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quiz4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
Select one:
a. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
b. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
d. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula

A

b. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

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2
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Select one:
a. Hip flexors
b. Upper trapezius
c. Gluteus maximus and medius
d. Adductor complex

A

d. Adductor complex

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3
Q

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Select one:
a. Overall base strength
b. Core stability
c. Balance
d. Motor unit recruitment

A

d. Motor unit recruitment

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4
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Select one:
a. Sensorimotor function
b. Vision
c. Vestibular
d. Somatosensation

A

d. Somatosensation

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5
Q

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?
Select one:
a. Barbell squat
b. Pull-up
c. Bench press
d. Push-up

A

c. Bench press

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6
Q

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Select one:
a. Giant set
b. Drop set
c. Complex training
d. Pyramid system

A

c. Complex training

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7
Q

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?
Select one:
a. Neuroplasticity
b. Motor function
c. Muscle function
d. Wolff’s law

A

b. Motor function

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8
Q

What is end-diastolic volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

A

a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

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9
Q

What is bioenergetics?
Select one:
a. The study of metabolism during exercise
b. The study of weight loss
c. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
d. The study of aerobic metabolism

A

c. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy

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10
Q

Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?
Select one:
a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
d. The highest elevation of the body in space

A

a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

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11
Q

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Select one:
a. Valsalva maneuver
b. Venous pooling
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
d. Peripheral resistance

A

c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

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12
Q

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
Select one:
a. Injury resistance
b. Performance
c. Rehabilitation
d. Posture

A

a. Injury resistance

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13
Q

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
Select one:
a. Muscle hypertrophy
b. Muscle endurance
c. Muscle power
d. Muscle strength

A

a. Muscle hypertrophy

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14
Q

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Iliopsoas
d. Rotatores

A

d. Rotatores

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15
Q

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
Select one:
a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Pulmonary veins
d. Right atrium

A

a. Left atrium

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16
Q

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Sagittal and transverse
b. All planes of motion
c. Frontal and sagittal
d. Transverse and frontal

A

c. Frontal and sagittal

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17
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Select one:
a. Somatosensory system
b. Auditory system
c. Visual system
d. Vestibular system

A

c. Visual system

18
Q

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Multifidus
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Gluteus maximus

A

b. Multifidus

19
Q

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
Select one:
a. Plyometrics
b. Core
c. Rehabilitation
d. Resistance training

A

c. Rehabilitation

20
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Select one:
a. Body fat loss
b. Decreased volume and intensity
c. Muscle mass atrophy
d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

A

a. Body fat loss

21
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae
b. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid
c. Infraspinatus and teres minor
d. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris

A

c. Infraspinatus and teres minor

22
Q

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?
Select one:
a. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness.
b. NEAT can increase muscle mass.
c. NEAT can be protective against obesity.
d. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.

A

c. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

23
Q

What is the principle of specificity?
Select one:
a. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle
b. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
c. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
d. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

A

b. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

24
Q

What does EMG stand for?
Select one:
a. Electromagnetic spectrum
b. Elektrokardiogramm
c. Electrocardiogram
d. Electromyography

A

d. Electromyography

25
Q

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

A

b. Phase 2

26
Q

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
Select one:
a. BOSU balls
b. Suspended bodyweight trainers
c. Medicine balls
d. Strength machines

A

c. Medicine balls

27
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Side plank
b. Floor crunch
c. Medicine ball soccer throw
d. Cable rotation

A

a. Side plank

28
Q

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Select one:
a. Lat pulldown
b. Ball cobra
c. Close grip bench press
d. Seated cable row

A

c. Close grip bench press

29
Q

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
c. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
d. Cancer and bleeding disorders

A

b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

30
Q

Which of the following is magnesium classified as?
Select one:
a. Trace mineral
b. Macromineral
c. Macronutrient
d. Vitamin

A

b. Macromineral

31
Q

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
Select one:
a. Bench press
b. Triceps extension
c. Back squat
d. Calf raise

A

c. Back squat

32
Q

Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Select one:
a. Health risk assessment
b. Anthropometric assessment
c. Postural assessment
d. Cardiorespiratory assessment

A

a. Health risk assessment

33
Q

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?
Select one:
a. Aqua therapy
b. Biomechanical ankle platform system
c. Stable floor environment
d. Weight training

A

b. Biomechanical ankle platform system

34
Q

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?
Select one:
a. Somatosensation
b. Vision
c. Strength
d. Vestibular senses

A

c. Strength

35
Q

What is cardiac output?
Select one:
a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

36
Q

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Select one:
a. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
c. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
d. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.

A

b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

37
Q

Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
b. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

A

d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

38
Q

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Select one:
a. Acetyl CoA
b. ATP
c. Amino acids
d. Pyruvate

A

a. Acetyl CoA

39
Q

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?
Select one:
a. Exercise activity thermogenesis
b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
d. Thermic effect of food

A

b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

40
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
c. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation
d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

A

a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

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