quiz2

Question 1

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Select one:
a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
b. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
c. Pull the elbows into extension
d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Answer 1

d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Question 2

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Select one:
a. Nonsynovial
b. Nonaxial
c. Condyloid
d. Synovial

Answer 2

b. Nonaxial

Question 3

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
Select one:
a. 4 to 5 drills
b. 6 to 8 drills
c. 9 or 10 drills
d. 2 to 4 drills

Answer 3

b. 6 to 8 drills

Question 4

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Select one:
a. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
b. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Answer 4

a. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Question 5

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Select one:
a. Long (broad) jump
b. Pro shuttle
c. 40-yard dash
d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Answer 5

b. Pro shuttle

Question 6

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Select one:
a. Anterior oblique subsystem
b. Lateral subsystem
c. Posterior oblique subsystem
d. Deep longitudinal subsystem

Answer 6

b. Lateral subsystem

Question 7

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?
Select one:
a. Stopping
b. Acceptance
c. Cognitive fusion
d. Reverse listing

Answer 7

c. Cognitive fusion

Question 8

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
Select one:
a. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.
b. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.
c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
d. The attempt at jumping will fail.

Answer 8

c. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

Question 9

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
Select one:
a. Certified dietitian nutritionist
b. Certified nutrition specialist
c. Registered dietitian nutritionist
d. Licensed dietitian

Answer 9

c. Registered dietitian nutritionist

Question 10

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Increased lipolysis
b. Increased lipogenesis
c. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
d. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume

Answer 10

a. Increased lipolysis

Question 11

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
Select one:
a. 3 to 5 drills
b. 6 to 10 drills
c. 10 to 15 drills
d. 1 to 3 drills

Answer 11

b. 6 to 10 drills

Question 12

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?
Select one:
a. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
b. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
c. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
d. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

Answer 12

a. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

Question 13

When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct?
Select one:
a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
b. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
c. All individuals have “lack of time” as a barrier.
d. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.

Answer 13

a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.

Question 14

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?
Select one:
a. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking
b. The approximate midpoint of the body
c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

Answer 14

b. The approximate midpoint of the body

Question 15

At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?
Select one:
a. 22
b. 30
c. 25
d. 18

Answer 15

c. 25

Question 16

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?
Select one:
a. Resistance training
b. Client’s choice
c. Activation
d. Skill development

Answer 16

c. Activation

Question 17

Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements?
Select one:
a. Loaded movements
b. Closed-chain movements
c. Suspended bodyweight movements
d. Open-chain movements

Answer 17

b. Closed-chain movements

Question 18

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Select one:
a. Lower crossed syndrome
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome
c. Knee valgus
d. Upper crossed syndrome

Answer 18

b. Pes planus distortion syndrome

Question 19

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
Select one:
a. About 30%
b. About 50%
c. About 5-15%
d. About 90%

Answer 19

c. About 5-15%

Question 20

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?
Select one:
a. There is no difference.
b. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
c. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label.
d. Supplement labels only list active ingredients.

Answer 20

b. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

Question 21

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client’s outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Select one:
a. Helping make the exercises fun
b. Improving their confidence for their technique
c. Providing information on the health benefits
d. Helping them make a plan

Answer 21

c. Providing information on the health benefits

Question 22

What is a common cause of chronic hypertension?
Select one:
a. A low-fat diet
b. 1,500 mg of sodium per day
c. Excess weight
d. Vigorous exercise

Answer 22

c. Excess weight

Question 23

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Select one:
a. Transverse
b. Dorsal
c. Sagittal
d. Frontal

Answer 23

a. Transverse

Question 24

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?
Select one:
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Platelets
d. Plasma

Answer 24

c. Platelets

Question 25

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
Select one:
a. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
b. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
c. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

Answer 25

d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

Question 26

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Select one:
a. Explosive jumps
b. Small jumps
c. Fast, powerful movements
d. Dynamic motion

Answer 26

b. Small jumps

Question 27

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
Select one:
a. Energy imagery
b. Appearance imagery
c. Positive self-talk
d. Technique imagery

Answer 27

b. Appearance imagery

Question 28

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Select one:
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Appropriateness
d. Relevance

Answer 28

a. Validity

Question 29

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
Select one:
a. Heart valve problem
b. Hypertension
c. Arrhythmia
d. Ischemic heart disease

Answer 29

d. Ischemic heart disease

Question 30

The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

Answer 30

a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

Question 31

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypertension
c. Hypotension
d. Hyperglycemia

Answer 31

d. Hyperglycemia

Question 32

Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Select one:
a. Stability ball push-up
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Lat pulldown
d. Dumbbell shoulder press

Answer 32

b. Front medicine ball oblique throw

Question 33

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Blood pressure
c. Resting heart rate
d. Flexibility

Answer 33

d. Flexibility

Question 34

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Select one:
a. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.
b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
c. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety.
d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

Answer 34

d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

Question 35

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Select one:
a. Core strength
b. Core endurance
c. Core stability
d. Core power

Answer 35

a. Core strength

Question 36

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
Select one:
a. The approximate midpoint of the body
b. The location of where one foot touches the ground
c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

Answer 36

c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

Question 37

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Osteopenia

Answer 37

c. Osteoarthritis