-out?

Answer 43

A) an immediate indication of 300’ altitude loss
B) nothing because the subscale is not geared to the encoding altitude read-out
C) an immediate indication of 300’ altitude gain
D) no noticeable indication provided the subscale is moved very slowly

B

Question 44

Which of the following is true with respect to airborne weather radar?

Answer 44

A) drop size determines radar echo intensity to a much greater extent than does drop number.
B) could that is visible to the naked eye will always be displayed on the indicator.
C) drops of frozen precipitation provide stronger radar returns than do drops of liquid precipitation
D) the intensity of radar echoes depends solely upon the number of drops of frozen precipitation present per unit volume of storm cell cloud

A

Question 45

Two characteristic weather radar scope patterns known as “hooks” and “fingers” identify areas of:

Answer 45

A) lightning and heavy static discharge
B) moderate to heavy icing in cloud
C) convergent air flow and ice crystal formation
D) hail and turbulence

D

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true with respect to airborne weather radar?

Answer 46

A) A thunderstorm echo displayed at 90 nm on your aircraft indicator will decrease in intensity as distance is decreased from the antenna.
B) The intensity of a thunderstorm echo displayed at 90 nm on your aircraft indicator would decrease as the distance from the echo increased.
C) As the gain control is adjusted, the radar exam width changes to give greater penetration of target storm cells.
D) A thunderstorm echo will display the same intensity at various distances from the antenna.

B

Question 47

A thunderstorm contouring red on your airborne weather radar set that is estimated to have a radar top over 30, 000’ and displaying a steep gradient should be avoided by at least ____

Answer 47

A) 5 nm
B) 10 nm
C) 20 nm
D) 30 nm

C

Question 48

When a thunderstorm contours on an airborne weather radar indicator, it should be avoided by at least:

Answer 48

A) 5 nm when the aircraft is flying above the freezing level
B) 5 nm when the aircraft is flying below the freezing level
C) 10 nm when the aircraft is flying below the freezing level
D) 10 nm when the aircraft is flying near the tropopause

B

Question 49

An airborne weather radar system is susceptible to a significant reduction in storm cell detection capability known as ATTENUATION. This loss of effectiveness is caused by:

Answer 49

A) antenna side lobe energy reflecting back from the ground to the aircraft.
B) overcompensation by the sensitivity time control circuit when intense storm cells move to within 20 nm of the aircraft.
C) an uneven deposition of rime ice on the radome.
D) the presence of moderate to heavy rainfall areas in the antenna near field range.

D

Question 50

When flying in moderate rain and attempting to locate embedded CB’s the pilot should:

Answer 50

A) use the tilt control “up” to assess the weather above the rain.
B) do nothing because rain attenuated the radar returns.
C) use different range scales
D) use various methods such as reducing the gain for brief periods to identify the most intense areas of precipitation. Selection of the REACT or Contour functions on the radar control unit may also be useful.

D

Question 51

Use of the tilt function on airborne weather radar to provide an indication of a thunderstorm threat can be best accomplished by tilting the antenna beam to scan:

Answer 51

A) the middle/lower area of a CB first
B) the top 5% of a CB
C) upper region of a cell
D) the lower 5% of the CB

A

Question 52

A true statement regarding the main advantage of a Lightning Detection System would be:

Answer 52

A) in addition to detecting lightning, it is able to detect intense precipitation.
B) it provides accurate bearing and distances to lightning strikes.
C) it is able to detect electrical activity associated with a thunderstorm that is located behind a mountain range.
D) turbulence detection is enhanced when compared to normal airborne weather radar equipment.

C

Question 53

ACARS (Aircraft Communications, Addressing and Reporting System) is…

Answer 53

A) A Transport Canada program for reporting communication issues between aircraft and ATC.
B) A digital datalink system used to transmit short, text-based messages between aircraft and ground stations.
C) A VHF communications system for voice transmissions between aircraft and company.
D) A NavCanada system used to broadcast weather information to pilots within certain high traffic areas.

B

Question 54

Select the correct statements with reference to ACARS:

1. It can be used to obtain text-based station and encounter weather.
2. It can be used to obtain graphic weather.
3. It can be used to send and receive messages to and from company.
4. It can be used to obtain an IFR clearance.
5. ACARS can automatically detect and transmit OUT, OFF, ON and IN times.
6. An onboard printer is required for ACARS use.

Answer 54

A) 1, 3, 5, 6
B) 1, 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 5, 6
D) 1, 3, 4, 5

D

Question 55

SATCOM is…

Answer 55

A) Standard Abbreviated Text Communications - aircraft to aircraft text communications system.
B) Satellite Communications - voice and data communications via satellite.
C) Satellite Company Operations Monitoring - company flight watch and tracking via satellite-based position.
D) Satellite Command - satellite-commanded updates to FMS position.

B

Question 56

Aircraft equipped with ADS-B IN capability…

Answer 56

A) No longer require a Mode C or S transponder.
B) Can receive traffic information and upload text and graphic weather.
C) Can use this function to fly WAAS-based approaches.
D) Are not required to make position reports in non-radar airspace, unless specifically requested by ATC.

B

Question 57

Which of the following can ADS-B provide?

1. Position determination using satellite navigation (GPS) for use by ATC as well as other aircraft.
2. Terrain avoidance warning.
3. Teh ability to upload text and graphic weather.
4. Aircraft tracking in areas without radar coverage.
5. Communications between aircraft.
6. Wind shear avoidance warning.

Answer 57

A) 2, 3, 6
B) 1, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4

D

Question 58

Which of the following is NOT true with regards to ADS-B OUT capability?

Answer 58

A) Aircraft data is transmitted once per second.
B) Position information is determined using satellite navigation.
C) It is integrated with TCAS for traffic avoidance.
D) It can serve as an alerting device for downed aircraft.

C

Question 59

ADS-C is defined as:

Answer 59

A) A method of automatically providing position reports to ATC via datalink on FMS position.
B) A collision avoidance system that gives flight crews awareness of surrounding traffic and resolution advisories in the case of a predicted collision.
C) An aircraft tracking system using satellite-based position, which can even be used in non-radar environments.
D) A ground tracking system that determines aircraft position via transponder interrogation.

A

Question 60

Which of the following statements are correct with regards to Multilateration (MLAT)?

1. MLAT uses a system of strategically placed ground stations to send interrogations and receive replies from transponders.
2. MLAT is limited to monitoring ground movements of aircraft ad vehicles.
3. MLAT functions on a principle known as Time Difference of Arrival.
4. MLAT cannot receive replies from Mode A transponders.
5. MLAT calculates the difference in transponder response time at multiple ground receivers and compares the results to determine a position.
6. MLAT can be used to transmit messages from ATC to aircraft and vehicles.

Answer 60

A) 1, 2, 6
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 3, 5
D) 1, 4, 6

C

Question 61

What does TCAS provide?

Answer 61

A) A view of the terrain ahead of the aircraft, and warnings of imminent collision with terrain.
B) A method of navigating directly between waypoints, rather than following airways.
C) A system independent from ATC that notifies the pilot of proximate traffic, and, if properly equipped, instructions to avoid traffic.
D) A method of viewing aircraft systems and malfunctions from a screen in the flight deck.

C

Question 62

How are ACAS/TCAS I and II different?

Answer 62

A) ACAS/TCAS I provides RAs in the vertical plane, while ACAS/TCAS II provides RAs in both the horizontal and vertical planes.
B) Both provide TAs and RAs but ACAS/TCAS II has a wider range.
C) ACAS/TCAS I only provide pilots with TA, while ACAS/TCAS II provides both TAs and RAs.
D) ACAS/TCAS I and II both provide TAs and RAs, but ACAS/TCAS II is integrated with the autopilot so that RAs are followed without any manual maneuvering required.

C

Question 63

What does ACAS/TCAS II provide?

Answer 63

A) RAs in the vertical plane only
B) RAs in both the horizontal and vertical planes
C) RAs in the horizontal plane only
D) TAs only, no resolution guidance is provided

B

Question 64

Which of the following statements is true with reference to TCAS collision avoidance systems?

Answer 64

A) TCAS I processors are able to issue visual and audio advisories for appropriate vertical avoidance manoeuvres, should a possible collision hazard exist.
B) TCAS II processors are able to issue visual and audio advisories for appropriate vertical and horizontal avoidance manoeuvres, should a possible collision hazard exist.
C) TCAS is able to detect any intruding aircraft with or without an operating transponder.
D) TCAS is unable to detect any intruding aircraft that does not have an operating transponder.

D

Question 65

When a TCAS II unit computes data from a Mode C transponder without altitude encoding, the TCAS cockpit indicator will display the intruder’s…

Answer 65

A) range only
B) range and bearing
C) range, bearing, and relative altitude
D) range, bearing, relative altitude and intercept track

B

Question 66

TCAS II or ACAS II (Airborne Collision Avoidance System) operational features are correctly described by which of the following statements?

Answer 66

A) Can provide traffic advisories but cannot generate resolution advisories.
B) Is able to provide both horizontal and vertical place resolution advisories.
C) Consists of a computer unit, a Mode S, cockpit displays and controls and provides both traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane only.
D) Utilizes a sophisticated absolute altimeter when computing the vertical flight paths of intruder aircraft.

C

Question 67

With regards to Pilot/Controller actions in response to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), which of the following is correct?

Answer 67

A) Pilots should only manoeuvre their aircraft in response to a TCAS resolution advisory
B) Pilots shall notify ATC as soon as possible of any decision from an ATC instruction or clearance in response to a TCAS RA.
C) Pilots who deviate from an ATC instruction or clearance in response to a TCAS RA shall promptly return to the terms of that instruction or clearance when the conflict is involved.
D) All of the above

D (okok…it seems to be a scientific fact, in aviation or otherwise, when faced with the question of all of the above or otherwise the answer is always DDDDDDDDDDDD….even if the list is very very long)

Question 68

Which system would affected if the Radio Altimeter Ian aircraft was unserviceable?

Answer 68

A) TCAS
B) GPWS
C) FMS
D) IRS

B

Question 69

The purpose of the Ground Proximity Waring System (GPWS) is to alert flight crews to the existence of unsafe conditions due to terrain proximity. Which of the following is not one of the hazardous conditions identified by a GPWS system during flight?

Answer 69

A) Excessive closure rate with respect to rising terrain.
B) Excessive altitude loss during climb-out (take-off or go-around).
C) Insufficient terrain clearance when not in landing configuration.
D) Excessive deviation below the glide slope in landing configuration.

D

Question 70

A complex Air Data Computer is a unit which senses, evaluates and outputs:

Answer 70

A) quantities associated with altitude, IAS/Mach number, vertical speed, and cabin pressurization.
B) warnings for wrong aircraft configurations.
C) cautions and warnings for aircraft system and subsystem failures.
D) video signals which are sent to EFIS systems and CRTs.

A

Question 71

For a typical GPWS installation, which of the following aural message and visual indication mode is capable of being inhibited while the aircraft is airborne?

Answer 71

A) Excessive descent rate.
B) Excessive speed with respect to rising terrain.
C) Insufficient terrain clearance when not in landing configurations.
D) Excessive deviation below the glide slope in landing configurations.

D

Question 72

An Electronic Flight Information System (EFIS) utilizes cathode ray tubes (CRTs) to electronically display flight information. _________ receive inputs from various aircraft systems, respond to these inputs and changes the data into video signals which are sent to the respective CRTs for display.

Answer 72

A) Attitude heading and reference systems (AHRS)
B) Symbol generator units (SGUs)
C) Digital air data computers
D) EFIS control panels

B

Question 73

An EFIS comparison fault refers to the:

Answer 73

A) EFIS control panels detection of a difference in the captain’s and first officer’s EFIS mode Primary Flight Display (PFD) or Navigation Display (ND).
B) digital air data computers detection of a disagreement between the captain’s and the first officer’s EFIS systems of attitude, air or navigation data.
C) symbol generators detection of of a disagreement between the captain’s and first officer’s EFIS systems in attitude, air or navigation data.
D) attitude heading and reference systems (AHRS) detection of a deviation from the aircraft desired flight path.

C

Question 74

In many aircraft such as the Dash 8, EFIS composite mode display refers to the:

Answer 74

A) selection of the EHSI or ND heading display on an ARC showing 45 deg either side of actual Heading.
B) selection of the standby source for attitude, air or navigation data.
C) selection of the rising runway to aircraft symbol display.
D) combining of EHSI and EADI information onto the remaining CRT following the failure of one the the CRTs.

D

Question 75

What is a Flight Management System used for?

Answer 75

A) To manage the weather radar.
B) To plot the navigation route.
C) To see other traffic and manage TCAS alerts.
D) To view the status of aircraft systems.

B

Question 76

Which of the following components are NOT part of a Flight Management System?

1. Flight management Computer
2. Control Display Unit
3. Radar Altimeter
4. Navigation Sensors (IRS, VOR, ILS etc)
5. Primary Flight Display and Multi Function Display
6. Weather Radar

Answer 76

A) 5, 6
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 5
D) 3, 6

D

Question 77

On Boeing aircraft LNAV and VNAV provide:

Answer 77

A) Lateral and vertical navigation for precision and non-precision approaches.
B) Localizer-based navigation and vertical navigation along the glide slope.
C) Lateral navigation along the flight route in the FMC and vertical navigation along a FMC-computed vertical path.
D) Localizer-based navigation and VOR-based navigation.

C

Question 78

Which of the following types of projection is used in the preparation of Wold Aeronautical Charts?

Answer 78

A) Transverse Mercator
B) Polar Stereographic
C) Lambert Conformal Conic
D) Mercator

C

Question 79

Considering Lambert Conformal Conic, Mercator and Transverse Mercator map projections, any great circle track is or approximates, a straight line on:

Answer 79

A) all projections except the Mercator
B) all projections
C) the Mercator and Transverse Mercator projections only
D) all projections except the Lambert Conformal Conic

A

Question 80

When considering rhumb line tracks and great circle tracks, you should know that:

Answer 80

A) In the Polar regions, a rhumb line track is always the shortest distance between two points.
B) A great circle track has the property of “constant direction”.
C) A rhumb line track cuts each meridian at a different angle.
D) The equator is both a great circle and a rhumb line.

D

Question 81

What is the distance between the following geographic reference points?

N47 54.82 W74 22.6
N46 54.82 W74 22.6

Answer 81

A) 60 NM
B) 90 NM
C) 120 NM
D) It depends on how far north or south any location is from the equator.

A

Question 82

When completing a flight plan form how would you indicate a medium sized aircraft is equipped with TCAS?

Answer 82

A) List the appropriate prefixes in the Type of aircraft box.
B) List TCAS in the other information box.
C) List the appropriate suffix in the equipment box.
D) It is not required to list any equipment.

C

Question 83

A commercial IFR flight is planned with three intermediate stops in controlled airspace. How would this proposed flight be filed?

Answer 83

A) Stopovers may be indicated in the route section provided the stops are not in uncontrolled airspace.
B) An IFR flight plan is required for each flight leg.
C) Only one flight plan is required provided the total flight time including the total time of all the stops is included in the remarks box
D) Only one flight plan is required provided the each intermediate stop is indicated in the route section.

B

Question 84

Which of the following statements about flight planning in Canada is correct?

Answer 84

A) stopovers may not be indicated on a single flight plan
B) when proceeding VFR to a military airfield, a flight plan is not required
C) only IFR flight plans may be filed whenever operating into or within the CADIZ or DEWIZ
D) Flights to the USA are not considered international and do not require an ICAO flight plan

D

Question 85

What type of flight plan is required for an IFR flight between Canada and Mexico?

Answer 85

A) ICAO for all aircraft.
B) ICAO for aircraft in commercial air service.
C) A normal domestic IFR flight plan.
D) A normal domestic IFR flight plan for privately registered aircraft.

A

Question 86

What is the minimum fuel required for a large turbo prop aircraft on a night commercial VFR trip, if the flight time is estimated at 4 hours and 15 minutes or which 25 minutes will be at climb power? (Add 200 lbs for contingencies)

Fuel burns:
585 lb/hr for climb
470 lb/hr for cruise
370 lb/hr for holding

Answer 86

A) 1845 lbs
B) 2245 lbs
C) 2600 lbs
D) 2790 lbs

C

Question 87

A large turbojet aircraft in commercial air service on a 2 hour and 30 minute VFR flight burns 2500 lb/hour for cruise and hold, and 3600 lb/hour in the climb. What is the minimum day VFR fuel requirement if the aircraft took 20 minutes to climb to flight planned altitude?

Answer 87

A) 7850 lbs
B) 8465 lbs
C) 10, 800 lbs
D) 12, 150 lbs

B

Question 88

The following data is related to a flight from Halifax to Santa Maria.

Rhumb Line Track: 104 deg T
Rhumb Line Distance: 2080 NM
Forecast Winds: 240 deg T/60 kts
Four-engined: TAS 470 kts
Three-engined: TAS 390 kts
Safe Fuel: 7 Hrs

Using this data, the distance to the Critical Point (CP) from Halifax is:

Answer 88

A) 864 nm
B) 925 nm
C) 988 nm
D) 1077 nm

B

Question 89

The following data is related to a flight from Halifax to Santa Maria.

Rhumb Line Track: 104 deg T
Rhumb Line Distance: 2080 NM
Forecast Winds: 240 deg T/60 kts
Four-engined: TAS 470 kts
Three-engined: TAS 390 kts
Safe Fuel: 7 Hrs

The time to the Critical Point (CP) from Halifax is:

Answer 89

A) 1 hour and 48 minutes
B) 2 hours and 03 minutes
C) 2 hours and 52 minutes
D) 3 hour and 18 minutes

A

Question 90

What effect will an increase in tailwind component have on the Critical Point (CP) while enroute to Santa Monica?

Answer 90

A) The increased tailwind will have no effect on the distance or time to CP.
B) The distance to the CP will move further from Halifax and the time to CP will increase.
C) The distance to the CP will move closer to Halifax and the time to CP will be less.
D) The distance to the CP will move closer to Halifax but the time to CP will remain the same.

C

Question 91

The following data is related to a flight from Vancouver to Honolulu.

Rhumb Line Track:  224 deg T 
Rhumb Line Distance: 2, 350 nm
Forecast Winds: 260 deg T/65 kts
Four-engined: TAS 460 kts
Three-engined: TAS 380 kts
Safe Fuel: 6.5 hrs

The distance to the Critical Point (CP) from Vancouver is:

Answer 91

A) 1024 nm
B) 1261 nm
C) 1339 nm
D) 1456 nm

C

Question 92

The following data is related to a flight from Vancouver to Honolulu.

Rhumb Line Track:  224 deg T 
Rhumb Line Distance: 2, 350 nm
Forecast Winds: 260 deg T/65 kts
Four-engined: TAS 460 kts
Three-engined: TAS 380 kts
Safe Fuel: 6.5 hrs

The time to Critical Point (CP) from Vancouver:

Answer 92

A) 1 hour and 47 minutes
B) 2 hours and 03 minutes
C) 2 hours and 52 minutes
D) 3 hours and 18 minutes

D

Question 93

The vertical dimensions of the Northern Control Area (NCA), the Arctic Control Area (ACA) and the northern part of the Southern Control Area (SCA) which has been designated CMNPS airspace in which special procedures apply is that airspace from:

Answer 93

A) FL290 to FL350
B) FL180 to FL600
C) FL330 to FL410
D) FL310 to FL450

C

Question 94

Except as required over designated compulsory reporting points or requested by ATC, flights operated in the CMNPS airspace whose tracks are predominantly north or south shall report or fixed reporting lines coincident with each:

Answer 94

A) 15 deg of latitude
B) 10 deg of latitude
C) 5 deg of latitude
D) 3 deg of latitude

C

Question 95

North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) exists over the North Atlantic between:

Answer 95

A) FL180 and FL410
B) FL275 ad FL410
C) FL230 and FL430
D) FL285 and FL420

D

Question 96

Select the statement that is correct with reference to the daily publishing of the North Atlantic NAT Organized Track System (OTS).

Answer 96

A) Westbound daytime tracks are designated by letters starting at the top of the alphabet (ie. A, B, C, D, E, F, G) and are valid from 1130-1900Z.
B) Westbound daytime tracks are designated by letters starting at the bottom of the alphabet (ie. T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z) and are valid from 1130-1900Z.
C) Eastbound nighttime tracks are designated by letters starting at the top of the alphabet (ie. A, B, C, D, E, F, G) and are valid from 0100-0800Z.
D) None of the above.

A

Question 97

Aircraft with which of the following combinations of Navaids would likely gain state approval for operation within the NAT MNPS airspace?

Answer 97

A) Two Inertial Reference Systems/Flight Management Systems (IRS/FMS).
B) Two Global Navigation Satellite Systems certified under TSO C129.
C) One FMS with IRS input.
D) One VOR DME and one IRS/FMS.

A

Question 98

Which of the following is not correct with respect to North Atlantic High Level Airspace flight planning procedures:

Answer 98

A) South of 70 deg N for flights on predominately east-west directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each half or whole degrees of latitude and each 10 deg of longitude.
B) North of 70 deg N for flights on predominantly east-west directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each half or whole degrees of latitude and each 20 degrees of longitude.
C) For flights on predominantly north-south directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each whole degrees of longitude and each 5 degrees of latitude.
D) For flights on predominately north-south directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each whole degrees longitude and each 10 degrees of latitude.

D

Question 99

MACH Number Technique (MNT) is utilized extensively in NAT airspace where by flight crews are cleared by ATC to maintain a Mach Number (ie. M.82) for enroute phases of flight. Which of the following statements about MNT is correct?

Answer 99

A) MNT is used to improve the utilization of airspace along the NAT OTS.
B) The monitoring of longitudinal separation between aircraft are dependent upon flight crews providing accurate times in position reports.
C) When two or more aircraft are utilizing MNT along the same route and at the same flight level, the time interval between the aircraft is likely to remain more constant than when using other methods.
D) All of the above.

D

Question 100

Pilots are encouraged to employ Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures (SLOP) in the North Atlantic Oceanic region to:

Answer 100

A) reduce the risk of collision and wake turbulence encounters
B) avoid convective activity when crews are unable to contact ATC for a clearance
C) allow aircraft to climb or descend on the oceanic tracks
D) assist ATC in identifying aircraft when within radar range

A

Question 101

With regards to SLOP, which of the following is true?

Answer 101

A) Offsets may be applied after oceanic entry points and must be removed before oceanic exit points.
B) SLOP is designed to increase safety margins should another aircraft deviate from it assigned altitude or track.
C) There is no requirement to obtain an ATC clearance when using SLOP and ATC does not need to be advised when returning to the centreline.
D) All of the above.

D

Question 102

In the North Atlantic NAT region, transponder operation is as follows:

Answer 102

A) Flight crews must squawk code 2000 once entering oceanic airspace.
B) Flight crews must maintain last assigned code for 30 minutes after entering oceanic airspace then squawk 2000 unless otherwise advised by ATC.
C) Flight crews must maintain last assigned domestic code unless otherwise advised by ATC.
D) Flight crews must maintain last assigned code until the first waypoint after entering oceanic airspace then squawk code 2000 unless otherwise advised by ATC.

B

Question 103

Which of the following statements about Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures (SLOP) is correct:

Answer 103

A) Crews operating aircraft capable of automatic offsets may fly the centreline or offset 1 or 2 nm to the left or right of centreline.
B) Crews operating aircraft capable of automatic offsets may fly the centreline or offset up to 5 nm to the right of centreline.
C) Crews operating aircraft capable of automatic offsets may fly the centreline or offset 1 or 2 nm to the right of centreline.
D) None of the above.

C

Question 104

Any Canadian Air Operator who intends to conduct flights using twin-engine, turbine-powered aeroplanes outside of the Canadian Domestic Airspace and along routes which traverse large bodies of water or over sparsely populated areas must be familiar with the ETOPS (Extended-range Twin-engine Operations) regulatory requirements. ETOP’s authorization is required as an Operations Specification for an Air Operator who wishes to dispatch a flight along a route containing a point that is farther than what maximum distance or time from an adequate aerodrome (based on engine-out cruise speed)?

Answer 104

A) that distance flown in 60 minutes
B) 60 nm
C) 150 nm
D) that distance flown in 90 min

A

Question 105

What information does a VOLMET include:

Answer 105

A) Forecasts, actual weather and NOTAMS transmitted on selected FSS frequencies.
B) GFAs, TAFs and SIGMETS transmitted on selected FSS VHF frequencies.
C) GFAs, TAFs and METARs transmitted on Oceanic Control Frequencies.
D) TAFs, METARs and SIGMETS transmitted on frequencies found in the CFS.

D