Flight Operations Flashcards
One of the main advantages of the axial flow compressor type of gas turbine engine as compared to the centrifugal type is:
A) comparatively small frontal area of the compressor
B) lower weight
C) increased efficiency over a wider RPM range
D) ease of manuacture
A
That section of a turbine engine which extracts energy from the expanding high velocity combustion gases to drive the compressor section(s) and fan (or propeller) is the:
A) diffuser section
B) turbine section
C) booster fan section
D) accessory drive section
B
That component of a gas turbine engine which is located at the outlet side of a centrifugal compressor and whose function is to convert high velocity airflow into high pressure airflow for delivery to the combustion section is known as the:
A) booster fan section
B) convergent delivery duct
C) planetary drive section
D) diffuser section
D
The majority of the energy produced in the burner section of a turbojet engine is used for?
A) Engine Thrust
B) Hot Bleed Air
C) Running the engine compressor
D) Engine noise
C
In a turbo-fan engine, why is bypassed air more efficient at creating engine thrust?
A) Cooler bypassed air is more dense than hot exhaust air, therefore containing more energy
B) The burned fuel mixed with the core air does not produce usable thrust
C) It is not more efficient, the benefit to bypassed air is a reduction in noise
D) Since bypassed air is not used to rotate the compressor section of the engine it can produce more forward thrust
A
Engine N1 and N2 gauges are an indication of what?
A) The rotation rate of the compressor and turbine sections respectively, expressed as a percentage
B) Alternative ways of displaying Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) on digital EFIS displays
C) Percentage of thrust the engine is producing (N1) as compared to what it should be producing (N2)
D) The rotation rate of the low and high pressure compressors respectively, expressed as a percentage
D
When starting a gas turbine engine the two primary gauges to observe are:
A) the low pressure compressor and the exhaust gas temperature
B) the propeller RPM and the exhaust gas temperature
C) the high pressure compressor and internal turbine temperature
D) the compressor turbine and the free turbine
C
The relationship between the mass flow of cold air through the fan to the mass flow of the hot air through the turbine is known as the:
A) recovery ratio
B) bypass ratio
C) power extraction ratio
D) engine pressure ratio
B
What provides the rotational energy for an axial flow compressor in a turbojet engine?
A) The low pressure compressor obtains energy from the high pressure compressor which has a higher rotation rate
B) Electrical energy produced from a generator attached to the constant speed drive
C) The engine turbine using bleed air transferred through high stage bleed ducts
D) The engine turbine using energy from hot exhaust gases exiting the engine’s burner section
D
What occurs in the burner section of a gas turbine?
A) Fuel is mixed with compressed air then ignited to create the energy needed to run the engine
B) The fuel/air mixture which enters the burner is ignited to create the energy needed to run the engine
C) Excess fuel not used to produce thrust is collected here and ignited in order to run the engine’s compressor
D) Fuel is mixed with air and ignited before moving through the engine compressor and turbine
A
EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) is correctly defined as:
A) the ratio of turbine discharge total pressure to the total pressure at the compressor inlet
B) the ratio of engine compressor discharge pressure to the engine inlet total pressure
C) the ratio of turbine inlet pressure to turbine discharge pressure
D) the ratio of fan section airflow to basic engine airflow
A
Compressor stall is caused by:
A) the fuel control unit scheduling an inadequate fuel flow to the primary fuel nozzles
B) below normal internal temperatures at the power turbine section
C) excessive angle of attack on the compressor blades
D) stator blades waypoint when the engine is operating at a high EPR setting
C
In identifying a compressor stall condition, which of the following would be the predominant symptoms?
1) loud explosive bangs
2) high oil temperature
3) lower EGT or ITT readings
4) Lower Torque or N1 readings
5) higher than normal fuel
6) higher compressor readings flow
7) higher EGT or ITT readings
8) engine surging
A) 1, 4, 7, 8
B) 1, 3, 5, 8
C) 3, 4, 6, 8
D) 2, 4, 6, 7
A
The purpose of a compressor bleed valve in a gas turbine engine is to:
A) provide hot air for anti-ice purposes
B) maintain a constant pressure across compressor and turbine sections of the engine
C) regulate gas generator RPM during rapid acceleration fo the engine
D) reduce the possibility of a compressor stall
D
The stationary blade-type airfoil devices that are installed between each compressor stage in order to direct the airflow into succeeding stages at the optimum angle in an axial flow compressor are known as:
A) cascade vanes
B) stators
C) impeller blades
D) diffuser blades
B
A “hung” or false start of a gas turbine engine is one in which:
A) the engine lights up, but the exhaust has temperature exceeds the allowable limit for an engine start
B) the engine lights up normally, but the RPM, rather than increasing to idling speed, remains at some lower speed
C) too high a fuel flow was scheduled before the engine attained self-accelerating speed
D) the engine shaft bows preventing rotation of the compressors
B
Which of the following statements is true with reference to an engine hot start?
A) The engine lights up normally, but the RPM, rather than increasing to that of idle speed, remains at some lower value
B) The engine lights up normally however the exhaust gas temperature readings are higher than a normal start
C) During the start the internal turbine temperatures exceed the maximum allowable limit potentially causing damage do internal engine components
D) During the start the exhaust gas temperature exceeds the maximum allowable limit potentially causing damage to the engine cowlings and tail pipe
C
When air is extracted from the compressor section for service functions such as air conditioning or anti-icing, then:
A) thrust will decrease and turbine temperature will decrease
B) thrust will increase due to increased combustion chamber efficiency
C) thrust will decrease and turbine temperature will increase
D) thrust will increase and exhaust gas temperature will decrease
C
Which of the following statements is true with reference to thrust reverser on turbofan engines?
A) Clamshell type reversers are mounted around the engine exhaust duct and can only re-direct the hot gases exiting fro the hot section forward
B) Target type reversers utilize target doors and turning vanes to redirect both hot and cold thrust forward
C) On Cascade type reversers, blocker doors seal off the fan exit as a sleeve moves to expose the cascade vanes
D) Variable Fan reversers adjust the pitch of the fan blades to re-direct the fan air forward.
C
On a low-bypass turbofan engine, how much of the engine thrust is reversed when clamshell type engine reversers are deployed on landing?
A) 100%
B) Between 50% to 75% depending on aircraft design
C) The effectiveness of reverse thrust is dependent on aircraft velocity
D) There will always be some forward thrust produced with engine reversers deployed
A
On large turbofan engines reverse thrust is accomplished by which of the following?
A) Reverse thrust is accomplished by pivoting a number of target type blocker doors to deflect the fan airstream.
B) Target doors which are mounted on the rear section of the engine nacelle open to form a clamshell behind the engine diverting fan and hot exhaust air forward.
C) A translating sleeve moves rearward to move the blocker doors in to position and expose the cascade vanes. The blocker doors divert the fan air through the cascades accomplishing reverse thrust.
D) Both A and C
D
During “BETA” operation in a turbo-prop aircraft, power lever position
A) schedules the operation of the constant speed unit
B) controls both blade angle and fuel flow (Beta plus power range)
C) determines the amount of negative torque signal fed to the constant speed unit
D) automatically programs the amount of oil entering the pitch lock regulator
B
A turboprop power plant design known as a “FREE TURBINE” type is one in which:
A) there are two separate shafts - one to drive the compressor section and the other to transmit power to the reduction gearbox and thus turn the propeller
B) the reduction gearbox unit is mounted on the outside of the engine in order to isolate the turbine section
C) each axial stage in the compressor section is designed so as to act independently of the previous stage
D) the compressor turbine and the accessory drive turbine are allowed to rotate in opposite directions in order to reduce gearbox vibration
A
In an aircraft equipped with reversing-type propellers, undesired propeller reversing in flight is prevented by the installation of which of the following devices?
A) low pitch synchro-transducers
B) a high pitch bias actuator and associated blade angle detector
C) a high pitch governor
D) low pitch stops
D
In reference to a turbo-prop, constant speed operation is achieved by
A) using the exhaust air exiting from the power section to drive the power section
B) using a series of reduction gears to reduce the turbofan speed to approximately 2000 RPM
C) bringing the condition levers to the appropriate setting for the phase of flight
D) matching the propeller load to the gas turbine power produced
D
What is the main function of an Electronic Engine Control (EEC) or an Electronic Control Unit (ECU)?
A) To act in a fuel metering capacity to provide accurate fuel flow information to the cockpit engine gauges.
B) To provide accurate power or thrust information to the engine power gauges in the cockpit.
C) To regulate engine fuel flow to maintain specific power setting as flight and environmental conditions change.
D) In fly by wire designed aircraft to transmit the desired power or thrust from the throttle quadrant to the fuel control unit on the engines.
C
APU’s on aircraft are generally used for…
- Generation of electrical power
- Heating/air-conditioning of the aircraft on the ground
- Hydraulic systems operation when the A/C is on the ground
- Starting jet engines
- Aircraft anti-icing on the ground
Select the following correct combination.
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 4
D
The flex temperature for a gas turbine engine refers to:
A) The maximum operating temperature limits for maximum continuous power.
B) The maximum operating temperature limit for compressor turbine section of the engine.
C)The ambient air minimum temperature for the engine.
D) The assumed temperature used in calculating the reduced thrust settings for take-off.
D
What is the purpose of assumed temperature or d-rated takeoffs?
A) They reduce fuel consumption
B) They increase passenger comfort by slowing acceleration
C) They reduce engine noise for certain noise abatement procedures
D) They reduce engine wear
D
In a turbo-jet aircraft, how does switching engine bleed-air valves off for departure provide better takeoff performance?
A) No bleed-air allows for the pressurization outflow valve to close reducing drag
B) This only applies to aircraft that use bleed-air for wing anti-ice
C) Having bleed-air valves closed allow the engines to produce greater thrust
D) Switching bleed-air off moves engine compressor blades to higher compression levels
C
A bleed leak warning light illuminated in the cockpit could be an indication that there is a :
A) brake bleed line fluid leak, which could result in a primary brake system failure.
B) hydraulic air bleed system failure resulting low hydraulic system pressure due to lack of air pressure in the reservoir.
C) bleed air lead within air cycle compressor and expansion turbine resulting in a pressurization failure.
D) pneumatic air bleed leak which left unattended could result in a fire within the aircraft.
D
Which of the following statements best describes an aircraft pressurization system?
A) Bleed air from the engines is continually distributed to the cabin area, outflow valves control the amount of the air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
B) Bleed valves control the amount of bleed air allowed to enter the cabin area to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
C) Ram air is vented into the cabin area utilizing ram air turbines, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
D) Engine driven air cycle packs distribute air to the cabin area, inflow valves control the amount of air allowed to enter the cabin area to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
A
With respect to aircraft pressurization systems, identify which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Modern aircraft pressurization systems start to pressurize the cabin during the take-off run at which time a descent would be noted on the cabin rate of climb/descent indicator.
B) The maximum cabin altitude of a pressurized aircraft should not normally exceed 12, 500’ ASL.
C) During a normal pressurized climb, following take-off, the cabin rate of climb would be less tan the aircraft rate of climb.
D) If during descent the aircraft altitude becomes equal to the cabin altitude, the rate of descent of both the cabin and the aircraft will be the same.
B
What is the purpose of a safety out flow valve on an aircraft pressurization system?
A) To prevent too low a cabin differential pressure from being reached.
B) To vent cabin air overboard when cabin altitude is reached.
C) To prevent ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin pressure
D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel.
D
The maximum ratio of cabin air pressure to ambient air pressure that a pressurization system and aircraft pressure vessel can sustain is referred to as ____.
A) max cabin altitude.
B) max vessel pressure.
C) max ambient pressure.
D) max diff
D
With respect to aircraft pressurization systems, what is the purpose of a negative pressure relief valve?
A) To prevent the cabin differential pressure from becoming too low.
B) To vent the cabin air overboard when cabin altitude is reached.
C) To prevent outside ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin internal pressure.
D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel.
C
The pilot of a small turbojet aircraft cruising at FL330 wishes to descend and land at an airport that is 2, 000’ ASL. The cabin altitude of the aircraft is 7, 000’ ASL. If the jet descends at a rate of 2, 500 ft per minute, what rate of descent should the pilot set on the cabin rate selector to affect a cabin differential pressure of zero on landing?
A) 500 ft/min
B) 400 ft/min
C) 300 ft/min
D) 200 ft/min
B
The pressurization system of a large commuter turbo-prop aircraft has been given a maintenance release fo the auto mode part of the system provided it is operated in the manual mode only. What cabin altitude would you select, if your flight planned cruise altitude is 16, 000’ and you wanted to obtain the maximum aircraft pressure differential?
A) 8, 000’
B) 4, 000’
C) 2500’
D) 500’ above elevation
C
A battery temp overheat warning on teh cockpit advisory panel could be an indication of a:
A) low battery voltage
B) high battery voltage
C) battery thermal runaway
D) ground power failure causing battery depletion
C
What functions do Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) and Inverters (INVs) perform on aircraft electrical systems?
A) TRU’s are employed to convert direct current to alternating current and INV’s are employed to convert alternating current to direct current.
B) TRU’s are employed to convert alternating current to direct current and INV’s are employed to convert direct current to alternating current.
C) TRU’s proved automatic bus fault protection on an aircraft DC system and INV’s provide automatic overload protection on an aircraft AC system.
D) TRU’s are employed as voltage regulators in AC systems and INV’s are employed as voltage regulators of DC system.
B
An aircraft’s electrical bus bar system can best be described as:
A) a carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated or powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure.
B) multifunctional devices which provide voltage regulation, generator direction, circuit and generator protection.
C) a system of electrical circuits used to control power fluctuations or surges.
D) a passive system which transfers electrical power between AC and DC powered systems depending on system demand.
A (I’m pretty sure this is the clearest, most sensible answer I’ve seen in this whole thing)
Aircraft electrical circuit protection is provided by which of the following devices:
- Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)
- Generator Control Unit (GCU)
- Variable Frequency Generator (AC GEN)
- Inverter (INV)
- Circuit breaker (CB)
- AC and DC Emergency Busses (EMER BUS)
A) 1, 2, 6
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 2, 5
D) 2, 3, 6
C
Many large turbine aircraft employ jet pumps to draw fuel into collector lines in order to ensure the high pressure fuel pump has enough fuel to supply the engine. These jet pumps are activated by:
A) high pressure fuel from the high pressure fuel pump.
B) electrical boos pumps located in the fuel tanks.
C) the hydro mechanical fuel control unit.
D) direct drive from the engine accessory section.
A
Which of the following statements is false with regards to capacitance fuel measurement systems?
A) It remains accurate in all phases of flight.
B) The system measures volume of fuel which is then converted to weight by the FMS system.
C) Fuel measurement is achieved electrically without the need for moving parts by converting a capacitance measurement to an equivalent fuel management.
D) Depending upon the aircraft size there may be multiple fuel capacitance probes connected in parallel in each task that assist with an average reading of fuel weight.
B
Magnastiks are fuel quantity measuring devices which:
A) are located beneath the fuel caps and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity.
B) are located in the refueling panel to permit selection of the desired furl load and automatic shut-off of the refueling valves when the desired fuel load is boarded.
C) are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity.
D) are located within the fuel tanks and transmit accurate quantity measurements to the fuel quantity gauges in the cockpit.
C
The accumulator of an aircraft hydraulic system is pre-loaded to 1, 000 PSI. If the system normally operates at a pressure of 3, 000 PSI, the system pressure gauge and the accumulator gauge reading after engine start up would be respectively:
A) 0 and 1, 000 PSI
B) 3, 000 and 4, 000 PSI
C) 3, 000 and 3, 000 PSI
D) 4, 000 and 1, 000 PSI
C
One method to compensate for variable system demands when one or more subsystems are activated on a hydraulic system is through the installation of _____.
A) pressure control valves
B) fixed displacement hydraulic pumps
C) variable displacement hydraulic pumps
D) actuating cylinders
C
Which of the following statements best describe the operation of typical anti-skid device?
A) As an aircraft begins to skid, pumping of the brakes initializes the anti-skid system to control brake pressure in order to obtain maximum stopping performance. B) When the anti-skid control module detects that the wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded. C) When a wheel speed transducer detects a rapid deceleration, a signal is sent to the normal brake metering valve so that a constant metered pressure is applied to the brakes. D) When the anti-skid control module detects a rapid deceleration in a wheel speed, a signal is sent to the anti-skid warning system to advise the crew that a full skid condition is imminent.
B
Which of the following statements is true with reference to an anti-system’s lock wheel and touchdown protection?
A) Lock wheel protection is implemented to automatically brake the main gear wheels following selection of landing gear retraction.
B) Lock wheel protection prevents tire scuffing by commanding full brake release following a bounced landing.
C) Touchdown protection is implemented when a skid condition is detected within 5 seconds after main gear compression.
D) Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways.
D
INDUCED drag is:
A) proportional to the square of the speed
B) proportional to the product of the coefficient of skin friction (skin friction….) and the length of the mean camber line
C) inversely proportional to the square of the speed
D) directly proportional to the square of the speed
C
When operating an aircraft in the slow flight speed range, the required power is greater than that for endurance because:
A) more of the aircraft’s total weight is acting along the longitudinal axis
B) the L/D ratio is reduced, and the drag increased
C) greater deflection of elevator control surface is causing a reduced Dow was and a distorted boundary layer
D) the L/D ratio is increased, and the drag is increased.
B
In order to obtain maximum range in a constant wind condition, a pilot who is flying a turbojet aircraft at near optimum altitude and at the recommended airspeed should:
A) maintain airspeed and reduce power as the fuel weight decreases due to burn-off
B) reduce power and indicated airspeed as fuel weight decreases
C) maintain a constant power setting and allow the indicated airspeed to attain the maximum allowable value
D) fly at an airspeed which corresponds to 0.66 x L/D max x V2
B
Which of the following features will improve the lateral stability of an aeroplane?
A) wing dihedral
B) a yaw damper system
C) servo tabs
D) a differential aileron system
A
An aircraft having wings with a pronounced DIHEDRAL encounters turbulence which causes one wing to lower. Before the dihedral design feature can provide the forces needed to restore the original “wings-level” position:
A) the aircraft must initiate a turn towards the “raised” wing
B) the aircraft must develop a sideslip towards the “dropped” wing
C) the aircraft must develop a yawing movement towards the “raised” wing
D) the aircraft must initiate a skid towards the “dropped” wing
B
If the C of G of an aircraft is at the most aft limit, what would be the effect on the stability of this aircraft:
A) increased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
B) increased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
C) decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
D) decreased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
C
An aircraft has greater longitudinal stability when:
A) the centre of pressure is forward of the C of G
B) the wings have a high angle of incidence
C) the C of G is well forward of the centre of pressure
D) the wings have a high dihedral angle
C
Why is having a moving horizontal stabilizer a more effective way of trimming large aircraft?
A) At high speeds it provides more longitudinal stability and a higher Critical Mach Number
B) It allows for a greater Center of gravity range and reduces drag in flight
C) At low speeds the elevator is not a large enough control surface to effectively control aircraft pitch
D) At high speeds the elevator is not a large enough control surface to effectively control aircraft pitch
B
An aircraft in a constant speed descent, weight will equal:
A) Vertical component of lift and drag
B) Vertical component of lift only
C) Lift perpendicular to the flight path
D) Resultant of life and thrust
A
A turbojet departing from an airport with a high elevation would have what affect on the takeoff air speeds and distance?
A) There would not be an affect on airspeed or takeoff distance.
B) V1 and Vr speeds and the takeoff distance would increase.
C) The takeoff distance would increase but V1 and Vr and V2 would remain the same.
D) Vr and V2 speeds would increase.
B
Wing tip vortices of MINIMUM strength would e developed by an aircraft:
A) flying at a low speed, having a short wing span, and with a clean configuration
B) flying at a high speed, having a long wing span, and with a clean configuration
C) flying at a low speed, having a long wing span, and with a landing configuration
D) flying at a high speed, having a short wing span, and with a clean configuration
B
With respect to departing aircraft, it is known that vortex generation is most severe:
A) in that airspace immediately following the point of rotation
B) during the initial acceleration period following the application of take-off thrust
C) at that moment when the aircraft climbs through an altitude equal to three times its wing span
D) during the third segment of the aircraft’s take-off flight path profile
A
