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1
Q

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
Select one:
a. 9 or 10 drills per workout
b. 4 to 8 drills per workout
c. 2 or 3 drills per workout
d. 1 or 2 drills per workout

A

b. 4 to 8 drills per workout

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2
Q

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects?
Select one:
a. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm
b. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement
c. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach
d. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

A

d. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

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3
Q

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?
Select one:
a. A very low-carbohydrate diet
b. A low-protein diet
c. High-intensity exercise
d. A caloric surplus

A

a. A very low-carbohydrate diet

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Select one:
a. Agility
b. Coordination
c. Quickness
d. Balance

A

c. Quickness

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5
Q

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:
a. Lack of fatty acids
b. Free hydrogen ions
c. Lack of pyruvate
d. Depletion of phosphocreatine

A

b. Free hydrogen ions

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6
Q

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Select one:
a. Ability to stretch in small increments
b. Ability to stretch only one muscle
c. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
d. Altered movement patterns

A

d. Altered movement patterns

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7
Q

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Medial gastrocnemius
b. Lateral triceps brachii
c. Middle deltoid
d. Lateral hamstrings

A

c. Middle deltoid

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8
Q

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
Select one:
a. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded
b. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)
c. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

A

d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

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9
Q

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?
Select one:
a. Hip extension
b. Knee flexion
c. Ankle dorsiflexion
d. Hip flexion

A

a. Hip extension

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10
Q

How many B vitamins are there?
Select one:
a. 21
b. 8
c. 12
d. 3

A

b. 8

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11
Q

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Select one:
a. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
d. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

A

d. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

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12
Q

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?
Select one:
a. Reach to their shin
b. Reach to their toes
c. Reach to their knee
d. Reach to their waist

A

c. Reach to their knee

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13
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:
a. 5 or 6 sets
b. 1 or 2 sets
c. 7 to 8 sets
d. 3 or 4 sets

A

d. 3 or 4 sets

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14
Q

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
Select one:
a. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate
b. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise
c. 120 beats per minute
d. 140 beats per minute

A

d. 140 beats per minute

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15
Q

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Select one:
a. Neurotransmitter
b. Mechanoreceptor
c. Nociceptor
d. Action potential

A

c. Nociceptor

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16
Q

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Select one:
a. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power
b. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed
c. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

A

d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

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17
Q

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Standing cobra
b. Knee-up
c. Reverse crunch
d. Floor bridge

A

a. Standing cobra

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18
Q

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone’s decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Select one:
a. Societal influence
b. Health influence
c. Group influence
d. Peer pressure

A

c. Group influence

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19
Q

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Select one:
a. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
c. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
d. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

A

d. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

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20
Q

What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power
b. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
c. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
d. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power

A

b. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

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21
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Select one:
a. Speed
b. Power
c. Neuromuscular stabilization
d. Strength

A

c. Neuromuscular stabilization

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22
Q

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:
a. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
b. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
c. Hamstrings and erector spinae
d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

A

c. Hamstrings and erector spinae

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23
Q

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
c. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
d. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency

A

b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

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24
Q

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Select one:
a. Growth and volume
b. Strength and stabilization
c. Strength and volume
d. Growth and stabilization

A

a. Growth and volume

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25
Q

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
b. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
c. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
d. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.

A

a. Measuring intensity by one’s “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

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26
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Select one:
a. Hip internal rotation
b. Hip adduction
c. Hip extension
d. Hip flexion

A

c. Hip extension

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27
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:
a. Subscapularis
b. Infraspinatus
c. Anterior tibialis
d. Scalenes

A

a. Subscapularis

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28
Q

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Select one:
a. Thoracic spine
b. Lumbar spine
c. Sagittal plane
d. Frontal plane

A

a. Thoracic spine

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29
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
b. Tuck jump
c. Butt kick
d. Power step-up

A

a. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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30
Q

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Select one:
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 3
c. Phase 5
d. Phase 2

A

b. Phase 3

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31
Q

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Select one:
a. Cortisol
b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
c. Calcitonin
d. Glucagon

A

b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

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32
Q

Balance is best described as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping
b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
c. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate
d. The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration

A

b. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

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33
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Erector spinae
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

c. Transverse abdominis

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34
Q

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.
b. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

A

d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

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35
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?
Select one:
a. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
b. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum
c. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
d. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine

A

a. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

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36
Q

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Select one:
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 5

A

b. Phase 2

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37
Q

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 3

A

a. Phase 5

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38
Q

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
Select one:
a. Proprioceptive training
b. Steady-state aerobic training
c. Low-impact activity
d. High-impact activity

A

c. Low-impact activity

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39
Q

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
Select one:
a. 5 or 6 sets
b. 1 or 2 sets
c. 6 to 8 sets
d. 3 or 4 sets

A

b. 1 or 2 sets

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40
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?
Select one:
a. Bird dog
b. Medicine ball woodchop throw
c. Reverse crunch
d. Cable chop

A

b. Medicine ball woodchop throw

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41
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 1

A

d. Phase 1

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42
Q

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Select one:
a. Ball squat
b. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
c. Squat, curl to two-arm press
d. Multiplanar step-up

A

c. Squat, curl to two-arm press

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43
Q

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
Select one:
a. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
b. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
d. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers

A

c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

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44
Q

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Select one:
a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client’s armpits.
c. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.
d. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.

A

b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client’s armpits.

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45
Q

What is end-diastolic volume?
Select one:
a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

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46
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Power training
b. Stabilization training
c. Plyometric training
d. SAQ training

A

c. Plyometric training

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47
Q

What is cardiac output?
Select one:
a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

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48
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Select one:
a. Sandbag
b. ViPR
c. Kettlebell
d. Medicine ball

A

d. Medicine ball

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49
Q

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Select one:
a. Plyometric exercise
b. Balance exercise
c. Strength-focused exercise
d. Stabilization-focused exercise

A

d. Stabilization-focused exercise

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50
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Select one:
a. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
b. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure
c. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake
d. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure

A

a. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

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51
Q

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Pelvic floor muscles
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Multifidus
d. Erector spinae

A

d. Erector spinae

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52
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Select one:
a. Back extension
b. Dead bug
c. Medicine ball overhead throw
d. Plank

A

a. Back extension

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53
Q

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
Select one:
a. Speed
b. Stride rate
c. Acceleration
d. Assessment of visual stimuli

A

d. Assessment of visual stimuli

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54
Q

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Select one:
a. The ATP-PC system
b. The electron transport chain
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Glycolysis

A

d. Glycolysis

55
Q

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
Select one:
a. 1 second
b. 4 seconds
c. 2 seconds
d. 3 seconds

A

b. 4 seconds

56
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Select one:
a. Medial pelvic tilt
b. Posterior pelvic tilt
c. Anterior pelvic tilt
d. Lateral pelvic tilt

A

b. Posterior pelvic tilt

57
Q

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
Select one:
a. Vitamin C
b. B vitamins
c. Fat-soluble vitamins
d. Water-soluble vitamins

A

b. B vitamins

58
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Select one:
a. Hip hinge
b. Squatting
c. Pushing
d. Pulling

A

c. Pushing

59
Q

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Select one:
a. Bound angle pose
b. Plow pose
c. Cat pose
d. Downward dog pose

A

b. Plow pose

60
Q

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Select one:
a. Eccentric
b. Stabilization
c. Concentric
d. Amortization

A

d. Amortization

61
Q

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
Select one:
a. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase
b. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
c. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases
d. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase

A

b. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

62
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Select one:
a. Precaution
b. Psychological concern
c. Contraindication
d. Cardiovascular precaution

A

c. Contraindication

63
Q

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?
Select one:
a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
b. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.
d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

A

d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

64
Q

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?
Select one:
a. Only athletes need plyometric training.
b. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
c. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement.
d. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched.

A

b. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

65
Q

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Select one:
a. Beta-oxidation
b. Acidosis
c. Ketosis
d. Glycolysis

A

a. Beta-oxidation

66
Q

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Select one:
a. Strength
b. Change of direction
c. Speed
d. Power

A

b. Change of direction

67
Q

Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?
Select one:
a. Magnesium and sodium
b. Sodium and calcium
c. Sodium and potassium
d. Potassium and manganese

A

c. Sodium and potassium

68
Q

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Select one:
a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
b. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
c. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
d. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors

A

a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

69
Q

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
Select one:
a. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.
b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
c. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

A

d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

70
Q

Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?
Select one:
a. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
b. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.
c. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements.
d. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients.

A

a. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

71
Q

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Select one:
a. Carotid artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Radial artery
d. Femoral artery

A

b. Brachial artery

72
Q

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
Select one:
a. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field.
b. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
c. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments.
d. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion.

A

b. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

73
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Action

A

c. Preparation

74
Q

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Select one:
a. Integrated training
b. Circuit training
c. Isolated training
d. Hypertrophy training

A

a. Integrated training

75
Q

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Select one:
a. Back squat
b. Medicine ball throw
c. Drawing-in maneuver
d. Bracing

A

c. Drawing-in maneuver

76
Q

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
Select one:
a. 0 sets
b. 7 to 9 sets
c. 5 or 6 sets
d. 1 to 4 sets

A

d. 1 to 4 sets

77
Q

A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?
Select one:
a. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.
b. Participants have people they can compare themselves with. Being able to see what others can do and achieve can serve as further motivation.
c. When a group or situation is warm and inviting, it brings people together; when people feel welcome, they are likely to return.
d. Participants are encouraged to push as hard as they can and may work harder in the presence of the group.

A

a. Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.

78
Q

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Select one:
a. Transverse
b. Sagittal
c. Axial
d. Frontal

A

a. Transverse

79
Q

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?
Select one:
a. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2
b. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities
c. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells
d. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

A

d. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

80
Q

What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
Select one:
a. ATP and oxygen
b. ADP and water
c. ADP and hydrogen ions
d. ATP and water

A

d. ATP and water

81
Q

Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Select one:
a. Exercising because they feel guilty
b. Exercising because it is fun
c. Exercising because a doctor tells them to
d. Exercising because they want to look better for others when on vacation

A

b. Exercising because it is fun

82
Q

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
Select one:
a. 0.6
b. 0.5
c. 0.4
d. 0.8

A

a. 0.6

83
Q

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Select one:
a. Sagittal plane
b. Horizontal plane
c. Frontal plane
d. Transverse plane

A

c. Frontal plane

84
Q

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Select one:
a. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise
b. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness
c. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
d. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going

A

c. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

85
Q

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Select one:
a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Esophagus
d. Stomach

A

a. Small intestine

86
Q

What is bioenergetics?
Select one:
a. The study of metabolism during exercise
b. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
c. The study of aerobic metabolism
d. The study of weight loss

A

b. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy

87
Q

According to the “iceberg effect,” which of the following training adaptations are considered “surface level”?
Select one:
a. Stability
b. Proper movement
c. Mobility
d. Endurance

A

d. Endurance

88
Q

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Select one:
a. Getting in and out of the car
b. Cleaning
c. Raking leaves
d. Moving a grocery cart

A

b. Cleaning

89
Q

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness
b. Muscle strength and power
c. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency
d. Flexibility and joint ROM

A

d. Flexibility and joint ROM

90
Q

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Select one:
a. Zone 2
b. Zone 4
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 1

A

a. Zone 2

91
Q

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular function
b. Sensory function
c. Vestibular function
d. Afferent nerve function

A

a. Neuromuscular function

92
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
Select one:
a. 90 to 120 seconds
b. 120 to 180 seconds
c. 60 to 90 seconds
d. 0 to 60 second

A

d. 0 to 60 seconds

93
Q

When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Precontemplation
c. Action
d. Contemplation

A

d. Contemplation

94
Q

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
Select one:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Anterior deltoid
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

d. Latissimus dorsi

95
Q

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretches
b. Active stretches
c. Sports drills
d. Self-myofascial techniques

A

d. Self-myofascial techniques

96
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.
b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
c. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
d. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.

A

b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

97
Q

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Select one:
a. Instrumental support
b. Companionship support
c. Emotional support
d. Informational support

A

a. Instrumental support

98
Q

Which of the following is considered an “under the water” foundational adaptation, per the “iceberg effect”?
Select one:
a. Stability
b. Endurance
c. Strength
d. Power

A

a. Stability

99
Q

What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client?
Select one:
a. Swapping social media handles so the trainer and client can follow each other
b. Agreeing to call the potential client in 2 days to follow up
c. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
d. Asking the member for a personal phone number to use to follow up via texting

A

c. Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session

100
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Vertical jump
c. Pro shuttle
d. 40-yard dash

A

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

101
Q

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach?
Select one:
a. Progressive overload
b. Systematic approach
c. SAID principle
d. All-or-nothing principle

A

a. Progressive overload

102
Q

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Select one:
a. A collecting summary
b. Sustain talk
c. An affirmation
d. Change talk

A

b. Sustain talk

103
Q

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Hip flexor
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Erector spinae

A

c. Gluteus medius

104
Q

Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
Select one:
a. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings
b. Active stretching of the hamstrings
c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
d. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps

A

c. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

105
Q

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
Select one:
a. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
c. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

A

d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

106
Q

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Select one:
a. Smaller in size
b. Short-term contractions
c. Slow to fatigue
d. Increased oxygen delivery

A

b. Short-term contractions

107
Q

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?
Select one:
a. Terra-Core
b. Resistance bands
c. Strength machines
d. Suspended bodyweight training

A

c. Strength machines

108
Q

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
Select one:
a. 0.85
b. 0.97
c. 1.04
d. 1.18

A

a. 0.85

109
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Select one:
a. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion
b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion
d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

A

d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

110
Q

Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?
Select one:
a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
c. The approximate midpoint of the body
d. The highest elevation of the body in space

A

a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

111
Q

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
Select one:
a. 9 or 10 drills
b. 7 to 9 drills
c. 1 or 2 drills
d. 4 to 6 drills

A

d. 4 to 6 drills

112
Q

Which of the following is a ketone body?
Select one:
a. Lactic acid
b. Pyruvate
c. Glycogen
d. Acetoacetic acid

A

d. Acetoacetic acid

113
Q

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Select one:
a. Quickness
b. Speed
c. Agility
d. Strength

A

a. Quickness

114
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Select one:
a. Quadratus lumborum
b. Diaphragm
c. Multifidus
d. Erector spinae

A

d. Erector spinae

115
Q

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client’s current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Select one:
a. Motivation
b. Self-efficacy
c. Positive outcome expectation
d. Autonomy

A

a. Motivation

116
Q

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?
Select one:
a. Left ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left atrium

A

b. Right atrium

117
Q

Which of the following is a component of agility training?
Select one:
a. Assessment of visual stimuli
b. Stride rate
c. Reaction
d. Deceleration

A

d. Deceleration

118
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?
Select one:
a. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac
c. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
d. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac

A

b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

119
Q

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Serratus anterior
b. Deltoid
c. Rotator cuff muscles
d. Rhomboids

A

a. Serratus anterior

120
Q

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Select one:
a. Inspiration is prolonged.
b. Expiration becomes more forceful.
c. Breathing becomes more shallow.
d. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.

A

b. Expiration becomes more forceful.

121
Q

What are the two components of the central nervous system?
Select one:
a. The brain and spinal cord
b. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
c. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems
d. The nerves and sensory receptors

A

a. The brain and spinal cord

122
Q

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:
a. Forward head and protracted shoulders
b. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
d. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

A

a. Forward head and protracted shoulders

123
Q

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?
Select one:
a. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion
b. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation
c. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension
d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

A

d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

124
Q

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?
Select one:
a. 90 to 120 seconds
b. 60 to 90 seconds
c. 15 to 60 seconds
d. Less than 15 seconds

A

c. 15 to 60 seconds

125
Q

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Select one:
a. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction
b. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction
c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction

A

c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

126
Q

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?
Select one:
a. 11
b. 9
c. 7
d. 3

A

b. 9

127
Q

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?
Select one:
a. Reflective listening
b. Nonverbal communication
c. Verbal communication
d. Motivational interviewing

A

b. Nonverbal communication

128
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?
Select one:
a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.
b. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.
d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

A

d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

129
Q

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?
Select one:
a. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine
b. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine
c. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
d. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine

A

c. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

130
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
Select one:
a. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
b. 2 to 3 liters of fluid
c. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
d. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity

A

a. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

131
Q

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Select one:
a. Two-arm push press
b. Soccer throw
c. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

A

a. Two-arm push press

132
Q

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
Select one:
a. Ball-and-socket
b. Pivot
c. Condyloid
d. Nonsynovial

A

d. Nonsynovial

133
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:
a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
b. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion
c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation

A

c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

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