Performanc And W&B

Question 1

V1 is the speed at which it must be possible:

Answer 1

A) to stop an aircraft on the remaining runway plus clearance
B) to take-off and attain the V2 climb speed at 35’ above the runway surface
C) to apply full braking and whatever lift dump devices, bring the aeroplane to a full stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 400’ AGL
D) (D….) to abort the take-off and bring the aeroplane to a stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 35’ above the departure end of the runway.

D

Question 2

Which of the following would cause V1 speed to increase?

Answer 2

A) An increase in gross take-off weight
B) Reverse thrust capability
C) Snow or slush on the runway
D) An increase in tailwind component

A

Question 3

The symbol “Vsi” represents:

Answer 3

A) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable
B) that speed above which shock-induced buffet will cause airflow separation to occur
C) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
D) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the specified configuration

D (!)

Question 4

The definitions for Vr, V3, Vb would be respectively:

Answer 4

A) rotation speed, flap retraction speed and max gust intensity speed
B) rotation speed, gear retraction speed and rough air speed
C) rough air speed, critical engine failure speed and maneuvering speed
D) rotation speed, gear retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed

A

Question 5

Which of the following “V” speeds represents the maximum speed at which full deflection of the primary flight controls will not cause over stressing of the aircraft?

Answer 5

A) Vr
B) Va
C) Vref
D) Vmc

B

Question 6

Vmca Air Minimum Control Speed is defined as the lowest calibrated airspeed at which control of an aircraft can be maintained following the failure of the critical engine with the remaining engine(s) operation at take off power. Vmca is determined at gross weight with the C of G at the aft limit, the flaps in the take-off position, the ______ and the:

Answer 6

A) landing gear extended, propeller windmilling if no auto fx system is installed
B) landing gear extended, propeller fx’d if an auto fx system is installed
C) landing gear retracted, propeller windmilling if no auto fx system is installed
D) landing gear retracted, aircraft banked a max of 5 deg towards the inoperative engine

C

Question 7

Which of the following symbols represents the take-off safety speed of a multi-engine aeroplane?

Answer 7

A) Vx
B) V2
C) Vs
D) V1

B

Question 8

A referenced airspeed obtained after the airplane lifts off and at which the require one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved is designated as:

Answer 8

A) Venr
B) Vmca
C) V2
D) Vref

C

Question 9

Which of the following take-off and landing distances published in the Canada Air Pilot aerodrome chart includes the length of the clear way?

Answer 9

A) LDA (Landing Distance Available)
B) TORA (Take-off Run Available)
C) ASDA (Accelerate-Stop Distance Available)
D) TODA (Take-off Distance Available)

D

Question 10

A runway is 8800’ in length. It has a published clear way of 1000’ and also includes a stopway of 1500’. Therefore TORA and TODA would be respectively;

Answer 10

A) 8800’ and 9800’
B) 8800’ and 10, 800’
C) 10, 300’ and 9, 800’
D) 10, 300’ and 10, 800’

A

Question 11

The computed landing approach speed is:

Answer 11

A) Venr
B) Vlo
C) Vra
D) Vref

D

Question 12

A Critical Field Length or Balanced Field Length means the length of the runway:

Answer 12

A) Required to accommodate the take-off of a heavy aircraft when the runway maximum weight-bearing capacity is reached.
B) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to computed rotation speed (Vr), experience an engine failure and to come to a complete stop on the runway remaining.
C) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure and to either continue the take-off or reject it.
D) Required to stop an aircraft following the failure of its critical engine at its take-off safety speed.

C

Question 13

The 3 takeoff distances that must be calculated prior to departure are:

Answer 13

A) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Stop and 1 Engine out Takeoff distances
B) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Stop and Accelerate Go distances
C) 3 takeoff distances are only required if the Accelerate Go distance exceeds runway length
D) 115% All Engines Takeoff, Accelerate Go and 1 Engine out climb distances

B

Question 14

A slush covered runway will have what effect on V1 and V4 speeds?

Answer 14

A) V1 will increase while Vr will decrease, however Vr must never be below V1
B) V1 will decrease and Vr will increase
C) V1 will decrease and Vr will remain the same
D) V1 will decrease and Vr will increase

C

Question 15

An upslope runway will have what effect of V1 and Vr speeds?

Answer 15

A) V1 will increase and Vr will remain the same, however V1 must never be below V1
B) V1 will decrease and Vr will decrease
C) V1 will increase and Vr will remain the same
D) V1 will decrease and Vr will increase

A

Question 16

The take-off second segment climb gradient for a large two-engine turbine-powered aircraft starts at the time the landing gear is fully retracted and continues until the airplane reaches an altitude, above the runway, of at least 400’or a specified level off height. The aircraft must maintain a climb gradient of ____in this climb segment.

Answer 16

A) 1.2%
B) 2.4%
C) 2.7%
D) 3.0%

B

Question 17

The take-off final segment climb gradient for turbo-prop aircraft such as the Dash 8 ends when the airplane reaches the final take-off flight path point at 1500’. The aeroplane must be at a speed 38% above the stall maintaining a climb gradient of 12’ vertically for every 1000’ horizontally, while using:

Answer 17

A) max continuous power, with the gear up and flaps retracted
B) max continuous power or take-off power, with the gear up and flaps at take-off setting.
C) take-off power, with the gear up and flaps retracted
D) take-off power, with the gear down and flaps at take-off setting.

A

Question 18

In determining whether an aeroplane can be dispatched or a take-off conducted, not more than _____% of the reported headwind component or not less than ____% of the reported tailwind component, has to be taken into account.

Answer 18

A) 60, 70
B) 30, 40
C) 50, 100
D) 50, 150

D

Question 19

The following data is provided for the pilot of a small turbojet aircraft who is planning a westbound flight and wishes to set up for maximum range cruise:
FL310
TAS 330 KTS
W/V 270/30
Fuel Flow 1,100 lbs/hr

FL350
TAS 310 KTS
W/V 270/60
Fuel Flow 950 lbs/hr

Answer 19

A) FL350—SAR (Specific Air Range) is .32 nm/lb of fuel
B) FL350—SGR (Specific Ground Range) is .26 nm/lb of fuel
C) FL310—SAR is .30 nm/lb of fuel
D) FL310—SGR is .27 nm/lb of fuel

D

Question 20

The following data is provided for the pilot of a small turbojet aircraft who is planning a westbound flight and wishes to set up for max range cruise. From the information, determine the best flight level for cruise:

FL310
TAS 440
Wind 270/60
Fuel Flow 1450

FL350
TAS 430
Wind 270/90
Fuel Flow 1250

Answer 20

A) FL350 SAR is .284 nm/lb
B) FL350 SGR is .272 nm/lb
C) FL310 SAR is .294 nm/lb
D) FL310 SGR is .262 nm/lb

B

Question 21

CRFI (Canadian Runway Friction Index) readings are included in runway surface conditions reports when runways are contaminated with…

Answer 21

A) rain, ice, slush or wet snow
B) ice and snow, slush or wet snow
C) rain, ice, packed snow or slush
D) mist, rain, ice, slush or packed snow

B

Question 22

If the aircraft’s CG was 179” AFT of Datum and the Mean Aerodynamic Cord (MAC) is from 160” to 240” AFT of Datum, what would be the CG in terms of % MAC?

Answer 22

A) 17%
B) 24%
C) 27%
D) 31%

B