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Engineer > R&R, SOP, SAP, SOG > Flashcards

R&R, SOP, SAP, SOG Flashcards

1
Q

Chain of command

A
  • Director/Fire Chief
  • Deputy Director/Fire Chief
  • Division Chief
  • Deputy Division Chief
  • Assistant Chief
  • Battalion Chief
  • District Chief
  • Captain
  • Lieutenant
  • Engineer
  • Firefighter
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2
Q

SOG 208 : Company Officer

Rescue company officer knowledge requirements?

A
  • Required to have detailed knowledge in emergency medical care and control of other emergency situations
  • Required to know the location of streets and the character of buildings within their respective response territory
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3
Q

SOG 208 : Company Officer

Suppression company officer knowledge requirements?

A
  • required to have detailed knowledge in the prevention and extinguishment of fire and control of other emergency situations
  • Required to know the location of streets and water supply sources, as well as the character of buildings within their respective response territory
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4
Q

SOG 208 : Company Officer

Company officer shall personally conduct practical drills to cover all aspects of their apparatus and equipment with probationary firefighters assigned to them and/or any personnel who are newly assigned to the company on a permanent basis a time strain of how many days from the date of assignment will be given to cover these items?

A

90 days

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5
Q

SOG 208 : Company Officer

Company officer should ensure that any personal permanently assigned to the company, regardless of time of service, learns the information on territory outlined an SOP 212. A time span of how many months from the date of assignment will be given to learn this information?

A

6 months

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6
Q

SOG 208 : Company Officer

Personnel evaluations -
Who shall be in agreement for newly promoted lieutenants?
Who shall be in agreement for newly promoted engineers?


A
  • Company Captain and District Chief

* Company Officer and District Chief

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7
Q

SOG 209 : Engineer

Engineers shall have a general knowledge of what?
Engineers assigned to the operations (suppression) division shall know the locations of what in which territories?
Engineers assigned to the rescue division shall know what and in which territories?

A
  • Major streets and buildings in the city
  • Locations of all streets, water supply sources, schools, commercial buildings, and other highlife hazard structures in their first and second alarm territories
  • Streets and buildings in their first and second due territory and shall know how to access all hospital emergency rooms used by the JFRD
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8
Q

SOG 210 : Firefighter

Firefighter shall have a general knowledge of what?
Fire fighters shall know what in reference to territories?

A
  • Major streets and buildings in the city
  • They shall know the location of all streets and water supply sources in their first alarm territory
  • They shall know the location of all schools, commercial buildings, and other high life hazard structures in their first and second alarm territories
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9
Q

SOG 210 : Firefighter

Per SAP 332 (performance improvement program) if the deficiency still exists after how many days of company training, the firefighter will be referred to who for additional instruction prior to being authorized to ride OOP?

A
  • 30 days

* training academy

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10
Q

SOG 216 : PPE

Required PPE on all suppression calls -
8

A
  • Helmet
  • Turnout pants
  • Turnout boots
  • Turnout coat
  • Turnout gloves
  • Hood
  • Facemask
  • SCBA
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11
Q

SOG 216 : PPE

Helmets cleaned with?
Pg. 1 -
Pg. 5 -

A
  • Dawn Dish soap and soft bristle brush

* Green scrub pad using soap and water. No other chemicals should be used

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12
Q

SOG 210 : PPE

All personnel below the rank of ____ shall carry the following items in their turnout COAT at all times : (5)

A
  • hose strap
  • flashlight
  • sprinkler wedge
  • marking device
  • issued bail-out kits
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13
Q

SOG 210 : PPE

Any changes to PPE used by the JFRD shall be authorized by ?

A
  • Safety Committee

* Direct/Fire Chief

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14
Q

SOG 210 : PPE

Any Issues with your gear should be directed to whom?

A

The on-duty incident safety officer and/or to logistical support

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15
Q

SOG 217 : JFRD Uniform

Who shall be held strictly responsible for assuring that all personnel under their supervision are in the appropriate uniform at all times?

A

Company officers

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16
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

All collar rank insignia shall be spaced how far from the front edge of the collar and top and bottom?

A

• 1/2 inch from the front edge of the collar and evenly spaced from top to bottom

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17
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform
Rank Insignia Design

  • Director/Fire Chief -
  • Division Chief -
  • Deputy Division Chief -
  • Assistant Chief HQ -
  • Battalion Chief -
  • District Chief -
  • Captain -
  • Ladder/Squad Captain -
  • Lieutenant -
  • Ladder/Squad Lieutenant-
A 
• 5 gold crossed trumpets
• 4 gold crossed trumpets
• 4 gold crossed trumpets, 
button style
• 4 gold crossed trumpets,
red background
• 3 gold crossed trumpets
button style
• 3 gold crossed trumpets
• 2 gold axes
• 1 gold trumpet
• 1 gold axe
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18
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

The dress jacket is authorized as an option for ranks below what?

A

District Chief

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19
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

Gold button style rank insignia shall be worn where on the dress jacket?

A

In the center of the upper lapel of dress jacket

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20
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

Dress Jacket Stripes size?

  • Director/Fire Chief -
  • Division Chief -
  • Deputy Division Chief -
  • Assistant Chief -
  • Battalion Chief -
  • District Chief -
  • Captain -
  • Lieutenant -
  • Engineer -
  • Firefighter -
  • Retirees -
A
  • 1/2”
  • 5 gold stripes
  • 4 gold stripes
  • 4 gold stripes
  • 4 gold stripes with red inlays
  • 3 gold stripes
  • 3 gold stripes
  • 2 gold stripes
  • 1 gold stripe
  • 1 silver stripe
  • no stripe
  • red stripe onto the gold or silver stripe
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21
Q

SOP 217 : Maltese crosses placed where?

A
  • left sleeve of dress jacket
  • 1/2 inch above the stripes
  • Firefighters shall place Maltese crosses three inches from the bottom of the jacket sleeve
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22
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

Where is years of service patch worn?
Short -sleeve?
Long sleeve?

A
  • left sleeve
  • one inch above the lower hem and centered under the JFRD patch
  • one inch above the upper cuff seam and centered under the JFRD patch
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23
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

Nameplate on uniform shirt?
Dress coat?

A
  • Above right front pocket

* centered just above right breast pocket

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24
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

Badge Design -
Which ranks shall have their name engraved above the stated rank?

A
  • Director/Fire Chief
  • Deputy Director/Fire Chief
  • Division Chiefs
  • Deputy Division Chiefs
  • Assistant Chiefs
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25
Q

SOP 217 : JFRD Uniform

What garments are not to be worn under turnout gear?

A

100% nylon, nylon-polyester blend, or Dacron polyester blend

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26
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

Class 1A -

A

Equivalent of 1 1/4 gallons of water and is used fo suppress Class A fire

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27
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

Class B -

A

Denotes the equivalent of agent that can suppress a one square ft. flammable liquid fire

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28
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

Class C -

A

Denotes that the agent is non-conductive and can be used on energized electrical fires

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29
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

18lb Purple K (PKP) discharge range?
What chemical based?

A
  • up to 18ft for 18 secs.

* potassium bicarbonate based

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30
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

30lb Purple K (PKP) discharge range?
What chemical based?

A
  • up to 18ft for 8 secs

* potassium bicarbonate

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31
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

30lb MET-L-X discharge range?
Chemical base?
Class?

A
  • up to 3ft.
  • sodium chloride
  • Class D fires - sodium, potassium, magnesium alloys
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32
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

30lb LITH-X discharge range?
Chemical base?
Used for what type of fires?

A
  • up to 3ft
  • graphite based
  • designed for lithium fires and in some instances can suppress all Class D fires
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33
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

2 1/2 gallon foam extinguishers discharge range?
Extinguishing agents?
What will it extinguish?

A
  • up to 15ft
  • water with 3% alcohol resistant concentrate
  • hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels
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34
Q

SOP 220 : Fire Extinguishers

20lb Carbon Dioxide (CO2) discharge range?
Primarily used for?

A
  • up to 8ft

* energized electrical fires

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35
Q

SOP 221 : Hose Testing

Hose shall be tested annually, between ?

A

March 15 and April 15

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36
Q

SOP 222 : Fire Hydrants

Fire hydrant inspections will be conducted each year beginning when and must be completed by ?

A

Beginning of January and must be completed by March 1st

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37
Q

SOP 222 : Fire Hydrants

What is imperative when performing hydrant inspections?

A

It is imperative that members open hydrant slowly and perform a low flow flush until the water flowing from the hydrant is clear. It is also imperative that hydrants are closed slowly to avoid costly damage to water mains in other parts of the water supply system

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38
Q

SOP 222 : Fire Hydrants

Hydrants in need of repair shall be reported immediately to FRCC. What information should be provided? (5)

A
  • fire district
  • TAZ zone
  • Hydrant number (if available on hydrant application)
  • Closest street address
  • Accurate description of the problem
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39
Q

SOP 222 : Fire Hydrants

Private hydrants found in need of repair shall be reported to who?
FRCC shall notify who?

A
  • Property owner and FRCC

* District Chief of Inspections in Fire Prevention

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40
Q

SOP 225 : EVOC

Recruit Initial EVOC Training - how many hours and responsibility of who?

A
  • 36hrs

* Division Chief of Training

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41
Q

SOP 225 : EVOC

Refresher training - how many hrs how often?

A

8hrs every two years

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42
Q

SOP 207 Lieutenant:

They (Lt.) do not have authority to make any permanent changes to their station, equipment, personnel, or apparatus without direct authorization from ?

A

Company Captain

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43
Q

SOP 208 Company Officer :
Disagreements shall be settled within various districts how?
If it becomes necessary to take the matter higher?

A
  • Following chain of command

* Take matter to appropriate Division Chief, a request shall be sent through chain of command

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44
Q

SOP 208 Company Officer :
Regarding the drug and alcohol abuse policy, what shall the company officer implement if personnel is suspected of substance abuse? Who should details be forwarded to?

A

• Immediately relieve from duty; implement the provisions of the applicable collective bargaining agreement regarding the drug and alcohol abuse policy and shall immediately forward details of the incident through the chain of command to the Director/Fire Chief

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45
Q

SOP 208 Company Officer :
Company officers shall be held responsible for all information contained in every report they submit. They shall ensure that all reports submitted are -
(5)

A
  • in proper form
  • accurate
  • legible
  • complete (giving info pertaining to the assignment)
  • completed by the end of the shift
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46
Q

SOP 216 PPE :

Gloves shall be washed ?

A

Hand washed with Dawn and a soft bristled brush then air dried

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47
Q

SOP 216 PPE :

Protective hoods can be washed ?

A

In station washer with normal detergent (NO BLEACH) and dried on low heat. Hoods can also be washed in the extractors with the inner liners of turnout gear

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48
Q

SOP 216 PPE :

All equipment is to be worn until relieved from where or instructed by who?

A

Relieved from the immediate fireground/incident perimeter or instructed by the Company Officer

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49
Q

SOP 216 PPE :

How many sets of shells should be placed into the washer at one time?

A

4-5 sets (approx. 8-10 pieces)

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50
Q

SOP 227 JFRD Uniform :

Class A uniform shall be worn when?

A

While attending all official ceremonies (funerals, promotions, graduations, etc)

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51
Q

SOP 217 JFRD Uniform :
Rank insignia are to be placed on the collars of the Class A, B, and C uniform shirts. Class A and B are of what style?
Class C insignia are to be of the sewn on type for ranks of ?

A
  • gold pin style

* ranks of Captain and below

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52
Q

SOP 217 JFRD Uniform :

JFRD badges shall be of what design?

A

Starburst design with an eagle above. “Jacksonville Fire Rescue” shall be written in a circle surrounding the center

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53
Q

SOP 217 JFRD Uniform :

Award pins/ribbons shall be worn where? How and how many?

A
  • just above the nameplate
  • worn end to end, up to three across
  • stack and center all additional pins/ribbons up to three across for each row
  • ribbons are to be worn with most meritorious pins/ribbons placed above the others
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54
Q

SOP 217 JFRD Uniform :

Dress caps shall be removed when?

A

While indoors, inside a vehicle, during prayers, or moments of silence

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55
Q 
SOP 218 Personal Grooming :
Hair on sides of the head? 
Men - 
Women -
Hair on the back of the head?
Men -
Women -
A
  • shall not extend below the bottom of the ear
  • shall not extend below the top of the shoulder
  • shall not extend below the top of the collar of the shirt when at attention
  • shall not extend below the bottom of the collar of the shirt when at attention
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56
Q

SOP 218 Personal Grooming :

Who determines the appropriateness of a tattoo?

A

Appropriate Division Chief or

Director/Fire Chief

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57
Q

SOP 218 Personal Grooming :
If an employee disagrees with the determination (inappropriate tattoo), he/she can request a decision by who, through what procedure?

A

Employee Services; grievance procedure

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58
Q

SOP 220 Fire Extinguishers:

Specific info regarding classes, sizes, ratings, and operation of all extinguishers can be found in ?

A

NFPA 10, Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers

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59
Q

SOP 220 Fire Extinguishers:
Companies are to inspect each of their JFRD fire extinguishers how often?
Who is responsible for ensuring that fire extinguishers are tagged with expiration date and in good working order?

A
  • monthly

* station captain

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60
Q

SOP 221 Hose Testing :

Special care shall be exercised to see that _____on the female side of couplings.

A

Fitted gaskets are in place

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61
Q

SOP 222 Fire Hydrants :

Who’s responsibility is it to ensure the inspection and documentation is completed?

A

Station Captain

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62
Q

SOP 222 Fire Hydrants :

Purple hydrants are owned by who?

A

Private utility companies

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63
Q

SOP 225 EVOC :

If any deficiencies arise, the company officer should ?

A

Either follow the Disciplinary Action

SAP 304 or the Training Remediation SAP 306

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64
Q

SOP 230 Knox Box Rapid Entry System:
Examples of locations requiring Knox Box Gate key switch :
Examples of locations requiring Knox Box:

A
  • gated apartment complexes
  • non attended gated communities
  • large assembly
  • large commercial storage buildings
  • industrial
  • mercantile occupancies
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65
Q

SOP 230 Knox Box Rapid Entry System :

What is PIN code?

A

The six digit code to access the key is a hybrid number consisting of your normal work PIN and your employee number

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66
Q

SOP 230 Knox Box Rapid Entry System :

If entry using the Knox key is deemed necessary, who is required to be notified?

A

Communications;

Communications will have a JSO Officer or other appropriate law enforcement officer respond to the scene

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67
Q

SOP 230 Knox Box Rapid Entry System :

In the unlikely event a key is missing, the OIC will contact who? Then report to ?

A
  • District/Battalion Chief

* report to Tactical Support to have the memory access and last PIN identified

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68
Q

SOP 232 Apparatus Testing :
Apparatus pumps shall be tested in accordance with ?
Who shall conduct apparatus pump testing?

A
  • NFPA 1901

* tactical support or an authorized representative

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69
Q

SOP 232 Apparatus Testing :
Aerial ladders and the associated mechanisms shall be tested in accordance with ?
Who shall conduct aerial ladder testing?

A
  • NFPA 1901

* Tactical Support or an authorized representative

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70
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :
These procedures are based upon the knowledge that field operations may greatly exceed normal capacity for the following reasons : (4)

A
  • riots or protests that result in conflagration
  • civil disorder or unrest
  • simultaneous incidents in multiple locations
  • harassment of JFRD members and other adverse circumstances
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71
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

In all informal communications, such as radio transmissions, emails, etc. this procedure shall be referred to as -

A

“Operation Guardian”

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72
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Initiation of this plan will commence ONLY upon authorization from ?

A

Director/Fire Chief or his designee, after notification by phone from FRCC

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73
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :
FRCC will also notify who, by phone when indications are evident that a hazardous situation may develop or is imminent as a result of civil disorder?

A

Chief of Operations, Chief of Rescue, and the on-duty Battalion Chiefs

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74
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Condition “Yellow”

A
  • may be one or a group of isolated emergencies involving civil disorder where JFRD personnel have become involved
  • typically, a suspected unrest or actual civil disorder where LE has primary responsibility and JFRD involvement is limited
  • min of two apparatus will be dispatched on ALL response and then only with a JSO escort within troubled areas or identified hot zone
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75
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Condition “Orange”

A
  • JFRD units and personnel are becoming MORE involved in the identified critical areas
  • Notification of the Emergency Preparedness Division for potential EOC activation
  • Notify all stations to alert off-duty personnel to standby for possible recall to duty
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76
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :
Who identified a tactical channel for operation?
What channel is preferred and why?

A
  • Task Force Group Chief

* A5, as it is encrypted

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77
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

If ladder company with tiller is responding to the alarm with an engine company, who enters first?

A

The ladder company will enter area first, this will afford protection for the tiller-engineer

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78
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

If an engine company and a Chief are responding, who enters first?

A

The engine company will enter the area first and the Chief will pick up the person catching the hydrant if layout is required

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79
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

If an engine company is responding with a rescue unit, who enters first?

A

The engine company will enter the hot zone first

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80
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :
Units operating within the hot zone will maintain communications with FRCC and Task Force Group Chief. Units will transmit what, how often?

A

Units will transmit their situation status along with their unit designation every five (5) minutes, while units are on scene

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81
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Units will notify FRCC and the Task Force Group Chief immediately of ?

A

Upon leaving the scene and again when they have cleared the hot zone

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82
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Condition “Red”

A

Situation has deteriorated to a degree that involvement of a majority of fire stations is imminent
• recall of off-duty personnel will occur as directed

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83
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Under Red conditions, rescue units assigned to task force groups shall be staffed with ?

A

Min. of three (3) personnel

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84
Q

SOP 251 Required Suppression Equipment :
It is the responsibility of who to ensure that the minimum required Suppression equipment is replaced after each use or being submitted for repairs?
It is the responsibility of who to inspect the apparatus on a weekly basis to ensure that all the minimum required Suppression equipment is on the apparatus?

A
  • company officer

* company Capt.

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85
Q

SOP 252 Required Suppression Equipment :

TurboDrafts and depth securing buoys shall be carried on?

A

All suppression and rescue district/battalion chiefs vehicles

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86
Q

SOP 252 Required Suppression Equipment :

What apparatus do not have specific requirements?

A

Brush trucks, specialty apparatus (HazMat, Heavy Rescues, Utility Trucks, Marine Units, Crash Trucks, Rescues, etc)

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87
Q

SOP 252 Required Suppression Equipment :
If an apparatus is missing any of the required equipment, as shown in the applicable _____ form, the company officer should advise who?
Who also should the company officer notify and do?

A
  • JFRD Apparatus Equipment Inventory form
  • Tactical Support
  • Company Captain and place entry in the logbook documenting the missing equipment and any action taken to get the equipment replaced
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88
Q

SOP 252 Required Suppression Equipment :
If the equipment was previously issued and subsequently damaged/lost, what must be completed, signed by who, and submitted to whom?

A
  • Lost/Damaged/Stolen report
  • District/Battalion Chief
  • Tactical Support
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89
Q

SOP 252 Required Suppression Equipment :
To replace required equipment that is considered consumable, (ie salvage covers left at a structure to protect contents) utilize ?

A

Tivoli

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90
Q

SOP 253 Personnel Conduct - Emergency Scenes and Non-Emergency Detail :
If photos taken for official JFRD duties, upon completion of their intended use, any such photos must be forwarded to ? For compliance with ?

A
  • JFRDPrivacy@coj.net

* public records retention laws

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91
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

What is the primary consideration regarding injured personnel?

A

The provision of prompt evaluation and necessary treatment. Processing the appropriate forms is the secondary consideration

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92
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
The Worker’s Compensation Law is clear in specifying that the City of Jacksonville as an employer is not responsible for unauthorized medical expenses, unless ?

A

The City of Jacksonville fails to provide remedial treatment

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93
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
In all cases, if the injury is of an emergency nature, the Company Officer or immediate supervisor will immediately notify and ensure ?
As soon as the Company Officer or immediate supervisor is able, who should they contact?

A

• FRCC and that all necessary equipment/personnel are en route
• Health & Safety Officer at
(904) 718-HURT (4878), 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

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94
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
If the injury affects the status or manpower of the company, the Company Officer will immediately notify ?
They notify who?
Then the CO notifies ?

A

• FRCC
• FRCC notifies the company’s District/Battalion Chief
• Health & Safety Officer (904) 718-HURT
(4878) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

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95
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

Once an injury has been reported, the following three procedures shall be followed :

A
  • Transport injured personnel to the appropriate facility. Severe injuries transported to appropriate ER. For all non-severe injuries, contact HSO for direction as to most appropriate treatment facility
  • After receiving diagnosis from the medical facility, the HSO will report the employee’s status to the employees District/Battalion Chief
  • The District/Battalion Chief will then notify the employee’s company officer
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96
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

Unless hospitalized, all personnel on OJI shall report their status how often?

A

Weekly

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97
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
All OJI personnel recovering at home are required to contact HSO on what day before what time?
What will you advise them?

A

• Every Monday before 10:00am at
(904) 718-HURT
• Advise the address where you are staying and a phone number where you can be reached from 8:00am to 5:00pm Monday-Friday

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98
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

All personnel who are already assigned to a Limited Duty location need only to report to that location prior to ?

A

8:00am, unless otherwise instructed

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99
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

If the employee wishes to go out of town while on OJI, permission must be obtained from who?

A

The appropriate Division Chief through the HSO

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100
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
If the employee will be off work for an extended period, who will be responsible for keeping the appropriate Division Chief informed of all pertinent info?

A

The HSO

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101
Q 
SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
Personnel assigned to limited duty that wish to be off on Annual Leave (AL) the request must be made according to ? 
If personnel are assigned to HQ, who do they make the request through? 
Other Divisions (Training Academy, Tactical Support) ?
A
  • procedures outlined in the Collective Bargaining Agreement
  • HSO
  • immediate supervisor
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102
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

Short Term Limited Duty (STLD) -

A

Impairment is of limited duration (not more than one year) and is treatable

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103
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
Who is Short-Term Limited Duty Committee consist of?
How often do they meet?

A
  • Deputy Director/Assistant Fire Chief
  • Chief of Rescue
  • Chief of Fire Operations
  • Health and Safety Officer
  • JFRD assigned HR Manager
  • monthly
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104
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

Long Term Limited Duty (LTLD) -

A

Impairment is of an extensive duration (more than one year) and requires on-going treatment

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105
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :

All “fit for duty” exams will be determined by what?

A

The Civil Service Rules and Regulations

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106
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
The JFRD shall make available a combined number of positions up to ___ of the total uniformed staff and designate them as long-term limited duty positions.
How many as of April, 2009?

A
  • 0.5%

* seven as of April 2009

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107
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
Assignment for a long-term limited duty position shall be for __ months, reviewed __, and may be renewed up to a max. of __ years of service and ___.

A
  • 12 months
  • reviewed annually
  • max. 20yrs and eligible to retire
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108
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury/Limited Duty :
Long Term Limited Duty Committee -
How often do they meet?

A
  • Deputy Director/Assistant Fire Chief
  • Chief of Rescue
  • Chief of Fire Operations
  • Health and Safety Officer
  • JFRD assigned HR Manager
  • JFRD Finance Officer
  • annually
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109
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :

The philosophy is that of?

A

Progressive, constructive, and cumulative discipline

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110
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :

Progressive discipline is based on the idea that ?

A

Once employees have been informed of their performance and behavior expected of them, appropriate discipline will be administered progressively when an infraction occurs

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111
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :

Discipline shall normally be administered by the following progressive measures :

A
  • Written reprimand
  • Suspension
  • Reduction in pay/Demotion
  • Dismissal
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112
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :
Rule Infraction Charges - supervisors needing clarification on any action should seek guidance from ?
This form can be accessed where?

A
  • District/Battalion Chief
  • Chief of Professional Standards

• Target Solutions

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113
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :
After arrest, who must be notified and in what time frame?
Who will they notify?
Where do you report in next duty day?

A
  • within 24hrs of arrest; if jailed, within 24hrs of release
  • Chief of Professional Standards
  • appropriate Division Chief
  • Chief of Professional Standards
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114
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :
Any employee determined to require an extended assignment to administrative duty will have their status reviewed at how many days, to determine what future actions must be taken?

A

• 30 and 180 days

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115
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :

The employee is responsible for notifying who within how many days of your final legal disposition ?

A
  • Chief of Professional Standards

* within five (5) working days

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116
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :

For disciplinary purposes 1 day is equal to how many hours for a 56hr/week employee?

A

12 hours

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117
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

An incident limited to JFRD vehicles or JFRD property and NO injuries requires notification of who?

A

District/Battalion Chief and TSF Manager only

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118
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

Who do Drug and Alcohol Tests get delivered to?

A

Chief of Professional Standards

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119
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

Members of the Vehicle Incident Review Committee - (6)

A
  • Division Chief of Operations (permanent chair, conducts all meetings)
  • Designee appointed by the President of IAFF local #122
  • Manager of Tactical Support Facility
  • Certified EVOC instructor
  • Engineer selected by the Director/Fire Chief for a 1 year term
  • Chairman of the Safety Committee or designee
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120
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

Reviews will be held how often?

A

Quarterly or as needed

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121
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :
Upon completion of the committee’s review, copies of all reports and documentation will be submitted to who?
Who shall complete a Rule Infraction Charge, if appropriate?
The Charge along with supporting documentation will be submitted to who, for what, and then forwarded to who?

A

• Division Chief of Operations
• Division Chief of Operations ->
District/Battalion Chief to review and complete Rule Infraction Supervisor Comments form -> Office of Professional Standards

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122
Q

SAP 331 Citizen Complaint Procedure :
Refer complaints or issues relating to patient care, medical treatment, medical protocols, and transport to who?
All other complaints ?

A

• Office of Quality Improvement
904-255-7785
JFRDQI@coj.net

• Office of Professional Standards
904-255-3306

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123
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :

Discipline will be based on what?

A

Severity of the incident

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124
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :

Time limit for filing complaint?

A

Within thirty (30) days from the date of the alleged discrimination/harassment or within thirty (30) days from the date an applicant could have been reasonably aware that he/she was discriminated/harassed

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125
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :
To file complaint for discrimination/harassment, the individual may contact who, when?
After hours, weekends/holidays?

A

• JFRD’s EEO Officer at HQ
904-630-7577 or 904-234-7264
Monday thru Friday 0800 to 1700
JFRDEEO@coj.net

• After 1700, contact FRCC to reach the Duty Division Chief

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126
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :
Upon completion of the investigation, the EEO Officer should provide a confidential memorandum to who, summarizing the investigative findings?

A

Director of Fire and Rescue

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127
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :
How long should records of complaints filed at the JFRD EEO Officer level be maintained?
In the event of state or federal charges of discrimination?

A
  • No less than two years

* Maintain all records relevant to that matter, until final disposition

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128
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :
When should the JFRD EEO Officer begin to terminate the inquiry and advise the employee of his/her right to file complaint at next level?

A

When the JFRD EEO Officer is reasonably sure that the informal resolution cannot be reached in ten (10) days

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129
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination/Harassment :
If complaint is beyond the thirty (30) days the individual should be referred to ? Within how many days from date of last harm?

A
  • Jacksonville Human Rights Commission (JHRC) (180 days)
  • Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) (300 days)
  • Florida Commission on Human Relations (FCHR) (365 days)
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130
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :
HIPAA required the development of what are commonly known as the Privacy Rule and the Security Rule.
Privacy Rule -
Security Rule -

A
  • Privacy Rule protects the privacy of individually identifiable health info transmitted orally or in writing
  • Security Rule protects a subset of info covered by the Privacy Rule, which is individually identifiable health info a covered entity created, receives, maintains, or transmits in electronic form
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131
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :

Florida Records Laws; appropriate disclosure may be made without consent to the following : (4)

A
  • Patient’s guardian
  • Next of kin if the patient is deceased
  • Parent if the patient is a minor
  • To receiving hospital personnel in conjunction with the treatment of the patient
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132
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :
The Privacy Rule permits JFRD to use and disclose PHI without an individual’s authorization for the following purposes:
(4)

A
  • treatment
  • payment
  • health care operations
  • public health and safety interest purposes
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133
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :

Disclosures of PHI relating to the following public health and safety interest purposes shall be handled by who?

A

JFRD Records Specialist or Privacy Officer

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134
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :
In the absence of a signed authorization for release of PHI from the patient, the PIO or District Chief may only release the following types of de-identified info to the media, where appropriate : (6)

A
  • number of patients
  • age and gender
  • designation of personnel
  • hospital
  • type of transport
  • one word patient condition
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135
Q 
SAP 334 Patient Privacy :
One word patient conditions -
• Undetermined -
• Good -
• Fair -
• Serious -
• Critical -
A
  • patient has not yet been assessed
  • vital signs w/in normal limits, pt comfortable
  • vital signs w/in normal limits, pt uncomfortable
  • vital signs not w/in normal limits, pt acutely ill
  • vital signs not w/in normal limits, patient unconscious
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136
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :

Personnel who receive a subpoena to appear for testimony or deposition shall immediately forward it to who?

A

Privacy Officer at

JFRDPrivacy@coj.net

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137
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :

Requests for health info will be handled within how long?

A

30 days

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138
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :
Breach notification will occur within how many days?
Notifying news media or posting online is required if ?

A
  • 60 days

* affected more than 500 patients

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139
Q

SAP 334 Patient Privacy :
Personnel shall receive patient privacy and HIPAA training when?
Subsequent training, as assigned by whom?

A
  • During initial employment

* Biannual basis as assigned by the Division Chief of Training

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140
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

JFRD performs radio communications on the ___, a ___ system, using mobile and handheld portables

A
  • First Coast Radio System (FCRS)

* 800MHz

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141
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Five Flights and their uses -

A
  • A-Flight - primary/dispatch of everyday incidents
  • B-Flight - fire ground communications for large incidents
  • C-Flight - surrounding agencies, NIMS, and mutual aid
  • D-Flight - hospitals, command staff, and rear rescue personnel
  • E-Flight - hospitals, command staff, and rear rescue personnel
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142
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

FRCC will designate a Flight and Talk Group for the following : (7)

A
  • incidents requiring 5 or more units
  • isolation of an ATU w/LZ unit
  • mutual aid assignments
  • special event radio communications
  • non-emergency field communications
  • multi-department/agency communications
  • field training exercises
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143
Q 
SOG 401 Communications : 
A5 -
A6 -
A8 -
A10 -
A11 and A12 -
A15 -
A16 -
A
  • Special events
  • Hannah park
  • Tactical support
  • Marine operations (JSO and FWC permanently patched
  • conventional, simplex radio frequencies used for short range communications within distances of approx. one mile
  • SJCFR dispatch
  • SJCFR tac channel
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144
Q 
SOG 401 Communications : 
C1 -
C2 -
C3 -
C4 - 
C5 -
C6 -
C7 -
C8 -
C9 -
C10 -
C11 -
C12 - 
C13 - 
C14 -
C15 - 
C16 -
A
  • C1 - RPTR1 a DVRS assigned to Fire 1
  • C2 - JBFD1 JBLG
  • C3 - (tba) (Station 16 unit to unit talk)
  • C4 - JAAOPS
  • C5 - RPTR5 DVRS assigned to Fire 5
  • C6 - NIMS North Branch
  • C7 - NIMS South Branch
  • C8 - NIMS East Branch
  • C9 - NIMS West Branch
  • C10 - HUGENOT
  • C11- (8TAC94) National Mutual Aid Tactical (Tac 4)
  • C12 - (8TAC93) National Mutual Aid Tactical (Tac 3)
  • C13 - (8TAC92) National Mutual Aid Tactical (Tac 2)
  • C14 - (CCFR-PRI) Clay County Dispatch
  • C15 - (CCFR - TAC) Clay County Tac
  • C16 - (MA - FLA) Florida Mutual Aid
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145
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

C16 -

A

(MA-FL) Florida Mutual Aid Channel designated for use during a major incident within the state requiring statewide mutual aid

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146
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
DVRS ?
Who has them?
Channels?

A
  • Digital Vehicular Repeater System
  • Fire 1, 5, 7, and 9
  • C1, C5, A7, and A9
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147
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

What is FRCC equipped with to communicate with other county agencies directly?

A

Florida Interoperability Network (FIN)

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148
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
What is FRCC equipped with that is designed to allow for emergency dispatch centers to immediately communicate with the other public safety communication centers in the region when a major incident occurs?

A

Metro-Jax Talkgroup

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149
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Requests for station equipment problems shall be submitted through where?
Power failures at the station should be reported to who?

A
  • Tivoli system or by calling 255-1818

* FRCC

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150
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

FRCC two locations -

A
  • Primary center JFRD HQ (515 N. Julia St)

* Back up communication center (BUCC) is located at Cecil Airport (5847 Aviation Ave)

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151
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
FRCC shall repeat the following transmissions from field units, including pertinent additional information received from on-scene personnel : (5)

A
  • Disposition updates (“available”, “on scene”)
  • EMS alerts (trauma alert, cardiac red)
  • W signals
  • Maydays
  • Signal 34
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152
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

When will FRCC acknowledge “en route”?

A

If units “en route” from a specific location, FRCC will acknowledge the unit and repeat location

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153
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

The following notifications shall generate the 10 minute increment notification from FRCC : (8)

A
  • Incident command
  • Signal 34
  • Mayday
  • STEMI alert
  • Stroke alert
  • Cardiac red
  • Trauma alert
  • Trauma red
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154
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Units advising Trauma alert, stroke alert, stemi alert, cardiac red, or trauma red will do so as soon as practical giving : (3)

A
  • criteria
  • hospital destination
  • ETA to hospital
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155
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Units Responding from Quarters -
It is the responsibility of field personnel to notify FRCC immediately if the unit dispatched : (3)

A
  • is not in quarters
  • is not appropriately staffed to handle incident
  • has limited capabilities and is unable to handle incident
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156
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Available Units -

It is the responsibility of field personnel to notify FRCC immediately if the unit dispatched : (3)

A
  • is not appropriately staffed to handle incident
  • has limited capabilities and is unable to handle incident
  • is not closest responder at its current location
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157
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Units responding from quarters will acknowledge the receipt of dispatch by performing one of the following in descending order :

A
  • Pressing station FSAS confirmation button
  • Confirm dispatch via red phone
  • Advising “en-route” on appropriate Talk Group
  • Pressing en-route button on Mobile Dispatch Terminal (MDT)
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158
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

What will determine the initial assignment dispatched?

A

The type and amount of information received

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159
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Appropriate police agency will be dispatched for traffic control on the initial dispatch of : (4)

A
  • Commercial structure fires
  • Apartment fires
  • Hazardous material incidents
  • MCI
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160
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
FRCC shall notify who, how, if any incident involves the Skyway?
After hours?

A
  • Skyway Control Center Operator via red phone

* Skyway Operations Manager to meet awaiting suppression company at control center

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161
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Ladder companies are the primary dispatch to what, if they are the closest units?

A
  • Special detail
  • Low hanging wires, wires down, wires arcing or sparking
  • Child locked in vehicles
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162
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Initial Report -

A
  1. Unit ID and assumption of Command
  2. building description (occupancy, size, construction)
  3. Obvious fire conditions and initial tactics
  4. Fire classification
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163
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Suppression benchmarks -

A
  • Incident Command
  • All clear (primary and secondary)
  • Situation under control
  • W4
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164
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Mayday or Signal 34 situation, personnel shall clearly state :

A
  • Unit ID
  • “Mayday! Mayday! FF down/missing”
  • Present location of missing/trapped personnel If known

OR

  • Unit ID
  • “Signal 34”
  • Present location
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165
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

To reset Emergency Alarm Button ?

A

The user must hold the button down until receiving a long steady tone (approx. four seconds) then release

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166
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

An Emergency Assistance Assignment shall consist of ?

A

Maximum Investigative assignment (in addition to the on-scene units) as well as the following :
• rescue unit
• rescue chief
• Appropriate law enforcement agency

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167
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

What stations must always be covered?

A

Stations 40, 48, and 55

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168
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

In what combined territories shall two fully staffed engines and one fully staffed ladder be maintained?

A

1, 2, 4, 5, and 9

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169
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

In what combined territories shall one fully staffed apparatus with a pump be maintained?

A

Stations 60 and 71

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170
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
A secondary RIT consisting of what companies will automatically be assigned on all W-3s involving what type of structures?

A
  • Ladder 4, Heavy Rescue 4, Fire 4

* Large commercial structures (ie. warehouse, strip mall, enclosed mall, office building, etc)

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171
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Investigative assignment -
Maximum investigative assignment -

A

• suppression unit (engine or ladder)

  • engine
  • ladder
  • suppression Chief
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172
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Full assignment -

A

Primary Assignment :
• 2 engines
• 1 ladder
• 1 suppression Chief

Secondary Assignment :
• 2 engines
• 1 ladder
• 2 suppression chiefs
• 1 squad
• 1 rescue chief
• 1 rescue 
• 3 tankers
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173
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Maximum Full Assignment -

A

Consists of Primary and Secondary Full Assignment plus :
• 1 engine
• 1 ladder
• 1 tanker
• 1 suppression Chief
• 2 rescue units
• 1 suppression Chief with mobile repeater system (F1, F5, F7, F9) if not already assigned

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174
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Additional alarms -

A
  • 2 engines
  • 1 ladder
  • 1 suppression Chief
  • 1 F1 or F5 if not already assigned
  • 1 rescue
  • rehab unit
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175
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

General alarms -

A

Events of such magnitude that the IC must consider calling in off/duty firefighters and mutual aid from surrounding counties

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176
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Who can declare W4?
W4 assignment will be automatically assigned to ?
W4 assignment -

A
  • IC or Safety Chief
  • 2nd alarms or greater
  • 1 engine
  • 1 ladder
  • 1 rescue
  • rehab unit
  • air truck
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177
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :

Emergency response does not absolve the operator of the responsibility to drive with ___

A

Due caution

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178
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :
Who is responsible for its safe operation?
Before the vehicle is permitted to move, who will confirm that all personnel and riders are inside, wearing PPE if necessary? And wearing seatbelts?

A
  • operator of the vehicle

* company officer

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179
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

When companies are assigned to spare units, who shall be responsible for the vehicle and its equipment?

A

Company officer

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180
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

Fuel level shall be refilled immediately if ?

A

The level FALLS BELOW 3/4 of total capacity

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181
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :
Should the need for repairs arise, Tactical Support personnel may be contacted how, when?
After hours?

A

• on A8 or 693-1445 from 0700-1700,
5 days a week
• after 1700, FRCC will be notified in lieu of service personnel

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182
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :
Before accepting a vehicle which has been in a repair facility, it will be the responsibility of the engineer/operator to check what?

A

Water level of booster tanks (by visual observation) and all fluid levels prior to placing the vehicle in to service

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183
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

Between what hours, sirens should be limited to what degree?

A
  • 0100 and 0600
  • extent necessary to reasonably ensure warning other traffic and not to such a degree that unnecessary disturbance will be afforded to persons along the route of such emergency run
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184
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

Emergency vehicle drivers must make every possible effort to make what known to other drivers?

A

Presence and intended action

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185
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

JFRD vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limits only when?

A

Favorable conditions
• responding to alarms
• transporting to a medical facility

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186
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

Favorable conditions -

A
  • Light traffic
  • Dry pavement
  • Good visibility
  • Good roads
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187
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operation :

What presents the greatest potential danger to emergency vehicles?

A

Intersections

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188
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

IC system subdivided into 2 stages -

A
  • Initial Response ICS - first operational period (approx. first 12 hours)
  • Extended Operations ICS - when an operation may extend beyond on operational period or in situations where complex planning is required.
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189
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

What is Extended Operations ICS characterized by?

A

Full activation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

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190
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Operating Requirements -

A
  1. Adaptability

2. Expandability

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191
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

The IC must assume responsibility for the following : (4)

A
  • Provide for safety of all personnel
  • Remove, protect, and treat occupants
  • Stop fire or hazard
  • Conserve property
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192
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Initial Report -

A
  1. Unit ID on scene
  2. Building description (occupancy, size, construction)
  3. Obvious conditions and initial tactics
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193
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Tactical Worksheets are a basic written ?

A

Incident Action Plan

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194
Q 
SOG 403 Incident Command :
Subdividing incidents; 
Division - 
Group - 
Their leaders?
A
  • Geographic area of the incident
  • Operationally specific tasks
  • Section Chiefs, Branch Directors, Division/Group Supervisors
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195
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Subdividing should occur in either of the following conditions : (3)

A
  • The incident is developing such that it will eventually involve a number of resources or functions beyond an effective span of control
  • Companies are becoming involved in complex operations
  • Incident requires close control of companies
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196
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :
Divisions may be designated as follows :
(3)
Groups are designated by :

A
  • Direction (ie North, South)
  • Area (ie Roof, Parking Lot A, Beaches)
  • Floor Number (ie Div. 1, Div. 2, Div. 3)

• Function (ie vent group, EMS group, water supply)

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197
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :
When any specialty teams are assigned to an incident, they should remain intact when arriving on scene and be assigned to ?

A

An appropriate Group Supervisor

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198
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

What is the main reason for subdividing an incident?

A

Safety of personnel

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199
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Staging shall be divided into how many levels based on what?

A

2 levels based on the size and complexity of the incident

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200
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Level I staging is the standard for all incidents requiring ?

A

Full assignment or greater as guided by SOGs (structure fire, high-rise)

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201
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Level I staging shall be employed for incidents that require ?

A

Strategic positioning of apparatus but which do not require an on-scene reserve of apparatus

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202
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Level II staging shall be employed for ?

A

Large scale, complex situations that require an on-scene reserve of apparatus, personnel, or equipment

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203
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

The Staging Officer will coordinate with who for available resources?

A

Rehab

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204
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

A staging Officer will be designated by Command on any incident requiring ?

A

Level II staging

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205
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :
Any time personnel will be operating in a potentially hazardous atmosphere or dangerous operation, what will be designated?

A

Safety Officer

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206
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

The tracking of personnel on a scene is who’s responsibility?

A

Everyone’s

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207
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

Once command is established, what should be established soon thereafter?

A

Personnel accountability

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208
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

Who is ultimately responsible for accountability at all incidents?

A

IC

209
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

All crews will : (2)

A

• Work for the IC
OR
• Be assigned to a Division or Group

210
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :
Anyone who suspects that there is a missing or trapped firefighter shall notify who?
Any company officer who suspects or is notified that there is a missing or trapped firefighter shall immediately notify who?

A
  • company officer

* IC, or Division or Group Leader

211
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

JFRD riding list (size) contains -

A

• ex. 3x5 cards

  • Name of each personnel listed by seat/job position, SCBA number and portable radio number
  • The company/unit number
  • Shift
  • Date
212
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :
What is a roll call?
When will one be called?

A

• Head count of personnel

  • There is a possibility of a missing or trapped firefighter
  • Going from an offensive to defensive strategy
  • Anytime Command determines the need to verify that all personnel are accounted for
213
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

What is the key to personnel tracking?

A

Company officer

214
Q

SOG 405 Investigation (Signal 24) :

Equipment carried shall depend upon ?

A

Situation encountered and determined by the OIC

215
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :
Pump or aerial operators working within the hot zone, outside of the involved structure shall don PPE with the following being optional : (3)

A
  • Gloves
  • SCBA
  • Face-piece
216
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Initial Report - (6)

A
  • Unit ID on scene
  • Building description (occupancy, size, construction)
  • Obvious conditions and initial tactics
  • Fire Classification (W1, W3, etc)
  • Radio designation - “Command”
  • Hydrant location
217
Q 
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) : 
First Arriving Engine -
First three things they should do? 
Position engine with the following in 
mind: (5)
A
  1. Proceed to the dispatched location to assess the extent of involvement
  2. Identify the hydrant location or the need to perform a tanker shuttle and transmit this info over the radio
  3. If conditions warrant upon approach, secure a water supply (lay out, provide direction for tanker shuttle, etc.)
  • Hose deployment
  • Fire intensity
  • Overhead wires
  • Location of fire
  • Ladder company access
218
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Structure fires within complexes that utilize private hydrants require who to stage on what type of hydrant?

A

Third arriving engine to stage on a municipal hydrant outside the complex

219
Q 
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) : 
First arriving ladder -
Where should they proceed? 
Position ladder with the following in 
mind: (5)
A 
Proceed to an advantageous location near the affected area of the involved address
• Aerial placement
• Intended use
• Expected progression of the fire
• Width needed for jack deployment
• Overhead wires
220
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Second arriving ladder?

A

Stage uncommitted and await instructions from Command

221
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Tankers can be returned to service prior to arrival if ANY of the following circumstances exist : (3)

A
  • There is a confirmed, working hydrant within 1000 feet of the involved structure
  • The fire is extinguished prior to arrival of tankers
  • There is no fire present
222
Q 
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) : 
First arriving Suppression Chief -
Second arriving Suppression Chief - 
Additional Suppression Chief -
Other arriving chiefs and special personnel -
A
  • Assume Command; establish RIT
  • Counsel with IC; assume ISO unless directed otherwise by command
  • Counsel with IC; assist IC w/necessary incident control activities. May be assigned control of a geographic or task oriented sector by the IC
  • Report directly to the IC
223
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :
Command Options -
Company officer of the first-arriving unit must decide on the appropriate commitment for their company. This will usually fall into one of the following three

A
  • Nothing showing
  • Fast attack
  • Command
224
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Four critical benchmarks must be completed in order and reported via radio :

A
  1. Primary search complete
  2. Situation under control
  3. Secondary search complete
  4. W4
225
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Fireground operations must be structured around ?

A

The completion of the primary search

226
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

The incident is considered to be in ___ until an “All Clear” is given

A

Rescue mode

227
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

What increases the chances of saving lives and property?

A

An aggressive, properly performed interior fire attack

228
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Personnel operating in hazardous areas shall : (2)

A
  • Operate in teams of two or more

* Be in communication by any means

229
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Offensive strategy should be abandoned when : (2)

A
  • The extent of the fire prohibits effective suppression

* The structure becomes unsafe

230
Q 
SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) : 
Defensive Strategy (exterior attack) -
A

Directed at protecting exposures, stopping the forward progress of the fire, and bringing the fire under control

231
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Both of the following signals shall signal evacuation orders :

A

• An order given over the radio
(Evacuate!)
• Repetitive blasts of the apparatus horn

232
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Examples of common geographic divisions are :

A
  • Direction or side of structure
  • Area within or on structure (roof division, interior division, etc)
  • Street (main st., Division, etc.)
233
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Who shall ensure that Post-Fire Decon is performed prior to members reporting to rehab?

A

Rescue District/Battalion Chief

234
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

W4 Signal is policy created to do what?

A

Reduce exposure to carcinogens and products of combustion during overhaul operations, and to better facilitate on-scene health and safety

235
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Minimum apparatus assigned to the W4 signal?

A
  • 1 engine
  • 1 ladder
  • 1 rescue
  • Rehab 5
  • Air 5
236
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

W4 Signal will be automatic in the following cases : (3)

A
  • Primary units exceed one bottle of air prior to a Signal 77 being announced
  • Primary units exceeding 40 mins. of strenuous activity prior to Signal 77 being announced
  • All 2nd Alarms or greater
237
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

What is considered a high rise?

A

Any building which has 4 floors or greater

238
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

First alarm assignment -

A
  • 5 engines
  • 3 ladders
  • 4 suppression chiefs
  • 1 rescue chief
  • 2 squads
  • 2 rescues
  • Special Operations Team (St. 4 and 13)
239
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

If the reported location of the fire is where, stairs shall be used?

A

Below the 7th floor

240
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
Attack Team One - mandatory brief stop?
Survey and determine?

A

Two floors below the fire. Survey floor plan and take note of standpipe valve.
Determine feasibility of this location being used as a “Forward Staging Area”

241
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Upon arrival at reported fire floor ?

A

Report conditions, actions, needs

242
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

All efforts should be directed around what?

A

Placing the first hose line in service for fire suppression

243
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Initial Ladder Co. operational priorities -

A
  • Support efforts of the “Fire Attack Team”
  • Top priority will be forcible entry, search and rescue, ventilation, and checking for extension.
  • They shall retain their normal radio designation and will not be paired with another Ladder Company unless directed by Command
244
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

3rd Ladder Co. -

A
  • Initiate PPV and RIT
  • Pressurize building and then stairwells
  • Pair up with 2nd Squad (one floor below fire floor) for RIT
245
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

1st Squad -

A
  • Enter building, announce stairwell, ascend to room accounting for victims
  • Once on roof, check all sides of building for visible fire or victims
  • Do primary search of the top floor and descend the opposite stairwell accounting for victims
246
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

2nd Squad -

A

• Form the RIT (one floor below fire floor)

247
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

1st Ladder Company -

A
  • Set up aerial in most advantageous place and conduct rapid needs assessment for use of exterior ladder ops
  • If no immediate or possible use, proceed to fire floor
  • Drop cordless PPV fan w/50’ cord at front
248
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

2nd Ladder Co. -

A
  • Park in location for secondary ladder ops on opposite side, conduct rapid needs assessment for use of exterior ops
  • If no immediate or possible use, proceed to fire floor from opposite stairwell if possible
  • Drop cordless PPV fan w/50’ cord at front
249
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

1st Suppression Chief should ensure what has been initiated if a confirmed fire?

A

Ensure a 2nd and 3rd Alarm as well as a Level 1 MCI has been initiated if confirmed fire

250
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

IC must ensure following tasks and assignments are assigned to remainder of the 1st Alarm assignment - (7)

A

• Water supply into FDC
• RIT
• Safety Officer
• EMS Group
• Assign Fire Floor Chief (radio designation “Forward Ops”)
• Assign “Lobby Control Chief”
• If necessary : Assign suppression officer to “Panel Control”
IC must ensure coordination of stairwell use, via Lobby Control

251
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

In order to properly manage the extra alarm companies, Command shall establish the following : (3)

A 
• IC aide (location : command post)
• Forward Staging Officer
(location : 2 floors below the fire)
• Exterior Staging Officer 
(Location : Level II staging)
252
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
Rapid Ascent Team job?
What should they obtain prior to ascent?

A
  • One suppression company must be assigned to every stairwell in the building. Their job is to repeatedly search for occupants in the stairwell and assist in removing them as needed
  • The RAT’s will also coordinate with Fire Attack and Ventilation Teams (opening, closing doors, roof, etc)
  • Periodically report conditions in the stairwell as well
  • Master keys (if available)
253
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Firefighter operator assigned to elevator shall have ?

A
  • SCBA
  • Radio
  • Set of irons
254
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Secondary priorities -

A
  • Rehab
  • Utilities
  • Secondary Search
  • Salvage
255
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Where will forward rehab be located?

A

If fire is located on an upper floor, two floors below if practical

256
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Utilities - (5)

A
  • Gas
  • Electric
  • Back up power supply
  • Mechanical rooms
  • Fire Sprinkler systems
257
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
What should be considered if elevator use is not available and forward staging is above 7th floor?
To be created by whom?

A
  • Stairway Support Group

* Lobby Control

258
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
Firefighter assigned to elevator radio designation ?
Who do they coordinate transport of personnel and equipment with?

A
  • Elevator 1

* “Lobby Control” and “Forward Staging”

259
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Phase I may be activated in three (3) ways:

A
  1. Fire alarm system automatically by smoke
  2. Fire alarm system automatically by heat sensors
  3. Firefighters (manually) using the Key switches on the call station
260
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

All buildings, how many stories or more, are required to be keyed the same by the State of FL? (Elevator service keys)

A
  • Seven (7) stories or more

* Some older buildings and buildings under seven (7) stories may not comply

261
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

What does a “FLASHING RED HELMET” indicate?

A

This is a warning that the “Shunt Trip” is preparing to activate

262
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

If a high rise buildings internal pump system is not working properly, what is of the essence?

A

Speed in supplying the FDC

263
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

PDP calculations will need to be adjusted based on what circumstances? (4)

A
  • Building height
  • Fire location
  • Hose diameter
  • Nozzle requirements
264
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
JFRDs recommendation for standpipe hose and nozzle shall be based on the oldest standard which only guarantees what psi minimum OUTLET pressure?

A

65 psi

265
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
Standpipe outlets outfitted with pressure reducing valves (PRV) or pressure reducing devices (PRD) can limit flow/psi available. Which, in most cases, can be removed and adjusted and which may be more difficult to adjust?

A
  • PRDs can be removed or adjusted

* PRVs difficult

266
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

First floor standpipe outlet supply is not possible if equipped with?

A

PRV - pressure reducing VALVE

267
Q 
SOG 407 High Rise : 
Low flow tip size -
Full stream reach at what PSI -
GPM -
FL -
A
  • 1/2”
  • 30 PSI
  • 40 GPM
  • 1PSI FL
268
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

What is recommended personal hand tool?

A

Wire cutters

269
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
What has always been a priority of a burning structure?
What is the number 1 reason?

A
  • Rapid ventilation

* Replace the toxic atmosphere with fresh air

270
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Fans can operate for how many mins. on battery power prior to what volt power source?

A

45mins / 110v

271
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
In the event of MAYDAY and interior crews using a repeater channel, what channel should all other interior crews switch to?

A

Simplex A11

272
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Search priority-

A
  • Fire floor
  • Floor directly above fire
  • Top floor
  • Work down from top floor
273
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

RAT tool compliment - (6)

A
  • Spare SCBA bottle
  • Hydra-Ram
  • Irons
  • Gas meter
  • Stairway keys/access cards
  • Door latch straps
274
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Which stairwell should have a RAT assigned first?

A

Attack stairwell

275
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Gas monitor should be used to monitor CO in which stairwell on what floor?

A

Stairwell above the fire floor

276
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :

All RIT members shall make note of : (5)

A
  • Type of structure
  • It’s construction characteristics
  • Where crews are operating
  • Any openings or access points immediately visible
  • Fire progression/collapse potential
277
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :

RIT members should begin softening structure by : (4)

A
  • Removing obstructions from windows/doors
  • Secure utilities if not done prior to arrival
  • Place ladders for egress and communicate location to interior crews
  • Stretching appropriate RIT line
278
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :

Before RIT is deployed, what officers will be designated?

A

• RIT Group (Chief or Senior Officer)
• RIT group safety (in addition to overall
Incident Safety Officer)

279
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :

Who should be deployed, if not already on scene, as soon as a MAYDAY is transmitted?

A

Technical Rescue Team (TRT)

280
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :
In the circumstances of RIT, who is in original talk group?
First expansion?
Second expansion?
Who communicates with the victim on the original talk group?

A
  • Lost/trapped firefighter
  • Tactical operations
  • RIT Group
  • RIT Group OIC or designee
281
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :
Who designates the entry point?
Based on?
What entry point should be used?

A
  • RIT Group OIC
  • Info gathered over the radio and during size-up
  • Closest, quickest, safest
282
Q

SOG 408 Rapid Intervention Team :

What is most important action once the lost:trapped firefighter has been found?

A

Maintaining air supply

283
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :
What is the Drought Index ?
It ranges from ?

A
  • Measure of the water content of the soul taken daily by DOF
  • 0-0800; higher the number the lower the moisture and the more dangerous the conditions
284
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :

Command will be established on all Wildland fires involving a FRL of what?

A

FRL 3 or greater

285
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :

Command post site should have a large enough area for what?

A

To land a helicopter

286
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :
Companies with considerable brush and Urban Interface fire potential shall size up those areas with regards to the following areas : (5)

A
  • Life hazards (schools, nursing homes, trailer parks)
  • Exposure
  • Access roads
  • Water supply
  • Natural fire breaks
287
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :
The following are guidelines for use in abnormal and/or extreme fire behavior with multiple structures threatened and firefighting resources extremely limited :

Structure may be deemed hopeless when one of the following conditions exist : (3)

A
  • 25% or more of the roof involved
  • Water supply low
  • Personnel safety at risk
288
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :
Structural protection -
• How many min. commitment -
• How many units per structure in isolated area?
• How many units per structure in subdivisions?
• Limit hose lays to ?

A
  • 15mins
  • 1 unit per structure
  • 1 unit per 2 structures
  • 200’
289
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :

The fire is considered contained when there is what percentage extinguishment within how many feet of the fire line?

A

100% extinguishment within 100’ of the fireline

290
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :

When the Drought Index reaches what number or higher, the fire fire needs to be checked how often until what?

A

400 or higher; daily until it is cold

291
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :

What should be established on ALL Wildland fires?

A
  • Lookouts
  • Communications
  • Escape Routes
  • Safety zones
292
Q

SOG 409 Wildland Fires :

How much of your booster tanks capacity should you maintain for your protection?

A

25%

293
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :

Hurricane season -

A

June 1 through November 30

294
Q 
SOG 410 Hurricane : 
Hurricane Stages :
Hurricane alert -
Hurricane watch -
Hurricane warning -
A
  • 84hrs prior to landfall
  • 36-60 hours prior to landfall
  • 24-36 hours prior to landfall
295
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :

Who establishes command at the EOC, utilizing what?

A

The mayor; NIMS model

296
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :

Who joins other county officials at the EOC? (5)

A
  • Director/Fire Chief
  • Division Chief of Operations
  • Division Chief of Rescue
  • Division Chief of Emergency Preparedness
  • Assistant Division Chiefs
297
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :
Units housed in structures not suitable for winds above ___ must be evacuated how many hours prior to landfall?
Who maintains a master list of these stations and station evacuation requirements?

A
  • 74mph
  • 6hrs
  • Division Chief of Operations
298
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :
Leading cause of death during Hurricane?
Second leading?

A
  • Drowning

* Electrical hazard

299
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :

What is the most potentially destructive force of any major Hurricane?

A

Storm surge

300
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :

When necessary, evacuation orders will only be issued by who?

A

Governor or mayor

301
Q

SOG 410 Hurricane :

Should any situation not covered by this plan arise, the company officer shall:

A

• Take appropriate action
OR
• Refer the matter to a higher authority

302
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

What will dictate who the on scene coordinator/incident commander will be?

A

The degree of agency involvement

303
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
When a call is received indicating a possible HazMat incident, FRCC will attempt to obtain info regarding the incident and materials involved, including: (6)

A
  • Name
  • Amount
  • Type
  • Size of container
  • Type of problem (leak, spill, fire, etc)
  • Properties of the reported material
304
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Establishing Incident Command is required by ___ and is not an option.

A

Federal law

305
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

A ___ must be designated to monitor operations. This is required by federal law and is not an option.

A

Safety Officer

306
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

A critical aspect of the response to a HazMat incident is ?

A

Size up of the situation

307
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Upon arrival of the first JFRD unit, there are certain factors/conditions that must be considered before any commitment of JFRD personnel : (7)

A
  • wind conditions
  • humidity
  • topography of incident location
  • areas of involvement (open or confined space)
  • immediate need for rescue
  • type of material involved (solid, liquid, vapor)
  • hazards of the materials involved
308
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

The objective of size-up is to the following reasons : (3)

A
  1. Identify the product involved
  2. Assess the nature and severity of the problem
  3. Gather sufficient info to formulate a valid Incident Action Plan
309
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
What is a primary consideration in the size up of any HazMat Incident and the prime responsibility of the first arriving unit?

A

Identification of the materials involved and the hazards presented. This is the prime responsibility of the first arriving unit.

310
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

To help identify the hazard, personnel shall check for the following : (6)

A
  • Labels
  • Placards
  • Markers
  • Shipping papers
  • Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
  • Find and talk to the driver if possible
311
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

What does the Incident Action Plan begin with?

A

A thorough on-scene analysis by the first arriving company officer

312
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Formulate the Incident Action Plan utilizing the following priorities : (4)

A
  1. Safety of JFRD personnel
  2. Safety of civilians
  3. Conservation of property
  4. Control/Stabilization of incident
313
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Control/Stabilization of Incident -
Defensive - (2)
Offensive - (3)

A
  • Directing runoff to a safe holding area
  • Dissipating vapors
  • Diluting materials
  • Neutralizing substance
  • Plugging or shutting off leak
314
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Immediately after identifying the hazard, what shall be established?
Zoning will be divided into how many areas, determined by who?

A
  • Control zones

* Three distinct areas, determined by HazMat teams

315
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

The success of Decon, like that of any operation, is based on what?

A

Standardization

316
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

When determining method of decontamination, consider the properties of the hazardous materials involved - (5)

A
  • Health hazards
  • Effects on the skin
  • Toxicity
  • Reactivity
  • Solubility
317
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Three general methods of decontamination ?

A
  • Dilution
  • Absorption
  • Degradation
318
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
All JFRD personnel who are decontaminated will be required to undergo medical evaluation upon exiting Decon Zone. Thy will be observed in the rehab area for how long?

A

Minimum 30 mins.

319
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

DOT Hazard Classes -

A
  1. Explosives
  2. Compressed gases
  3. Flammable liquids
  4. Flammable solids
  5. Oxidizers
  6. Toxic
  7. Radioactive
  8. Corrosives
  9. Miscellaneous Hazardous Materials
320
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Class 1 - Explosives :
Initial isolation distance ?

A

2000 feet

321
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Class 2 - Compressed Gases :
Pressure vessels should have a minimum of how many GPM applied at each point of flame impingement?

Propane expansion ratio?

A
  • 500 GPM

* 270:1

322
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Propane :
How many times heavier than air -
Flammable range -

A
  • 1.5 times heavier than air

* 2.1 - 9.5%

323
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Anhydrous ammonia :
Lighter or heavier than air?
Can do what?

A

• lighter than air
• can ignite and explode
• shipped as poisonous gas
(non-flammable)

324
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Methane :
Lighter or heavier than air?
Flammable range?

A
  • lighter than air

* 5-15%

325
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Size of residential gas lines ?
Commercial ?
Primary feeders ?

A
  • 1/2 inch - 3/4 inch poly or plastic line
  • 1-2 inch poly or plastic line
  • 2-24 inch poly or metal lines
326
Q 
SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Class 3 - Flammable Liquids :
Vapors of all flammable liquids are lighter or heavier than air? 
If small fires present?
Large fires?
A
  • heavier
  • use dry chemical, CO2, or foam extinguisher
  • appropriate foam or water spray
327
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Reportable quantities for hydrocarbons and necessary agencies in the event of a spill are as follow :
• Environmental Resource Management Department (ERMD) -
• Florida Dept. of Environmental Protection (FDEP) -
• United States Coast Guard (USCG) -

A

• 10 gallons or more spilled
• 25 gallons or more spilled
• spills in navigable waterways or tributaries to those waterways
- spills create sheen on the water. No specific gallon amount

328
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Any quantity of petroleum product which reaches or those which potentially could reach a navigable waterway will require notification of ?

A
  • ERMD
  • State Warning Point
  • USCG
329
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Generally, what has special properties that make detonation likely if they’re heated beyond their transportation temperatures?

A

Organic peroxides

330
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Class 7 Radioactive -
Hot zone shall be any area with an exposure level of ?
Digilert 50 should be set at ?

A
  • 2mR/hr

* 0.1mR/hr or 100 cpm

331
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

CBRNE -

A
  • Chemical
  • Biological
  • Radiological
  • Nuclear
  • Explosive
332
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Chemical; generally chemical agents are in what form at room temperature?
How are they disseminated?
How long to evaporate?

A
  • Liquid

* Liquids are disseminated as aerosols and may evaporate in a matter of minutes or may take weeks to evaporate

333
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Chemical warfare agents classified in 5 groups :

A
  • Blister agent (mustard, lewisite, etc)
  • Blood agent (cyanide group)
  • Choking agent (chlorine, phosgene, etc)
  • Irritants (riot and tear gases)
  • Nerve agents (tabun, sarin, soman, VX)
334
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Biological agents -

A

Living organisms or are derived from living organisms.

1000 times more lethal than a chemical agent and are invisible to the senses

335
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Biological agents include :

A
  • Anthrax
  • Tularemia
  • Plague
  • VEE
  • Botulinum toxin
  • Q-Fever
  • Ebola
  • Brucellosis
  • Smallpox
336
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
What type of material may be involved with response to dirty bombs, sabotage of nuclear power plants, or transportation vehicles?

A

Radiation

337
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Radiological -
Rapid rescues can be made for counts as high as ___ when wearing full PPE and SCBA

A

25R/hr

338
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

What are the most common CBRNE weapons used by terrorists?

A

Explosives

339
Q

SOG 412 Train Derailment :

Where May waybills be located?

A

• Locomotive
• Caboose
• Or with conductor
Or in all three locations

340
Q

SOG 412 Train Derailment :

Evacuation considerations : (4)

A
  • How will it be accomplished?
  • Where will evacuees be taken?
  • Is there additional staffing needed to accomplish the evacuation?
  • Is assistance from other agencies needed?
341
Q 
SOG 414 Mass Casualty Incidents :
Level 1 -
Level 2 -
Level 3 -
Level 4 -
Level 5 -
A
  • 5-10
  • 11-20
  • 21-100
  • 100-1000
  • Over 1000 victims or when regional resources are exhausted or overwhelmed
342
Q 
SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incident : 
FOG # 1 -
FOG # 2 -
FOG # 3 -
FOG # 4 -
FOG # 5 -
FOG # 6 -
FOG # 7 -
A
  • Do duties outlined
  • Command
  • Medical Branch Officer
  • Triage
  • Treatment
  • Transport
  • Staging
343
Q

SOG 413 Mass Casualty Incident :
Where is MCI truck and trailer for immediate needs throughout the region?
Trailer that Carrie’s assortment of equipment and supplies for immediate needs on JIA property?
Trailer that carries equipment for long term needs?

A
  • MCI-9 Station 9; attached truck/trailer
  • MCI-16 Station 16; trailer
  • MCI-32 Station 32; trailer
344
Q 
SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit :
Minimum size of LZ -
Roads w/min. of how many lanes -
Ground slope -
Clearance in approach path -
A
  • 100’ x 100’ day or night
  • 2 lanes
  • less than 5°
  • 30’
345
Q

SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit :
What must be designated as soon as possible after calling for an ATU?
Radio frequency often used for communications?

A
  • Ground guide

* A5

346
Q

SOG 415 Air Transportation Unit :

Ground guide shall provide the following to the ATU pilot : (3)

A
  • Location
  • Definition
  • Obstructions
347
Q

SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies :

Disconnecting switches/breakers are usually located in one of the following areas : (3)

A
  • In the basement of the hoist way
  • In the elevator machine room
  • Near the elevator machine room
348
Q

SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies :

What type of elevators are always provided with a crank?

A

Geared elevators

349
Q

SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies :

How are the top guide shoes fastened?

A

To the cross head by four bolts

350
Q

SOG 417 Elevator Emergencies :

Fires occurring within elevator hoist ways; primary hazard?

A

Smoke

351
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :
A confined space refers to a space which :
(4)

A

• Is not intended for continuous occupancy
• Has limited openings for entry and exit
• Has unfavorable natural ventilation which may contain :
- toxic and/or flammable atmosphere
OR
- oxygen levels below 19.5% or above 23.5%
• Is an open-top spaces more than four feet deep

352
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :
Personnel should await the arrival of a District Chief before making entry into the Confined Space if any of the following conditions exist : (3)

A
  • The victim is obviously deceased
  • The victim is out of the line of sight
  • Entry can not be made with SCBA properly donned
353
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

Command Positions - (4)

A
  • IC
  • Safety Officer
  • Accountability Officer
  • Rehabilitation Officer
354
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

Operational Positions - (6)

A
  • Atmosphere monitoring
  • Ventilation
  • Lock out/Tag out
  • Attendant
  • Entry team
  • Entry rescue team
355
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

RIT team for confined space shall consist of?

A

2 members for every 1 on entry team

356
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

The space should be sufficiently ventilated so that levels if combustibles do not exceed ? Toxic substances?

A

• 10% of their lower explosive limit (LEL);
Nor should toxic substances be permitted to reach their respective threshold limit values (TLV)
• Toxic substances should not be permitted to reach their respective threshold limit values (TLV)

357
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

Direct communications with the entry team may be accomplished by the following ways : (4)

A
  • Hard wire communication
  • Line of sight (hand signals)
  • Direct voice communications
  • Radio
358
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

All personnel entering Confined Space shall don the following : (3)

A
  • Wear a full body harness
  • Wear an SCBA or SAR
  • Have a lifeline attached
359
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :
Engines must carry what rope/size and quantity?
What engines carry an additional rope, type and size?
Ladders?
How is lifeline rope labeled?

A

• 2 - utility rope (1/2 inch x 200 feet)

  • Engines 43 and 48 (in addition to 2- utility ropes)
  • 1 - life safety (1/2 inch x 200 feet)
  • Three - utility lines (1/2 inch x 200 feet)
  • Two - life safety lines (1/2 inch x 200 feet)
  • One - RIT rope (6mm x 130 feet)

• Labeled as such at each end

360
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :
All utility and life safety lines used by the JFRD are of what type?
What provides approx 75% of rope’s tensile strength?
25%?

A
  • Static Kernmantle
  • Load carrying core (kern)
  • Tightly braided outer sheath (mantle)
361
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :
One/half inch lifeline has tensile strength of ?
Safety factor ?
Actual usable capacity of the line ?
What is NFPA standard for two person load?

A
  • 9000 pounds
  • 15:1
  • 600 pounds
  • 600 pounds
362
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :

Most common form of rope destruction?

A

Abrasion

363
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :
Nylon static kernmantle rope becomes sticky at what temp?
Melts ?

A
  • 445°F

* Between 480° and 500°F

364
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :

Do not store rope in compartments with of near what three items?

A
  • Batteries
  • Gas cans
  • Gas powered equipment
365
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :

What will shorten the life of a rope?

A

Dirt through abrasion

366
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :
If possible, what type of washer should you use?
What type of water/soap?

A
  • Commercial washer or front loading washer machine with glass front. If using washing machine, the rope must be placed in its bag
  • Wash in cold water with a mild soap; never use bleach
367
Q

SOG 419 Ropes :

How often should the rope be inspected?

A

Weekly and after each use

368
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

What is recommended be used at the scene to verify that power is disconnected?

A

Tig-Tracers

369
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Elevations in some areas of the San Marco section are?

A

Exceed 52 feet

370
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Main power to the Skyway is supplied to ?

A

Substations located at Central and San Marco stations and O&M Center

371
Q 
SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express : 
Transformers are located outside of the substations supply power to where?
What do they supply power to? 
Where are those located? 
What do they supply power to?
A

Substations - San Marco, Central, and O&M Center
• Breakers (located inside equipment rooms at each of these stations) —>
Power Disconnect Panels (PDPs) —>
PDPs are located at each passenger station and switch —>
PDPs supply power to the three power rails that power the cars traction motors, inverters, and APU’s

372
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Transformers at the Control Center and each substation supply power to what?

A

The stations and station equipment

373
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Do not access guideway until what procedures have been completed?

A

Emergency Power Shut Down

374
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Methods of power shut down ?

A
  1. Control Center

2. Blue Light Stations

375
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
Where is the Y-Junction area?
If an emergency exists in this area, it will require shutting down power where?

A
  • Y-Junction located at Bay and Jefferson St
  • San Marco station and either the Jefferson St. or Central Stations (by blue light station or control room system shut down)
376
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

The Y-Junction has a section of track that is ___

A

Hydraulically operated and electrically actuated.

377
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
Where are intercoms at the Skyway Express Control Center?
Where is control room located?

A
  • On front gate and the front door

* second floor of the Skyway Control Center building

378
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

There will be no operator on duty at the Skyway Control Center from what times?

A

2330 Friday night until 0400 Monday morning

379
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
The Control Center is equipped with what type of extinguishing system?
When activated, what does it do?
What three areas is it used in the Skyway building?

A
  • FM-200
  • creates an O2 deficient atmosphere
  • Control room
  • Computer room
  • Signal room
380
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
Doors on Skyway cars have what type of glass?
Car’s remaining windows?

A
  • tempered

* Lexan

381
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Emergency walkways are how wide and provided on what side of the cars?

A

18-30 inches wide; provided on the inboard side of the cars throughout the system

382
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Cars run on what type of system and held in place how?

A

Monorail beam system and held in place by the force of the guidance wheels on the monorail beam

383
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
Each vehicle is comprised of two cars
(“A and B” car) permanently linked. What is the total vehicle capacity?

A

56 people or 28 per car

384
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
Electrical traction motors are located under the car between how many sets of running wheels?
Where are electronics located?
What type of batteries and where?

A
  • three
  • inside compartments in the “A” car; they can also be found between the cars in the inner car sections
  • nickel cadmium (NICAD); located under the seats in the “A” car only. Can be accessed from inside or outside of the car
385
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :

Use what extinguishers on battery fire?

A

Metal-X

386
Q

SOG 420 Automated Skyway Express :
First arriving Chief -
Second arriving Chief -

A
  • Assume command

* Report to the control center and assume control room sector

387
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :
JFRD personnel shall be tested and certified in the safe and proper use of the SCBA and face piece : (2)
Done by who using what measures?

A

• Prior to use by new personnel
AND
• Annually for all personnel

• Training Division; quantitative measures

388
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :

Trained how often until proficient to don SCBA within 2mins?

A

Quarterly

389
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :
Personnel shall use SCBA in conjunction with appropriate PPE when working in or entering a confined space or an area where any of the following exists : (3)

A
  • The atmosphere is hazardous
  • The atmosphere is suspected of being hazardous
  • The atmosphere may rapidly become hazardous
390
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :

Minimum fill pressure of SCBA?

A

4050 PSI

391
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :

What is essential to the reliable long-term operation of JFRD SCBAs?

A

Well planned, executed, and documented preventative maintenance program

392
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :

Cleaning, maintenance, and storage if the SAR system will be responsibility of ?

A

Special Operations Team

393
Q

SOG 421 Respiratory Protection :

SCBA bottles must be over-filled by ?

A

10% max (4950)

394
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :

BSI is generally accomplished by ?

A

Barrier techniques

395
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :

What are the most effective products for reducing the number of germs on the hands of healthcare providers?

A

Alcohol based hand sanitizers

396
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :

In the event of needle stick or other skin puncture, the wound should be scrubbed with ?

A

Soap and warm water as soon as possible and rinsed with a 1:100 solution of household bleach and water

397
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :
Soiled/contaminated uniforms or protective clothing are to be placed in how many red bags?
Placed in extractor for what cycle for Decon?

A
  • 2 red bags

* 30 cycle

398
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :

Surfaces and equipment (stretchers, backboards, floors, walls, etc) should be scrubbed with ?

A

Hot, soapy water and rinsed with a 1:100 solution of household bleach and water

399
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :

After removing all PPE, how long should you wash your hands for?

A

Minimum of 20 seconds in warm water

400
Q

SOG 422 Infection Control :

Tactical Support shall be requested via what, to pick up biowaste?

A

Tivoli

401
Q

SOG 423 Infectious Exposure :

Life threatening infectious diseases that emergency responders can be exposed to include : (4)

A
  • HIV
  • Hep A, B, and C
  • Pulmonary TB
  • Meningitis
402
Q

SOG 423 Infectious Exposure :

Full treatment for most communicable diseases can be initiated within how many hours without complications?

A

72hrs

403
Q

SOG 424 Bomb/WMD investigation :

While in staging, the JFRD IC will ensure that the following responsibilities are assigned : (3)

A
  • Crew with portable extinguishers
  • Crew with EMS jump kit
  • Crew with hi-rise kit (when multi-story or large floor area structures are involved)
404
Q

SOG 424 Bomb/WMD investigation :

Where are the two quick release handles on JSO bomb suit?

A

One that is visible on the chest and another in the side under the left arm (near where his hand is and looks identical to the one on his chest)

405
Q

SOG 426 Crime Scene :

What is a major factor in preserving and protecting crime scenes?

A

Situational awareness

406
Q

SOG 426 Crime Scene :

A visual examination is usually all that is required in the cases below : (4)

A
  • Severe burns
  • Decapitation
  • Dismemberment
  • Advanced decomposition
407
Q

SOG 427 Open Burning :
Open burning must be how far away from any public highway or road AND with wind carrying smoke away from any traffic thoroughfare?

A

At least 100 feet

408
Q

SOG 427 Open Burning :
For residential land clearing, any fire must be how far away from any occupied buildings?
For commercial clearing w/out air curtain?
W/air curtain?

A
  • 300 feet
  • 1000 feet
  • 300 feet
409
Q

SOG 427 Open Burning :

Recreational fire total fuel area -

A

Not exceeding 3 feet in diameter and 2 feet in height

410
Q

SOG 427 Open Burning :

Who issues citation books?

A

Division Chief of Prevention

411
Q

SOG 431 Marine Operation :

JFRD’s primary marine units are housed where?

A

Stations 38, 39, and 40

412
Q

SOG 431 Marine Operations :

JFRD primary vessels include -

A
  • Jake Godbold - 50 feet
  • Robert F. Kiley - 70 feet 10 inches
  • 37 foot boat
  • 29 foot boat
  • 19 foot RHIB
413
Q 
SOG 431 Marine Operations : 
VHF Channels :
Safety channel -
Calling channel -
Navigational channel -
Distress, safety, hailing channel -
Coast guard channels -
Noncommercial channels -
A
  • Ch. 6
  • Ch. 9
  • Ch. 13
  • Ch. 16
  • Ch. 21A, 22A, 23A, 83A
  • Ch. 68, 69, 71, 72, 78A
414
Q

SOG 431 Marine Operations :
Before proceeding offshore (where?) the person in charge shall assess?
How often shall the vessel confirm location and status with FRCC?

A
  • Beyond Mayport jetties
  • Assess weather conditions, sea state, vessel limitations, and severity of situation
  • Every 15mins
415
Q

SOG 431 Marine Operations :

Because of which stations low elevation, it shall require evacuation during any hurricane above what category?

A

Stations 38 and 40; above Category 1

416
Q

SOG 431 Marine Operations :
Which vessels will be manned with a minimum of how many qualified operators for the duration of the threat of a hurricane or tropical storm?

A
  • Godbold (50 foot) and Kiley (70 foot)

* minimum of 4

417
Q

SOG 431 Marine Operations :
Smaller vessels will be removed from water for hurricane category 1 or above 12hrs prior to tropical force storm winds and stored where?

A

Station 37

418
Q

SOG 432 Aircraft Incidents :

When selecting a command post, consideration should be given to ?

A

The certainty that multiple representatives from other agencies will be involved

419
Q

SOG 209 Engineer :

Who is directly responsible for company level maintenance and cleanliness of all equipment carried on their apparatus?

A

Engineer

420
Q

SOP 220 Fire Extinguishers:

The UL rating lists the suppression capabilities of fire extinguishers in terms of what?

A

Amount of agent and/or size of the fire

421
Q

SOP 220 Fire Extinguishers :

Why do alcohol resistant foam extinguishers have a higher rating than untreated water?

A

Due to added surfactants

422
Q

SOP 222 Fire Hydrants :

FRCC shall notify JEA by emailing who with info of OOS hydrants?

A

FireHydrantMaintenanceRequest@coj.net

423
Q

SOP 250 Civil Disorder :

Who establishes “hot zone” boundary? Who is this info relayed to?

A

Task Force Group Chief; FRCC

424
Q

SOP 253 Personnel Conduct - Emergency Scenes and Non-Emergency Detail :
HIPAA guarantees a patients right to privacy and the safeguard of their protected health information (PHI) by converted entities….who are the covered entities? (3)

A

Anyone who provides treatment, payment, and operations in healthcare

425
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury / Limited Duty :
Limited duty personnel must coordinate appointments pertaining to their injury with who?
All paperwork listing appointments must be delivered to who?

A
  • The HSO or the supervisor of their assigned work location

* HSO

426
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury / Limited Duty :
If required, the following reports shall be completed as soon as possible following incident by the Health & Safety Officer : (5)

A
  • Worker’s Compensation Medical Report Form
  • First Report of Injury or Illness (online)
  • Florida Fire Service Casualty Report
  • JFRD Exposure Report Form
  • Source Patient Tracking Form
427
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury / Limited Duty :

Any inquiries or “need for verification” are to be directed to who, during what hours?

A
  • Health & Safety Officer during normal business hours

* If unable to contact the HSO then contact FRCC and FRCC will then contact the Health & Safety Officer

428
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :

The maintenance of discipline is a responsibility and function of who?

A

Command

429
Q

SAP 304 Disciplinary Action :

The standards for disciplinary action included in this directive have been established pursuant to ?

A

Civil Service and Personnel Rules and Regulations

430
Q

SAP 304 Disciplinary Action :
In determining the severity of the discipline to be applied, the administration should take into account the following variables : (6)

A
  • The severity of the disciplinary violation
  • The circumstances in which the violation occurred
  • The consequences of the employee’s action in regard to its effects on the Department’s assigned mission, or the City of Jacksonville, and on other employee’s
  • The overall work record of the employee
  • If this was not the first offense for the employee, the length of time since earlier disciplinary actions, the similarity or dissimilarity of offenses and the severity of the earlier offenses
  • Other relevant factors may be appropriate to consider under certain circumstances
431
Q

SAP 304 Disciplinary Action :

Where can Rule Infraction Charges Forms be accessed?

A

Target Solutions by selecting File Center then select JFRD forms

432
Q

SAP 304 Disciplinary Action :

The Chief of Professional Standards will serve in what capacity and be responsible for what?

A

Administrative support capacity and will be responsible for the preparation of all necessary documents dealing with disciplinary action and presentation of said documents to the appropriate Division Chief

433
Q

SAP 304 Disciplinary Action :

1st offense violations that result in dismissal : (3)

A
  • Accepting or soliciting a bribe
  • Appropriating any found properly for one’s own use
  • Failure to comply with JFRD or City of Jax policy on use of alcohol or drugs
434
Q 
SAP 304 Disciplinary Action : 
Violations that results in :
1st offense - 1 day suspension
2nd offense - 2 days suspension 
3rd offense - Demotion/Reduction in pay (5% for 6 months)
4th offense - Dismissal
A
  • Disrespectful, rebellious language or insubordination toward a supervisor
  • Failure to inform one’s supervisor when taking medication or using therapeutic treatments that could impair performance
  • Failure to obey the lawful order of a superior
  • Failure to obtain written permission from the Director/Fire Chief before giving testimonials or permitting one’s photograph or name to be used for advertising purposes in which employment with JFRD is reflected or inferred
  • Failure to render prompt and courteous service to the public
  • Feigning sickness or injury to escape duty
  • Failure to maintain the confidentiality of official info according to policy
  • Failure to obtain written permission from the Director/Fire Chief before publishing an article as an official representative of JFRD or acting as a correspondent to any news media
  • Argumentative, threatening, abusive, disrespectful tones of voice or aggressive posturing used towards other JFRD members of the public
435
Q 
SAP 304 Disciplinary Action : 
Violations resulting in :
1st offense - 6hrs suspension
2nd offense - 1 day suspension
3rd offense - 2 days suspension
4th offense - Demotion/Reduction in pay (5% for 6 months)
5th offense - Dismissal
A
  • Absence without permission or leave
  • Accepting employment or engaging in any business which interferes with the efficient performance of one’s regular JFRD employment
436
Q 
SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents : 
Company officer (or person in charge of the vehicle) notify FRCC of : (4)
A
  • Circumstances
  • Injuries (JFRD or other)
  • Need for additional units
  • Company status
437
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

When the scene is stabilized, what should the company officer complete?

A

Vehicle Damage Report and ensure law enforcement agency CCR or report number is included

438
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

In the event of an accident, FRCC notifies who? (4)

A
  • District/Battalion Chief
  • Law enforcement
  • Tac Support
  • City Insurance/Claims Adjuster
439
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

The VDR should include info from who?

A

The operator, company officer, and witnesses

440
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :
Vehicle Incident Review Committee -
Who will ensure that all pertinent VDR’s are complete and sufficient data is available for the committee to review?

A

The recording secretary

441
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

The chairperson may request any of the following info regarding the vehicle operator that may be pertinent :

A
  • Previous Vehicle Damage Reports

* Civilian driving record from the Department of Motor Vehicles

442
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

Class I Incident -

A

Defined as an incident that was not preventable, or the investigation indicates no fault on the part of the JFRD engineer/operator or company officer (examples : citation issues to private party)

443
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

Class II Incident -

A

An incident that has been determined to be the fault of the engineer/operator and/or company officer who violated JFRD Rules and Regulations, violated FL driving statutes, misjudged clearance, or failed to drive defensively (examples : backing incidents, any incident where JFRD engineer/operator is cited by LE agency)

444
Q

SAP 323 Vehicle Incidents :

Class III Incident -

A

An incident which occurred because the engineer/operator and/or company officer displayed negligence, a willful disregard for JFRD Rules and Regulations or FL driving statutes (example : excessive speed, aggressive driving, failure to yield, DUI on duty)

445
Q

SAP 331 Citizen Complaint Procedure :

This policy does not prevent JFRD personnel from the following regarding a complaint : (3)

A
  • Taking immediate action towards resolution
  • Notification of an immediate supervisor
  • Ensuring proper notification(s) or referral(s) are made
446
Q

SAP 333 Discrimination / Harassment :

Should questions arise regarding a disclosure request; the matter will be referred to?

A

The EO/EA Division

447
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :
What is the Florida Information Protection Act?
FIPA expands the definition of “personal information” to include ?

A
  • A state law that requires government agencies and businesses that acquire, maintain, store, or use personal info of a consumer, to take reasonable measures to protect, safeguard and provide notice of breaches of such personal info.
  • A person’s first name or first initial and last name in combo with a person’s health insurance or medical info.
448
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :
Personnel shall take reasonable care and follow these procedures to properly secure all PHI (electronic, paper, and oral) from unauthorized access or release: (6)

A
  • Log off and lock computers when unattended (this includes remote access)
  • Close laptop lid when not in use to avoid leaving PHI visible on the screen
  • Do not share passwords
  • Physically secure all devices which contain PHI when not in use
  • Avoid forwarding or including PHI to a private email account
  • Avoid removing PHI from the workplace or inadvertently taking PHI home
449
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :

JFRD may obtain employee health information in several ways, most commonly, ? (4)

A
  • In relation to a work related injury
  • Illness or exposure
  • Participation in employer-provided wellness programs
  • When an employee requests medical leave or a disability accommodation
450
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :
To aid in ensuring personnel and workplace safety, nothing her in shall be construed to prohibit JFRD (HSO or agent) from having access to employee health info and from disclosing such info in limited situations, such as : (6)

A
  • To supervisors who need to know about work restrictions or accommodations, especially for an employee requiring an adjusted work environment
  • To individuals investigating compliance (OSHA, ADA, etc)
  • As required for workers’ compensation claims
  • As necessary to first responders who are providing medical treatment to employee
  • As necessary if employee’s illness or infection poses a serious and imminent threat to the health and safety of others and to lessen the threat and/or to prevent spread
  • To safety personnel if a condition might require assistance (such as help during an emergency evacuation)
451
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :
Disclosures of PHI relating to the following public health and safety interest purposes shall be handled by the JFRD Records Specialist or Privacy Officer : (10)

A
  • For care of patient
  • Public health surveillance
  • Victims of abuse, neglect or domestic violence
  • Health oversight activities
  • Judicial and administrative proceedings
  • Serious threat to health and safety
  • Worker’s compensation
  • Decedents
  • Cadaveric organ, eye, or tissue donation
  • Essential government function
452
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :
Personnel who receive a subpoena requesting the production of JFRD documents or files shall immediately forward the subpoena to who?

A

Records Specialist at

JFRDRecordsRequest@coj.net

453
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :
Personnel who are requested to provide a sworn out-of-court statement, testimony or to answer questions regarding a work related event or response, without a court-ordered subpoena, can only do so if ? Who should they contact for guidance?

A
  • If the patient to whom the inquiry is about has provided express written authorization specifically granting permission to the JFRD employee (by name) to discuss or otherwise disclose PHI to the specific third party/attorney (by name)
  • Privacy Officer
454
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :

Whenever a request is made regarding a patient’s PHI, the Records Specialist shall verify what?

A

The identity and authority of the person’s requesting PHI

455
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

FRCC will rebroadcast what 15 seconds after initial dispatch for the benefit of the responding units?

A

Assigned talk group

456
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Units en-route to maintenance facilities will advise FRCC what? (4)

A

Out-of-position, on-scene, returning-to-quarters, and back-in-position

457
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

During multi-unit responses, the downgrading of an initial assignment may occur if ?

A

An on-scene unit provides an initial report, a fire classification, and the appropriate Chief acknowledges the report and for FRCC to conduct a Roll-Call

458
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

FRCC shall upgrade an assignment based upon information received from ?

A

• A complainant
• Another agency
• Field personnel
Provided responding units have not arrived

459
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

What incidents will require at least one Squad assigned as RIT?

A
  • All structure fires
  • Hazardous Materials incident
  • Special Operations incidents
460
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

What companies shall not be used as transfer companies but may conduct standbys within their first due territory?

A

The suppression apparatus assigned to the Hazardous Materials Teams
(Stations 7 and 21)
and the Special Operations Teams (Stations 4 and 13)

461
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Who is the Decontamination Team comprised of?

A

Fire Station 21

462
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
Who is the Special Operations Team comprised of?
What do they respond to?

A

• Fire Stations 4 and 13

  • Confined Space Rescue Operations
  • High Angle Rescue Operations
  • Trench Collapse Rescue Operations
  • Industrial machinery incidents involving entrapment
  • Structural Collapse
  • Extrications involving tractor trailers, buses, trains, or multiple vehicles
  • High Rise Structure Fires
  • Confirmed W-3’s involving commercial buildings (IC should consider using the Special Ops team as RIT)

F4 will be assigned to all incidents involving the Special Operations Team

463
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
2nd Alarm Assignments shall be dispatched when advised by?
For notification purposes only, FRCC will notify all stations of additional Alarm Assignments by ?

A
  • JFRD personnel only

* Activating the All Stations tones and broadcasting alarm, location, and TalkGroup

464
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

Mutual Aid Structure Fire Assignment :

A
  • 2 - Engines
  • 1 - Ladder
  • 1 - Squad
  • 1 - Tanker (if appropriate)
  • 2 - Suppression Chiefs
  • Notify the appropriate suppression BC if not assigned to the incident
465
Q

SOG 401 Communications :
There is no longer a dedicated ATU channel. Landing zone communications should be on the appropriate Bravo expansion channel such as ?

A

B2 or B6

466
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :

___ shall always have priority over speedy arrival?

A

Safe arrival

467
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :

Prompt, safe response shall be attained by : (7)

A
  • Quickly mounting vehicles
  • Ensuring all personnel are onboard, seated, and have seatbelts fastened
  • Waiting for bay doors to open completely
  • Leaving the station in a standard manner
  • Knowing the route to be taken
  • Driving defensively and professionally at reasonable speeds
  • Using audible warning devices when necessary
468
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :
Engineer/Operators shall inspect their assigned vehicle daily to determine its condition. What should they check and then complete and sign?

A

They shall check the water level of booster tanks (by visual observation into the tank) along with all other fluid levels on the vehicle. They shall then complete and sign the Engineer’s Daily Apparatus Report

469
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :

Maintenance and general cleaning will be performed?

A

Also daily

470
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :
When the first arriving unit reports “situation stable” or “nothing showing” etc., any additional units shall continue how?

A

Emergency response with lights and sirens but shall not exceed the posted speed limit

471
Q

SOG 402 Vehicle Operations :
Under favorable conditions, a max. of how many mph over posted speed limit is authorized?
Under less than favorable conditions?
If it becomes necessary to travel in the center or oncoming traffic lanes?

A
  • Max. of 20min over posted speed limit
  • The posted speed limit is max. permissible
  • Max. permissible speed shall be 20mph
472
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

The use of ICS is mandatory on all incidents ?

A

Involving 5 or more units

473
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

What will dictate the complexity of the ICS utilized?

A

The complexity of the incident will dictate the complexity of the ICS utilized and the resources necessary for efficient command operations

474
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Command procedures are designed to accomplish the following : (4)

A
  • Fix the responsibility for Command
  • Ensure that strong, direct, and visible Command is established as early as possible
  • Provide a system for the orderly transfer of Command as expansion or reduction is needed
  • Outline the activities and responsibilities of Command
475
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Who is final authority for the incident?

A

The Incident Commander (IC)

476
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

The relieved officer will brief the officer assuming Command, indicating the following areas : (3)

A
  1. General situational status including,
    A. threats to life, B. current conditions,
    C. effectiveness of control efforts
  2. Deployment and assignment of operating companies
  3. Appraisal of needs for additional resources at that time
477
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Benefits to subdividing incidents : (5)

A
  • Increase the overall safety of the incident
  • Permits a more manageable span-of-control by reducing the number of personnel Command must directly oversee
  • Reduces the amount of radio communication during the incident. Inside the sectors subdivisions, routine communication between companies and their supervisor are conducted in a more effective face-to-face mode
  • Allows Command to communicate primarily with supervisors rather than individual companies
  • Allows Command concentration on overall strategy and resource allocation
478
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

Subdividing should occur in either of the following conditions : (3)

A
  • The incident is developing such that it will eventually involve a number of resources or functions beyond an effective span-of-control
  • Companies are becoming involved in complex operations
  • Incident requires close control of companies
479
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

What will enhance the safety factor for personnel?

A

The assignment of complete crews to an area of operation

480
Q

SOG 403 Incident Command :

When will a Safety Officer be designated?

A

Anytime personnel will be operating in a potentially hazardous atmosphere or dangerous operation

481
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

A Roll-Call will be initiated when : (3)

A
  • There is the possibility of a missing or trapped firefighter
  • Going from offensive to defensive strategy
  • Anytime Command determines the need to verify that all personnel are accounted for
482
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

On structures other than small, single family residences, what shall be requested if personnel is unaccounted for?

A

An additional alarm

483
Q

SOG 404 Personnel Accountability :

Who should make sure that the portable radio and SCBA number both coincide with the proper seat number?

A

All personnel

484
Q

SOG 405 Investigations (Signal 24) :

What may warrant forcing entry?

A

Signs of heat, smoke or other hazardous conditions may warrant forcing entry

485
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

First arriving Rescue : (4)

A
  • Proceed directly to the scene and place their apparatus in a location that will provide unobstructed egress for patient transport while not impeding placement or operations of suppression companies
  • Prepare to assist with fire suppression tasks if needed
  • If rescue becomes blocked by supply hose, apparatus or for any other reason cannot quickly egress the scene, the OIC must notify Command immediately
  • Identify a rehab area and transmit location to Command
486
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Primary Search should be conducted where?

A

In all involved and exposed occupancies that can be entered

487
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

When is Secondary Search completed?

A

This is done following initial fire control operations, to absolutely confirm the presence or absence of victims

488
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

What does a critical Command decision (both initial and ongoing) relate to?

A

The offensive/defensive strategies of the situation

489
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :
If a JFRD engine or ladder responds to a structure fire will how many FFs on board, the company officer shall notify who?

A

Less than three FFs; FRCC

490
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

It is the IC’s responsibility to provide for ? And continually determine ?

A

Life safety; and to continually determine if the involved building is tenable for interior operations

491
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

When is the evacuation process complete?

A

When all affected crews and crew members are accounted for

492
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Who manages the incident rehab and ensures all required documentation is completed and delivered where?

A

Rescue District/Battalion Chief; HQ

493
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :
When released from the scene by Command, who will immediately return to quarters and all crew members will thoroughly decontaminate their PPE and shower?

A

All units contaminated with products of combustion

494
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Use what to confirm the presence of vapors? (Flammable liquids)

A

Combustible Gas Indicator meter

495
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Class 3 Flammable Liquids -
For large fires involving containers, what should you do and observe?
For spills/leaks?

A
  • Additional cooling streams should be applied to the vapor space, above the product level
  • Observe tank metal for bulging or red spots
  • Listen for pinging or loud noises from the tank that increase in activity
  • Try to eliminate all sources of ignition
  • Try to prevent from reaching storm, sewer, or water systems
  • Dig trenches or build dikes to control flow
496
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
The JFRD has many bulk storage facilities in its response area. Personnel must consider the following during fire operations involving atmospheric storage tanks : (3)

A
  • Sufficient water supply for tank cooling
  • Foam supply
  • Possibility for long term involvement
497
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :
Class 5 Oxidizers -
If involved in fire :

A
  • Try cooling containers with large amounts of water

* If this is not possible, withdraw and let the fire burn

498
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Nuclear incidents may involve?

A

They have the potential for detonation if a nuclear device. These incidents may involve military bases, plane crashes, or terrorist incidents

499
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

RadAlert50s can measure ?

A
  • Alpha
  • Beta
  • Gamma
  • X-ray radiation
500
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

Radioactive material may emit a range of radiation, from ?

A

Low dose alpha to high dose gamma

501
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

Lighting should ?

A

Reflect the potential atmosphere of the space

502
Q

SOG 418 Confined Space :

The potential for what should be a primary concern?

A

Flammable atmosphere

503
Q

SOP 217 JFRD Uniform :

Dark blue beanie style hats may be worn during the winter months. Only what are permitted on the hat?

A

Only JFRD or the company name and number are permitted on the hat

504
Q

SOP 217 JFRD uniform :

An inventory of approved items will be maintained where?

A

JFRD FTP site

505
Q

SOP 221 Hose Testing :

Company officers desiring to test hose in an out-of-service stairs must -

A

Receive permission from FRCC and notify their District Chief

506
Q

SOP 222 Fire Hydrants :

The documentation of hydrant inspections will be completed on the hydrant applications. Go to -

A

Target Solutions -> File Center -> JFRD Fire Suppression Resources -> Hydrant Inspection Application Instructions or the FTP site for instructions on how to enter inspections in the application

507
Q

SAP 302 Job Injury / Limited Duty :
Return to full duty - Personnel returning from OJI must bring what to HSO?
HSO will notify who? Who will they notify?

A
  • Doctor’s slip certifying “return to full duty”

* HSO -> District/Battalion Chief -> company officer when the employee will be returning to work

508
Q

SAP 304 Discipline Action :
Major disciplinary infractions are those types of behaviors which, because of their serious nature may warrant ? on the first occurrence.

A
  • suspension
  • reduction in pay
  • demotion
  • dismissal
509
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :

Uniformed personnel shall wear what uniform when appearing in-person or via video conference for JFRD related subpoena?

A

Class B or Class C

510
Q

SAP 344 Patient Privacy :

Personnel shall receive patient privacy and HIPAA training how often?

A

During initial employment; subsequent and recurrent training shall occur on a biannual basis as assigned by the Division Chief of Training or will be provided due to material change in the patient privacy policies or for whom training is appropriate to carry out assigned job functions

511
Q

SOG 401 Communications :

The C flight is ….

A

Shared system throughout the city

512
Q

SOG 406 Structure Fire (Signal 25) :

Examples of common task oriented groups and some of their responsibilities-(5)

A
  • Search and rescue group
  • Attack group
  • Water supply group
  • Ventilation group
  • Air supply group
513
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

High rise structures may have a wide variety of differences such as - (3)

A
  • age
  • height
  • occupancy
514
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :

Stairway Support a group should be considered if ?

A

Elevator use is not available and the Forward Staging is above the 7th floor

515
Q

SOG 407 High Rise :
The resupply of SCBA cylinders may be best accomplished how?
Methods of transport to and from the Forward Staging area shall be determined by who?

A
  • by use of personnel committed to transporting full cylinders to the lobby and empty ones to the air supply unit
  • methods of transport to and from the forward staging area shall be determined by Lobby Control
516
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

The person in charge of the first arriving JFRD unit will establish Command. They will advise all responding units of?

A

Where to stage and, if possible, a safer arrival route to the incident location

517
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

The warm zone provides for a designated entrance to ? and a designated exit route through ?

A

Entrance to hot zone; exit through decontamination station

518
Q

SOG 411 Hazardous Materials :

What will be determined by the HazMat team?

A
  • Size of decon zone
  • Number of decon stations
  • Decontamination agents
  • Degree of decon

Engineer (8 decks)

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