CARS Flashcards
1
Q
A 41-year old airline transport pilot can maintain a Cat 1 Medical Cert by having:
A
A) a medical exam every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.
B) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram every 5 years.
C) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram as clinically indicated.
D) a medical examination every 12 months, and ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.
D
2
Q
A 43-year old pilot flying single-pilot VFR in a commercial operation can maintain a CAT 1 Medical Cert by having:
A
A) a medical exam every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.
B) A medical exam every 12 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram every 5 yers
C) A medical exam every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram as clinically indicated.
D) A medical exam every 12 months, and ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required
A
3
Q
What privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose CAT 1 Medical Certificate expires?
A
A) Commercial Pilot privileges
B) Private Pilot privileges
C) All flying privileges will be immediately suspended
D) Recreation PIlot privileges
B
4
Q
The minimum number of hours of instrument flying experience that must have been acquired by an applicant for the Airline Transport Licence is:
A
A) 25 hrs
B) 100 hrs
C) 75 hrs
D) 50 hrs
C
5
Q
When the Group 1 instrument rating of an ATPL pilot expires, what licence privileges may then be exercised by that individual?
A
A) Private Pilot privileges
B) ATPL Pilot privileges restricted to daytime VFR operations
C) Student Pilot privileges since the ATPL certificate would be revoked
D) Commercial Pilot privileges; no PIC privileges on aeroplanes that have a minimum of 2 crew requirement
D
6
Q
A LARGE aircraft is a term used to describe which of the following:
A
A) an aircraft with a max certificated (I had to google that to make sure it’s an actual word…is bullshit, but apparently a thing) take-off weight of more than 5, 700 kg or 12, 566 lbs
B) a turbine engined aircraft with a max certificated take-off weight of more than 44, 000 lbs
C) an aircraft with a max certificated take-off weight of 15, 000 kg (33, 069 lbs) or more
D) an aircraft with a max certificated take-off weight of 50, 000 lbs or more
A
7
Q
Which of the following would require the PIC to file a mandatory reportable incident with the Transportation Safety Board?
A
A) An airport employee sustains serious injury as a result of being directly exposed to jet blast
B) An unresponsive passenger due to a medical condition requiring approach and landing priority at the destination
C) An aircraft that sustains damage that affects the structural strength of the aircraft
D) A shortage of fuel requiring approach and landing priority at a destination
D
8
Q
How soon after an aircraft accident should the relevant information pertaining to its occurrence be reported to the Transportation Safety Board?
A
A) Within 7 days
B) As soon as possible and by the quickest means of communication available
C) Within 10 days and by telephone
D) Within 24 hours ad either by telephone or by email
B
9
Q
Any aircraft that has been involved in an accident causing death or injury may not be moved or interfered with in any way in order to _____ without first obtaining permission from the Minister. The missing words are:
A
A) remove the Aircraft Journey Log
B) avoid danger to any person or property
C) extricate a person
D) prevent destruction by fire
A
10
Q
Pilots of IFR aircraft operating within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, adjust their transponder to reply on Mode A, Code:
A
A) 1000 and on Mode C
B) 1500 and on Mode C
C) 2000 and on Mode C
D) 3000 and on Mode C
C
11
Q
In a climb to cruise altitude above 12, 500’ ASL on a VFR night, what code(s) would a pilot set on his/her transponder?
A
A) 1200 until the aircraft leaves 12, 500’ ASL in the climb and then to code 1400 for operation above that altitude
B) 1000 until the aircraft climbs above 12, 500’ ASL and then to code 2000
C) 1200 until the aircraft has reached its cruising altitude and then code 1400
D) 1200 until the aircraft reaches 12, 500’ ASL and then to code 1000 for operation above that altitude
A
12
Q
An aircraft that had been using code 7500 on its transponder subsequently changes code to 7700. This sequence of transponder operation would indicate that:
A
A) the aircraft had developed an unrated emergency following the unlawful interference
B) the aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
C) the aircraft is unable to transmit any ETA’s and changes to planned destination following unlawful interference
D) the pilot is making very effort to inform ATC of how serious this hijack situation is by using this code sequence to activate their radar monitor alarm system
B
13
Q
A serviceable transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within:
A
A) the Canadian high level airspace
B) all Class A, B, and C airspace as well as within any Class D or E airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace
C) any controlled low level airspace above 9, 500’ ASL
D) all class B, C, and D airspace and within any active Restricted airspace
B
14
Q
As a measure of enhancing safety, a pilot should adjust the aircraft transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1000, plus Mode C (if available) for which of the following occasions?
A
A) A VFR flight along a low level airway above 12, 500’ ASL
B) An IFR flight that is operating at FL180 or above and for which ATC has not assigned a transponder code
C) A VFR flight that is operating within the Canadian ADIZ
D) An IFR flight along a low level Air Route
D
15
Q
Determination of the appropriate altitude for cruising flight in th Northern Domestic Airspace is based on the aircrafts:
A
A) magnetic heading
B) true heading
C) magnetic track
D) true track
D
16
Q
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is the application 1, 000’ vertical separation at and above FL290 between RVSM certified aircraft operating within designated RVSM airspace. RVSM and RVSM transition airspace is defined as controlled airspace extending from
A
A) FL290 to FL330 for RVSM transition airspace and FL330 to FL420 RVSM airspace.
B) FL290 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.
C) FL230 to FL410 for RVSM transition airspace and FL270 to FL410 RVSM airspace.
D) FL230 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.
(this has got to be an all time record for the amount of times someone can stuff RVSM into a question)
B
17
Q
Prior to entering RVSM airspace pilots are required to ensure which of the following equipment is functioning normally?
A
A) Two separate and independent altimeter systems.
B) One autopilot with an altitude hold function.
C) One altitude alerting device.
D) All of the above
D
18
Q
RVSM-certified aircraft that intend to fly along a High Level Airway between FL290 and FL410 inclusive and with a published track of 265 deg M should be operated at:
A
A) odd flight levels at 4, 000’ intervals
B) even flight levels at 4, 000’ intervals
C) odd flight levels at 2, 000’ intervals
D) even flight levels at 2, 000’ intervals
D
19
Q
Pink elephant brain implosion disclaimer inserted here
The next three RVSM flight levels immediately above FL290 that would be appropriate for the operation of an RVSM-certified aircraft whose track is 180 deg M would be:
A
A) FL300, FL30, FL320
B) FL330, FL370, FL410
C) FL300, FL320, FL340
D) FL310, FL330, FL350
C
20
Q
During climbs or descents in RVSM airspace flight crews should not overshoot or undershoot assigned flight levels by more than ____:
A
A) 50’
B) 150’
C) 200’
D) 3000’
B
21
Q
When ATC has temporarily suspended RVSM within selected non-radar coverage areas due to adverse weather conditions, controllers will then provide for ____ feet of vertical separation for opposite direction traffic and ____ feet of vertical separation for same direction traffic. The missing numbers are, respectively:
A
A) 1, 000’; 2, 000’
B) 2, 000’; 2, 000’
C) 2, 000’; 4, 000’
D) 4, 000’; 2, 000’
C
22
Q
The base of the Arctic Control Area is:
A
A) FL330
B) FL290
C) FL270
D) FL230
C
23
Q
IFR flight only is permitted for aircraft that wish to operate within the Northern Control Area from:
A
A) FL230 and above
B) FL230 to FL600 inclusive
C) FL250 and above
D) FL270 and FL600 inclusive
A
24
Q
Consider an aircraft flying at FL190 that has just exited the northern boundary of the Southern Control area northbound. If the pilot now wishes to climb to and maintain FL220, he/she should:
Darlin, these questions are such absolute bullshit. Absolutely not a single sentence I’ve typed so far, especially in this section, needs to stick in your head for a second past the 16th. So there.
A
A) request the desired flight level change from ATC
B) broadcast the intended change on 122.8 MHz and then make the change
C) inform the nearest Flight Information Centre of the intended change and then climb to FL220
D) broadcast the intended change on 126.7 MHz and then make the change
This shit is all written on the Jepp map you’ve flight planned on, entirely fucking irrelevant. Anyway…
D. D, D, D.
25
What airspace would a northbound aircraft fling at FL260 enter immediately after departing the northern boundary of the Southern Control Area?
A) The Arctic Control Area
B) Uncontrolled high level airspace
C) The Northern Control Area
D) Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Airspace
C
26
In order to increase a VHF/UHF airways basic width of ____ NM, ____ degree splay (diverging) lines are projected from either side of the airway centreline and intersect the basic airway with at boundary at a distance of ____ NM from the navigation facility. The missing numbers are, respectively:
I swear to all that is holy this is not a real thing. Roald Dahl didn’t even know this shit.
A) 4; 5; 50.8
B) 8; 4.5; 50.8
C) 8.68; 5; 49.66
D) 4; 4.5, 49.66
B
27
With reference to T-Routes, select the statement below that is false;
A) They are low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area 8 NM wide
B) They are low-level fixed RNAV routes have a primary obstacle protection area of 6 NM each side of the centre-line
C) The airspace associated with these routes is 10 NM on each side of the side of centre-line
D RNAV-T route airspace and protection areas do not splay
B
28
Which of the following types of controlled airspace that are based in Low Level airspace can extend upwards into the High Level airspace structure?
A) Victor Airways
B) Control Area Extensions
C) Terminal Control Areas
D) Class C control zones associated with Canada’s major airports
C
29
An aircraft would be operating in Class A airspace anytime that it was flying within:
A) any portion of Canadian Controlled High-Level Airspace at FL600 and below
B) all of the Northern DomsticAirspacabov 18, 000’ ASL
C) a Military Terminal Control Area between 12, 500’ ASL and 17, 999’ ASL
D) all of the Canadian Domestic Airspace above FL600
A
30
Which of the following regions would constitute Class B Airspace?
A) That portion of a control area extension above 9, 500’ ASL up to, but not including, 18, 000’ ASL
B) Airspace that underlies the Northern Control Area and extends from 12, 500’ ASL up to, but not including, FL230
C) Transition Areas adjacent to Class C control zones that extend vertically from 700’ ASL up to 2, 200’ ASL
D) Within Low Level Airways above 12, 500’ ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is the higher.
D
31
An example of Class D airspace would be:
A) A Military Flying Area
B) A control zone without an operating control tower.
C) The transition area which underlies the lateral limits of the CMNPS Airspace.
D) A control zone with an operating control tower and whose airspace has not been designated as Class B or Class C.
D
32
All high level controlled airspace above FL600 within the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure has been designated:
A) Class A
B) Class G
C) Class E
D) Class F
C
33
That airspace within a Victor Airway at 12, 500’ ASL and below would be designated as:
A) Class B
B) Class E
C) Class D
D) Class G
B
34
Consider an airport with a Class C control zone. What would be the status of this airport and its control zone airspace classification when the tower is not operating?
A) Controlled airport; Class E airspace
B) Controlled airport; Class D airspace
C) Uncontrolled airspace; Class E airspace
D) Uncontrolled airspace; Class G airspace
C
35
A true statement regarding an active Restricted Area would be:
A) Flight through an active Restricted Area is prohibited at all times.
B) A pilot may fly through an Active Restricted Area provided that either an IFR or DVFR flight plan has been filed for the flight and during that time the aircraft operates within the Restricted Area the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on 121.5 MHz.
C) Aircraft on an IFR flight plan or on an IFR Flight Itinerary will automatically be cleared by ATC to fly through an active Restricted Area.
D
36
With respect to Class F advisory airspace, pilots should know that:
A) an advisory area is a region of positively controlled airspace
B) specific instructions that apply to the use of advisory airspace are detailed in the Planning section of the CFS
C) pilots of activity-participating aircraft within the advisory area, as well as pilots of aircraft flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance
D) IFR aircraft that are transiting an advisory area will always receive ATC vectoring to resolve potential conflicts with any VFR aircraft within the area
C
37
A VFR aircraft has received a SVFR clearance to enter a control zone at night and has been cleared by the tower for a straight in approach to the active runway. Due to the prevailing low ceiling and reduced flight visibility, the pilot is unsure as to the exact location of a TV broadcast antenna in the immediate vicinity. The responsibility for avoiding this obstacle is:
A) assumed by the tower controller who will provide vectors if required
B) shared equally by the tower controller and the pilot
C) assumed by the pilot
D) shared by both the nearest terminal control unit and the tower controller
C
38
If an aircraft is required to cross over an uncontrolled airport to join the circuit, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least _____ above aerodrome elevation (AAE)
A) 500’
B) 1000’
C) 1500’
D) 2000’
C
39
A true statement regarding an ATC clearance would be:
A) A clearance is authorization to proceed under specified conditions within controlled and uncontrolled airspace.
B) A clearance issued to an IFR aircraft is predicated on the movements of all other IFR and VFR aircraft operating within a section of controlled airspace.
C) A clearance is a directive issued to an aircraft by an ATC controller that requires the pilot to take a specific action.
D) Once a pilot supplies a read-back of an ATC clearance, then compliance shall be made with that clearance
D
40
An advisory area charted as CYA134 (P) to 6000’ informs a pilot that:
A) parachuting is conducted in this area up to 6000’ ASL
B) aircraft testing takes place in this area
C) aircraft test activities may be conducted up to, but not including 6000’ AGL
D) this advisory area is located in Ontario (due to its regional identifying number of 134)
A
41
The airspace classification that applies to that portion of a Low-Level Air Route that extends above 12, 500’ ASL up to, but not including, 18, 000’ ASL is:
A) Class G
B) Class B
C) Class E
D) Class D
A
42
You have just departed IFR on a planned flight between two aerodrome in the Standard Pressure Region and are climbing to a cruising level of FL130. You should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92” of Hg):
A) immediately prior to take off
B) after ensuring that all obstacles along the departure track have been cleared by at least 1, 000’
C) just after level off at FL130
D) immediately prior to reaching FL130
D
43
The pilot of an IFR aircraft that has departed from Edmonton International Airport is cleared to climb to and maintain FL270. In this case, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92” of Hg) immediately:
A) after level off at FL270
B) after climbing through 18, 000’ ASL
C) prior to reaching FL270
D) prior to reaching 18, 000’ ASL
B
44
As you near your destination airport, which is located within the Standard Pressure Region, you brief the instrument approach procedure to be used and prepare for initial descent. The correct altimeter-setting procedure you should use for this approach is:
A) Continue with 29.92” (Hg) on the altimeter until crossing the primary approach fix outbound, and then set the altimeter to the current airport setting.
B) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport setting 15 minutes prior to commencing the instrument approach.
C) Change the aircraft altimeter from 29.92” to the current airport setting immediately after intercepting the final approach track inbound during the approach.
D) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport altimeter setting prior to commencing descent with the intention to land.
D
45
When conducting a holding procedure prior to landing at an aerodrome located within the Standard Pressure Region, the plot-in-command of the aircraft shall:
A) set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing immediately after completing the hold entry procedure.
B) not set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the landing aerodrome until departing the holding fix for the purpose of conducting an approach procedure
C) not set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted.
D) set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the landing aerodrome immediately prior to commencing the hold entry procedure.
C
46
Within Designated Mountainous Regions 1 and 5, the minimum IFR altitude to be used by an IFR aircraft that is operating outside of areas for which minimum IFR altitudes have been established is at least:
A) 3, 000’ above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of the aircraft.
B) 2, 000’ above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of the aircraft.
C) 1, 500’ above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of the aircraft.
D) 1, 000’ above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of the aircraft.
B
47
When flight planning over mountainous terrain during the winter months when air temperatures may be much lower than ISA, pilots should select an operating altitude which is at least _____ feet higher than the MEA/MOCA. The missing number is:
A) 2, 500
B) 2, 000
C) 1, 500
D) 1, 000
D
48
As you analyze the weather for a proposed IFR flight, you determine that abnormally high conditions will be present on arrival at the destination aerodrome producing an altimeter setting there os 31.29” (Hg). This aerodrome has an ILS approach with a Decision Height (DH) of 320 (200-3/4). Since you are unable to set the current altimeter setting on the aircraft altimeter, you must apply adjustments to the to the weather requirements (ceiling and visibility) which would now become:
A) 620-2 1/4
B) 500- 1 1/2
C) 800-2 1/2
D) 620-1 3/4
B
49
With respect to VFR flight operations within the Canadian ADIZ, the tolerances for ETA’s, projected ADIZ boundary entry point positions and flight plan rack centreline deviation are:
A) +/- 3 minutes and 20 nm
B) +/- 3 minutes and 10 nm
C) +/- 5 minutes and 20 nm
D) +/- 5 minutes and 10 nm
C
50
What is required in order to operate within the ADIZ?
A) An IFR flight plan or DVFR flight plan.
B) An IFR flight itinerary.
C) A VFR flight plan.
D) None of the above.
A
51
Any aircraft that is not involved in a forest fire control activities should not fly lower than ____ feet AGL when operating closer than ____ nm from the limits of a forest fire area. The missing numbers are, respectively:
A) 5, 000 and 3
B) 1, 500 and 5
C) 2, 000 and 3
D) 3, 000 and 5
D
52
For wake turbulence categorization purposes , the term “Heavy” is used to indicate an aircraft certificated for a maximum take-off weight of:
A) 150, 000 kg or more
B) 200, 000 lbs or more
C) 300, 000 kg or more
D) 300, 000 lbs or more
D
53
ICAO wake turbulence categories use the term “Medium” to indicate an aircraft with a maximum take-off mass of:
A) 7, 001 kg to less than 156, 000 kg.
B) 7, 001 lbs to less than 150, 000 lbs.
C) More than 15, 500 lbs to less than 300, 000 lbs.
D) 12, 500 lbs to less than 300, 000 lbs.
C
54
The radar separation minimum that ATC controllers will apply between a medium aircraft and a preceding IFR super aircraft separated vertically by less than 1, 000’ is:
A) 7 miles
B) 6 miles
C) 5 miles
D) 4 miles
A
55
With respect to the non-radar departure of a light aircraft from the threshold of the same runway as a preceding medium aircraft, what spacing interval will ATC apply?
A) a four-minute interval
B) a three-minute interval
C) a two-minute interval
D) no interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft.
D
56
In Canada no person shall operate an aircraft below 10, 000’ ASL at an indicated airspeed more than 250 KIAS unless:
A) the aircraft is on departure and the final flight plan altitude is above 10, 000’ ASL
B) the crew advises ATC the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special operations certificate.
C) on departure the crew advises ATC of their intent to operate at speeds exceeding 250 KIAS and the reason for this action.
D) the crew requests a free speed.
C
57
Unless otherwise authorized in an air traffic control clearance, the pilot of an aircraft that is operating below 3, 000 feet AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport shall not operate at a speed of more than:
A) 200 kts
B) 230 kts
C) 250 kts
D) 265 kts
A
58
An adjusted speed that has been assigned to an aircraft by an ATC radar controller should be maintained within:
A) +/- 20 kts
B) +/- 15 kts
C) +/- 10 kts
D) +/- 5 kts
C
59
The maximum holding speed for a civil turboprop aircraft at an assigned altitude of 7, 000 feet ASL is:
A) 175 KIAS
B) 200 KIAS
C) 230 KIAS
D) 265 KIAS
C
60
To ensure that an aircraft does not exceed obstacle clearance protected airspace the crew of a civil turbojet aircraft cleared to shuttle climb from 6, 000 ft to 15, 000 ft must not exceed:
A) 230 KIAS until above 14, 000 ASL.
B) the airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts or if no limit is published, 250 KIAS below 10, 000 ASL and 310 KIAS above.
C) 250 KIAS below 10, 000 ASL and 310 KIAS above 10, 000 ASL.
D) 310 KIAS until cleared above 15, 000 ft.
B
61
When a turbojet aircraft is assigned a holding procedure at 6, 000 ASL, the polit must ensure that the holding patten is entered and flown at or below:
A) 150 kts
B) 175 kts
C) 200 kts
D) 230 kts
C
62
The flight crew of turbojet aircraft transitioning from oceanic airspace to Canadian Domestic Airspace with an assigned MACH number may...
A) resume normal speed once being radar identified.
B) must maintain within .01 of the filed MACH number once in domestic airspace.
C) must maintain within .01 of the assigned MACH number until ATC approval is obtained to make the change.
D) None of the above.
C
63
From the statements concerning IFR flight planning which follow, identify the one which is correct:
A) An IFR flight from Montreal to Cancun, Mexico does not require the filing of an ICAO flight plan.
B) A composite flight plan may be filed for an aircraft that will enter American airspace controlled by the FAA.
C) An IFR flight plan will be automatically closed by ATC for an aircraft whose pilot has stated “cancelling IFR”.
D) Intermediate stops may not be included in a single IFR flight plan.
D
64
Consider a flight itinerary that was filed with an FIC and in which no SAR time was specified. The pilot who terminates this flight itinerary shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with the FIC as soon as possible after landing but no later than:
A) 48 hours after landing.
B) 12 hours after the last reported ETA.
C) 24 hours after the last reported ETA.
D) 48 hours after the last reported ETA.
C
65
090249 NOTAMN CYYT ST. JOHN’S INTL ZYT - OUTER COVE NDB 246 U/S TIL APRX 0906101630. With respect to this NOTAM, a correct statement would be:
A) The referenced NDB will be usable at approximately 1630Z on October 6th, 2009.
B) The NOTAM will expire on October 6, 2009.
C) Either a replacing or cancelling NOTAM will be issued regarding the future serviceability of the ZYT NDB.
D) It was issued at 0249Z, June 10, 2009 and operation use of the ZYT NDB will be permitted after 1630Z unless a Replacing NOTAM is issued.
C
66
N0318/19 NOTAM
A) CYOW 1904021115 TIL 1904302110
D) Daily 02-04, 08-12, 16, 22-24, 27, 29 1115-1615
Daily 05-07, 14, 15 19-21, 25, 26, 30 1705-2110
E) CYOW RNAV (GNSS) Z RWY 14 APCH:
LNAV/VNAV MINIMA: NOT AUTH LNAV MINIMA TO READ 760 (409) 1
DIST/ALT TABLE, CONSTANT DESCENT ANGLE AND RATE OF DESCENT
INFORMATION NOT USABLE.
A correct statement regarding the NOTAM above would be:
A) LNAV/VNAV minima would not be authorized April 8 to 12 between 1615Z and 1705Z.
B) The constant descent angle table is not usable for approaches conducted daily between 1115Z to 1615Z and 1705Z to 2110Z April 02 to April 30.
C) For approaches conducted on April 15 after 1615Z are not subject to LNAV minima adjustment to 760 ASL and 1 SM.
D) For approaches conducted on April 26 prior to 1705Z are permitted to utilize charted LNAV minima.
D
67
Consider the situation during which a CF-18 military aircraft assumes a position in front of, and to the left of, your civilian aircraft while in cruising flight and then commences to rock its wings. This visual signal initiated by the military jet means:
A) You are operating in an active Restricted airspace; call the interceptor on 121.5 MHz for instructions.
B) You are to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and phone the Search and Rescue Centre in your region as soon as possible.
C) You have been intercepted.
D) You have been identified as not being hostile and may proceed to your destination aerodrome.
C
68
The “Operator” of an aircraft is:
A) the pilot-in-command.
B) the owner of the aircraft.
C) the person in possession of the aircraft.
D) the lessee of the aircraft.
C
69
No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft;
A) within twelve hours of consuming alcohol.
B) while using over the counter drugs without first getting permission from a civil aviation medical examiner.
C) within eight hours of consuming alcohol.
D) within twelve hours of consuming alcohol and/or cannabis.
A
70
The farthest distance that a land aeroplane may operate from the shore without having to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is:
A) 200 nm
B) 100 nm
C) 50 nm
D) 25 nm
C
71
A Transport Category aeroplane which carries a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is about to operate on a flight over the water. In this case, the maximum distance from a suitable emergency landing site that this aeroplane may fly without having to carry life rafts on board would be the lesser of:
A) 400 nm or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
B) 200 nm or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
C) 100 nm or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
D) 50 nm or the distance that can be covered in 15 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed.
A
72
The dimensions of a Mandatory Frequency Area associated with an aerodrome are published:
A) on the appropriate Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
B) in the applicable FIR General NOTAM summary.
C) on the appropriate VNC or WAC VFR Navigation Charts.
D) in the Canada Flight Supplement.
D
73
An uncontrolled aerodrome has no published MF or ATF. In this case, the common frequency to be used for the broadcast of aircraft position and the intentions of pilots flying in the vicinity of this aerodrome would be:
A) 122.8 MHz
B) 123.2 MHz
C) 126.7 MHz
D) 122.3 MHz
B
74
Aircraft seat belts are required to be worn during flight by:
A) all passengers during take-off and landing only.
B) infant passengers at all times.
C) all passengers at all times.
D) at least one pilot at all times.
D
75
When must crew and passengers wear seatbelts in an aircraft?
A) During taxi, take-off, and landing.
B) Any time any crew member advises it.
C) During take-off and landing, as well as any time the PIC directs it.
D) During take-off and landing, as well as any time there is a thunderstorm within 20 nm.
C
76
A true statement regarding the use of the flight control lock system of an aircraft would be:
A) The aircraft engines cannot be started when this mechanism is engaged.
B) An unmistakeable warning must be provided to the pilot when the flight control lock is engaged.
C) When this mechanism is engaged, it will lock the elevator in the full nose-up position.
D) If this system is installed in an aircraft powered by reciprocating engines, the mixture control can not be adjusted when when the flight control lock is engaged.
B
77
Consider an unpressurized aircraft that is flying at 12, 000 feet ASL. After what period of time should flight crew members breathe from sealed oxygen masks?
A) The entire period of flight above 10, 000 feet ASL.
B) After 30 minutes at a cabin pressure altitude exceeding 10, 000 feet ASL.
C) They are not required to, they are below 13, 000 feet ASL.
D) It is at the discretion of the pilots, if they feel they are becoming hypoxic.
B
78
Consider an unpressurized aircraft that had been flying for one hour and thirty minutes at an altitude of 12, 000 feet ASL. In this case, its two crew members should have been wearing their oxygen masks and using supplemental oxygen for what period of time?
A) 30 minutes
B) 45 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) 90 minutes
C
79
Each person on board the aircraft shall be wearing an O2 mask and using supplemental O2 for the duration of that portion of any flight which takes place at cabin pressure altitudes above:
A) 18, 000 feet ASL
B) 15, 000 feet ASL
C) 13, 000 feet ASL
D) 12, 000 feet ASL
C
80
For any flight that will be operating for more than 30 minutes at cabin pressure altitudes above 10, 000 feet ASL but not exceeding 13, 000 feet ASL, the required minimum number of O2 masks (and O2 supply) that must be available when 20 passengers are carried would be:
A) 20
B) 10
C) 5
D) 2
D
81
When does an aircraft operated in a commuter operation require a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder?
A) It is required by any multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft seating 6 or more passengers and requiring 2 pilots.
B) Any time passengers are carried, including any employees of the operation other than the pilots.
C) At all times, unless there is an MEL.
D) Any time the flight data recorder is not operational, for a maximum of 90 days.
A
82
Which commuter aircraft are required to have a functioning FDR?
A) All aircraft.
B) All aircraft carrying passengers.
C) At all times, unless there is an MEL.
D) It is required by any aircraft with a seating capacity of 10 or more, and manufactured after October 11, 1991.
D
83
A multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane that was manufactured after October 11th, 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 crew is required by the type certificate, must have which of the following types of equipment aboard?
A) Flight Data Recorder only.
B) Cockpit Voice Recorder only.
C) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder.
D) Flight Data Recorder and Enhanced GPWS.
C
84
For those aircraft which are required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder on board, it must be operated continuously from:
A) the time at which electrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight.
B) the commencement of the take-off roll to the completion of the landing roll.
C) the beginning of the start checklist to the completion of the shutdown checklist.
D) engine start-up to clearing the landing runway at the destination.
A
85
Consider an aircraft with no approved Minimum Equipment List and which is required to have functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and a functioning Flight Data Recorder (FDR) on board. If the CVR is unserviceable, this aircraft may:
A) only be flown back to its maintenance base via a direct route.
B) be flown for a maximum period of 90 days provided the FDR remains serviceable.
C) not be flown with passengers aboard until it is repaired.
D) not be flown until a flight permit has been obtained.
B
86
When the Altitude Alerting System of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, which requires such a device board, is unserviceable, what type of flights are permitted if no MEL has been approved for this aircraft?
A) only flights that will operate in the low level airspace structure.
B) only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights.
C) any flight that is restricted to day VFR conditions.
D) only flight crew training flights.
B
87
When can you test a 406 MHz ELT?
A) Tests shall only be conducted during the first 5 minutes of any UTC hour.
B) Test durations shall not exceed 5 seconds.
C) They should only be tested in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions.
D) a and b
C
88
What aircraft are required to have a Standby Attitude Indicator?
A) Any large aircraft.
B) Any aircraft operated under an air operator certificates issued under Part VII of the CARs.
C) Any transport category aircraft in commercial air service.
D) Any aircraft flying at night.
C
89
A Third Attitude Indicator that is powered from a source independent of the aircraft’s electrical generating system must be aboard:
A) any large aeroplane powered by reciprocating engines.
B) any turbine-powered aeroplane that operates above FL250.
C) any large turbo-jet-powered aeroplane or any turbine-powered Transport Category aeroplane operated by an air carrier.
D) any turbine-powered aeroplane used in Commercial Air Service operations.
C
90
When a Third Attitude Indicator is required to be aboard an aircraft, it must:
A) be able to provide pitch and roll signals to an autopilot.
B) provide a pitch and roll references within the 5 second period immediately following the failure of the aircraft’s electrical generating system.
C) have a fast-erect mechanism which will provide an audio warning why its gyro has reached its normal operating speed.
D) provide a minimum of 30 minutes reliable operation following the failure of the aircraft’s electrical generating system.
D
91
The requirement to have a functioning GPWS aboard a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane that is involved in either Commuter or Airline operations commences at what MCTOW and authorized passenger configuration?
A) More than 5, 700 kg (12, 566 lbs); more than 6 passengers.
B) More than 8, 618 kg (19, 000 lbs); more than 9 passengers.
C) More than 15, 000 kg (33, 069 lbs); 10 or more passengers.
D) More than 15, 000 kg (33, 069 lbs); 20 or more passengers.
C
92
Identify the correct statement with respect to the completion of aircraft tasks by a pilot that are identified as Elementary Work:
A) The pilot is required to sign a maintenance release prior to the next flight.
B) The pilot should make signed entries in both a Aircraft Technical Log and the Aircraft Journey Log detailing the tasks completed.
C) An authorized person must sign a maintenance release before a flight in that aircraft is undertaken.
D) The pilot shall make an entry in the Aircraft Journey Log detailing the completed tasks and accompany this entry with his/her signature.
D
93
The movement area of an aerodrome includes:
A) the maneuvering area plus aprons.
B) only the taxiways and the ramp areas.
C) all runways and taxiways but excludes any aprons.
D) only the apron and any ramp surfaces used for engine run-ups.
A
94
The Touchdown Zone of the landing runway comprises whichever is the lesser of:
A) the first 3, 500 feet or the first one-half of the runway.
B) the first 3, 000 feet or the first third of the runway.
C) the first 2, 000 feet or the first one-quarter of the runway.
D) the first 1, 000 feet or the first one-fifth of the runway.
B
95
The simultaneous use of intersecting runways known as land and hold short operations (LAHSO) may be carried out under certain conditions. One of these would be:
A) A pilot who has accepted the hold short clearance must remain 200 feet short of the closest edge of the runway being intersected.
B) A tailwind of 10 kts or less for either dry or a wet runway is acceptable for normal LAHSO.
C) The weather minima of a 1, 500 foot ceiling and a visibility of 5 statute miles are required.
D) Only those runways with average coefficients of friction above 0.45 will be approved for wet runway LAHSO.
A
96
What is the definition of an Infant?
A) A baby weighing less than 10 kg (22 lbs).
B) A baby who is less than two years old.
C) A baby who is less than 4 years old.
D) A baby weighing less than 14 kg (31 lbs).
B
97
What is the recommended practice to restrain an infant?
A) The infant should occupy an individual seat, with the restraint system securely fastened.
B) The infant should be held securely in another passenger’s arms, with a restraint system securely fastened around both passengers.
C) The infant should sit on the lap of another passenger, with the restraint system securely fastened around both passengers.
D) A passenger shall securely fasten the restraint system around themselves and hold the infant securely in their arms.
D
98
You are the owner of a foreign-manufactured aircraft that is now registered in Canada. If that foreign manufacturer issues an Airworthiness Directive (AD) applicable to your aircraft type, you would know that:
A) Your compliance with the AD would not be required until it had been published in the “Index of Airworthiness Directives Applicable in Canada”.
B) An exemption for compliance with any AD issued by a foreign government can always be obtained from the nearest TC Maintenance and Manufacturing office.
C) Even if compliance with a foreign AD is not met, the Certificate of Airworthiness for your aircraft will continue to remain in force until its next Annual Inspection.
D) You, the aircraft owner, must ensure that compliance with the AD is met.
D
99
The number of entries from the previous Journey Log to be carried forward to become the first entries of a new Journey Log would be:
A) a sufficient number of relevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity.
B) the last 5 entries.
C) the number of consecutive entries required to include the last maintenance action performed on the aircraft.
D) the last page of entries.
A
100
Which of the items or statements listed below are regulatory requirements for the operation of a single-engine aeroplane aeroplane in an Air Taxi VFR night flight carrying passengers?
1. The aeroplane must be factory built and turbine powered.
2. Two ATPL-licenced pilots on board.
3. A radar altimeter.
4. the aeroplane must operate at least 1500 feet above all obstacles within 5 nm of the aeroplane.
5. Two independent power generating sources.
6. A maximum of 12 passengers may be carried.
7. This type of operation must be authorized in the Air Operator Certificate of the operator.
8. A functioning landing light.
A) 1, 2, 5, 6, 8
B) 2, 3, 4, 7, 8
C) 1, 3, 4, 6, 7
D) 1, 3, 5, 7, 8
D
101
The normal 30 calendar day flight time limitations for a pilot working in 704 operations is:
A) 150 hours
B) 120 hours
C) 110 hours
D) 90 hours
Previous regs B
New regs 112 hours in 28 days
102
The flight time of a flight crew member shall not exceed _____ hours in any 30 consecutive days, ____ hours in any 90 consecutive days, and ____ hours in any 365 consecutive days.
A) 120, 300, 1200
B) 100, 200, 1000
C) 150, 400, 1200
D) 90, 250, 1000
Old regs A
New regs 112 hours in 28 consecutive days, 300 in 90 consecutive days, 1000 hours in 365 consecutive days.
103
What is the definition of “Flight Duty Time” for Airline operations?
A) The time from when a fight crew member reports for duty until “engines off” at the end of the final flight.
B) The time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.
C) The time from when a flight crew member reports for a flight until 15 minutes after “engines off” at the end of the final flight, including the time required to complete any duties.
D) The time from when a flight crew member reports for duty until when they are finished all duties.
C
104
What is the normal flight duty day time limitation for two crew in commercial operations?
A) 10 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 14 hours
D) 15 hours
Old regs C
New regs Maximum 9-13 hours - based on start time of day/sectors flown
105
With respect to Flight Duty Time extensions, who is permitted to extend the Flight Duty Day beyond the normal 14 hour maximum?
A) The Operations Manager after consulting with the operating flight crew.
B) The Pilot-In-Command, after consulting with the other flight crew members, considers it safe.
C) The Chief Pilot, consulting with the operating flight crew.
D) The Duty Dispatcher.
B
106
The flight crew in 705 Airline Operation due to unforeseen operation circumstances may...
A) extend their flight duty time by 1 hour if the flight is augmented by one crew member occupying the flight deck observer seat.
B) not extend the 40 hours in 7 day flight time restriction.
C) exceed the 40 hours in 7 day flight time restrictions by up to 3 hours.
D) extend their flight duty time by 2 hours on a flight that is augmented by one crew member where the relief facility is a passenger seat.
Old regs C
New regs there is no 7 day limit
107
If a duty period includes a rest period, the duty time may be extended beyond the maximum duty time by ______, up to a maximum of ______ hours.
A) One half of the length of the rest period, 3
B) One half of the length of the rest period, 2
C) The length of the rest period, 3
D) The length of the rest period, 2
Old regs A
New regs?
108
A correct statement concerning the requirements for “Time Free From Duty” for flight crew members involved in Commuter operations is:
A) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with one period of at least 24 consecutive hours free from duty within the 7 consecutive days or one period of at least 3 consecutive calendar days free from duty.
B) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with one period of at least 36 consecutive hours free from duty within each 7 consecutive days or one period of at least 3 calendar days free from duty within each 17 consecutive days.
C) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with one period of at least 24 consecutive hours free from duty 13 times within 90 consecutive days and 3 times within each 30 consecutive days.
D) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with at least 24 consecutive hours free from duty following 3 consecutive duty days that exceed 10 consecutive hours.
Old regs B
New regs?
109
A Type C Operational Control System is required in commuter operations operating under which of the following conditions?
A) IFR
B) VFR at night using aeroplanes seating 10 to 19 passengers.
C) VFR at night using turbojet aeroplanes seating 19 or less passengers.
D) All of the above.
D
110
What are the minimum IFR fuel requirements for a propeller driven aircraft in a commuter operation?
A) Fuel to fly to the destination and land, plus 45 minutes.
B) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for and foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
C) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 30 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for and foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
D) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and conduct a missed approach, fly to the alternate and conduct a missed approach, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for and foreseeable delays and conditions.
B
111
What are the minimum IFR fuel requirements for a Turbojet aircraft in Commuter operations?
A) Fuel to fly to the destination and land, plus 30 minutes.
B) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 30 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for and foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
C) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and land, then fly for 20 minutes, as well as fuel for and foreseeable delays and conditions and to descend along the route and divert to a suitable diversion aerodrome and hold.
D) Fuel to fly to the destination, conduct an approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate and conduct a missed approach, then fly for 45 minutes, as well as sufficient fuel for and foreseeable delays and conditions.
B
112
Which of the following statements is true with regards to “Briefing of Passengers” in a Commuter Operation?
A) Safety briefings consist of a demonstration of all doors and emergency exits and the location of the safety features card.
B) Safety briefings are only required in the event of an emergency, time and circumstances permitting.
C) The PIC or his/her designate shall ensure that passengers with physical, sensory or comprehension limitations are given individual safety briefings.
D) Safety briefings consist of fastening of seatbelts, stowage of carry-on baggage and the location of emergency exits.
C
113
In a Commuter Operation, and aircraft that has more than 9 seats passengers is prohibited from taking off when the weather conditions are at or above take-off minima but below landing minima for the runway to be used except...
A) When the weather for another suitable runway at the airport is at or above landing minima.
B) An alternate aerodrome has been specified on the IFR flight plan and the aerodrome is located within 90 minutes at one-engine inoperative speed.
C) An alternate aerodrome has been specified on the IFR flight plan and the aerodrome is located within 120 minutes at one-engine inoperative speed.
D) An alternate aerodrome has been specified on the IFR flight plan and the aerodrome is located within 60 minutes at the normal cruise speed.
A
114
Which of the following statements listed below are regulatory requirements to conduct a RVR 1200 feet (1/4 mile) visibility take-off in a turbine-powered twin-engined aeroplane flown in a Commuter operation with more than 9 passengers?
1. The captain and first officer attitude instruments on the aircraft shall incorporate pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments above and below zero pitch reference lines to at least 15 deg.
2. The captain and first officer must have received initial and recurrent RVR 1200 feet (1/4 mile) training if the captain and first officer are authorized to conduct Lowe than standard visibility take-offs.
3. The runway is equipped with all of the following: serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights, runway centre line lights and centre line markings that are plainly visible to the captain through the take off run.
4. The runway has at least two runway visual range sensors, one situated at the approach end and one situated at the midpoint reading not less than 1200 RVR.
5. The runway is equipped with at least one of the following: serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights or runway centre lights or with runway centre line lights or with runway centre line markings that are plainly visible to the captain throughout the take-off run.
6. The captain shall have at least 200 hours of pilot-in-command time on the aeroplane type.
7. A take-off alternate aerodrome is specified in the IFR flight plan that is located within a distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at normal cruise speed.
8. A take-off alternate aerodrome is specified in the IFR flight plan that is located within a distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
A) 1, 2, 4, 6
B) 1, 2, 5, 8
C) 1, 3, 6, 7
D) 2, 4, 6, 8
B
115
A flight crew in a 704 Commuter operation with 10 or more passenger seats may operate an aircraft without a functioning Class A TAWS with terrain display under which of the following?
A) The aircraft is operated in day VFR only.
B) The aircraft is operated within three days after the failure occurs if the aircraft does not have a MEL.
C) For safety reasons, it is necessary to deactivate the TAWS or any of its modes provided it is done in accordance with the Flight Crew Operation Manual and the MEL.
D) All of the above.
D
116
A flight crew in a 704 Commuter operation with 10 or more passenger seats may operate as an aircraft without a functioning Class A TAWS with a terrain display under which of the following?
A) The aircraft is operated in day VFR only.
B) The aircraft is operated within three days after the failure occurs if the aircraft does not have a MEL.
C) For safety reasons, it is necessary to deactivate the TAWS or any of its modes provided it is done in accordance with the Flight Crew Operations Manual and the MEL.
D) All of the above.
D
117
Which of the following statements listed below are regulatory requirements for a person to continue to act as a flight crew member in a 704 Operation?
1. The pilot-in-command must complete the air operator’s flight training program semi-annually.
2. Each crew member must complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) annually.
3. Each pilot must complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) semi-annually.
4. In the preceding 90 days each pilot must have completed three take-offs & landings.
5. Each pilot must complete the air operator’s ground and flight program annually.
6. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers in VFR at night is required to have at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC.
7. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers in IFR flight is required to have at least 1, 200 hours of flight time as a pilot.
8. Each pilot must have completed three take-offs and landings plus one sector in the preceding 90 days.
8. Each pilot must have completed three take-of
A) 2, 4, 5, 7
B) 1, 2, 5, 8
C) 1, 3, 6, 7
D) 2, 3, 6, 8
A
118
Which of the following statements is true with regard to Line Indoctrination Training for pilots initial training on a turbo-prop aircraft in a Commuter operation?
A) Training shall be conducted over parts of the operator’s route structure.
B) Each pilot shall complete 20 hour of flying and 4 sectors, 2 as pilot flying and 2 a pilot monitoring.
C) A sector is considered a flight with a take-off, departure, arrival and landing with an enroute segment of at least 50 nm.
D) All of the above.
D
119
In an Airline Operation what does “co-authority dispatch” mean?
A) The equal authority between the PIC and dispatcher for decisions regarding take-off profiles.
B) The shared authority between the PIC and dispatcher for decisions regarding the operational flight plan prior to acceptance by the PIC.
C) The shared authority between the PIC and SIC for decisions regarding the dispatch of a flight.
D) The shared authority between the PIC and flight attendants regarding the decision for a flight to dispatch.
B
120
Unless otherwise authorized, when an aeroplane in Airline Operations conducts a IFR flight, in addition to. Sufficient fuel for taxiing, and foreseeable delays that could delay that could delay landing, it must carry sufficient fuel to fly to:
A) its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome, conduct an approach and a missed approach and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at 1500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
B) its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome, conduct an approach and a missed approach and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes at 1500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
C) its destination, then to an alternate aerodrome and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
D) its destination, then to an alternate, conduct an approach and a missed approach, thereafter for a period of 45 minutes at 1500 feet above aerodrome elevation and an enroute fuel reserve of 5%.
A
121
In an Airline Operation, what is the standard maximum distance that a twin-engine aeroplane may be flown from an adequate aerodrome on an international flight?
A) 200 NM or 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed, whichever is the lesser.
B) 300 NM or 45 minutes at normal cruise speed, whichever is lesser.
C) 30 minutes at single engine cruise speed.
D) 60 minutes at single engine cruise speed.
D
122
With regards to “Crew Member Briefings” select the statement below that is false.
A) The PIC shall ensure prior to each flight or series of flights a pre-flight briefing is given to all crew members, including flight attendants.
B) A pre-flight briefing shall cover anticipated weather and flying conditions, flight time and altitudes.
C) The PIC is required to review selected communication, emergency, safety and security procedures.
D) A review of selected communications, emergency, safety and security procedures is also required along with any additional information necessary for the flight
C
123
An aircraft involved in an Airline operations carrying passengers in IMC with weather reports for thunderstorms must be equipped with which of the following?
A) A stormscope.
B) A weather radar.
C) ADS-B in with weather services.
D) Datalink weather radar uploads.
B
124
Airline Operations require flight crew members who are on flight deck deputy to remain at their respective stations with their seat belt and shoulder harness fastened below:
A) 18, 000 feet ASL
B) 12, 500 feet ASL
C) 10, 000 feet ASL
D) 3, 500 feet ASL
C
125
For a person to continue to act as a second in command in an Airline Operation they must: (Select the correct statements from below)
1. Complete the air operator’s flight training program semi-annually.
2. Complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) annually.
3. Complete a Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) semi-annually.
4. Each crew member must complete the air operator’s flight training program annually.
5. Must complete three take-off and landings plus one sector within the proceeding 90 days.
6. Each crew member must complete the air operator’s flight training program annually.
7. Must complete a route check semi-annually with an approved check pilot to maintain route/aerodrome qualification.
8. Complete a line check annually with an approved check pilot demonstrating their ability to operate the airplane over a typical route.
A) 1, 2, 5, 7
B) 2, 4, 6, 7
C) 1, 3, 5, 8
D) 2, 3, 6, 8
C
126
In an airline operation the consolidation period refers to:
A) Crew pairing restrictions applied with relation to the combined experience of the PIC and SIC new to an aircraft type.
B) The time requirement for crew members to complete line-indoctrination training after complete ins a PPC.
C) When a PPC, line check, or training is renewed within the last 90 days of its validity period.
D) The 90-day requirement for all annual training events flight crew members required to complete.
A
127
What are pilot’s currency requirements for carrying passengers at night?
A) 5 take-offs and landings within the preceding 6 months.
B) 3 take-offs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
C) 3 night take-offs and landings within the preceding 90 days.
D) 5 night take-offs and landings within the preceding 6 months.
D
128
When and how often must pilots receive Hight Altitude training?
A) When operating an aeroplane above 13, 000 feet ASL, annually.
B) When operating an aeroplane above 10, 000 feet ASL, before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter.
C) When operating an aeroplane above 13, 000 feet ASL, before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter.
D) When operating an aeroplane above 10, 000 ASL , annually.
C
129
The subject areas that should be included in High Altitude Training for flight crew members are:
A) Respiration, hypoxia, the duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental O2, gas expansion and gas bubble formation.
B) Hypoxia, hyperventilation, barotrauma, high altitude-related vision problems and nutrition.
C) Oxygen deprivation, nitrogen bubble formation, within body tissues, vision problems associated with reduced oxygen partial pressure, explosive decompression and high altitude aerodynamics.
D) Respiratory problems associated with the use of supplementary oxygen, Dalton Law of Partial Pressures, embolic events, barotrauma, the Valsalva technique and nutrition.
A
130
At the completion of each Initial Ground Training phase provided by an Air Carrier, the proficiency for each pilot shall be determined by:
A) a flight test.
B) a simulator test.
C) a written test.
D) an oral test.
C
131
The validity period for a Transportation of Dangerous Goods (TDG) Training Certificate, after its date of issuance, is:
A) 36 months
B) 24 months
C) 18 months
D) 12 months
B
132
You are conducting the ILS RWY 14 into Halifax Intl, NS (CYHZ) via TETAR. After passing IMANO, the tower informs you that the current RVR is 1000. Which of the following statements is correct. (NOte: as previously mentioned, the operator does have an Ops Spec for approach minima).
A) If the ground visibility is reported as 1/4 SM or greater, then the RVR does not matter for this approach.
B) The approach may be continued to either a landing or missed approach.
C) A missed approach must be initiated because the RVR value is below the minimum RVR as per the approach ban.
D) You have already passed the FAF and can continue the approach to a landing unless the TOWER states “Unable to Issue Clearance”.
B
