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quiz3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
Select one:
a. Visual system
b. Hearing system
c. Vestibular system
d. Somatosensory system

A

d. Somatosensory system

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2
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Select one:
a. Ice skaters
b. Proprioceptive plyometrics
c. Squat jump
d. Depth jumps

A

a. Ice skaters

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3
Q

What is stroke volume?
Select one:
a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

A

d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

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4
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
Select one:
a. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.
b. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.
c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
d. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective.

A

c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

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5
Q

The TRX Rip Trainer would most likely be utilized for which type of movement?
Select one:
a. Abduction and Adduction
b. Rotation
c. Inversion and eversion
d. Flexion and extension

A

b. Rotation

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6
Q

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?
Select one:
a. 200 to 300 kcal
b. 600 to 700 kcal Incorrect
c. 100 to 150 kcal
d. 25 to 75 kcal

A

a. 200 to 300 kcal

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7
Q

What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
b. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
c. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
d. The Z-lines moving farther apart

A

a. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

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8
Q

What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
Select one:
a. Myofibril
b. Cardiac
c. Smooth
d. Skeletal

A

b. Cardiac

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9
Q

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Select one:
a. Quick to fatigue
b. Less force production
c. Larger in size
d. Fewer capillaries

A

b. Less force production

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10
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
Select one:
a. 20 to 35% of total calories
b. 10 to 35% of total calories
c. 45 to 65% of total calories
d. 30 to 50% of total calories

A

c. 45 to 65% of total calories

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11
Q

At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha’s BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified?
Select one:
a. Healthy weight
b. Obese
c. Overweight
d. Underweight

A

c. Overweight

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12
Q

What are ground reaction forces?
Select one:
a. The force of gravity
b. Forces used by the muscles during a jump
c. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
d. Deceleration forces in the muscles

A

c. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

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13
Q

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body’s sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
Select one:
a. Speed
b. Agility
c. Power
d. Quickness

A

b. Agility

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14
Q

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
Select one:
a. Speed ladders
b. ViPR
c. Suspended bodyweight training
d. Strength machines

A

b. ViPR

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15
Q

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?
Select one:
a. Achilles tendonitis and athlete’s foot
b. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints
c. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
d. Strains and heel spurs

A

c. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

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16
Q

Creatine is most effective for what purpose?
Select one:
a. Improving endurance
b. Improving strength and muscle size
c. Improving heart health
d. Damaging the kidneys

A

b. Improving strength and muscle size

17
Q

The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Select one:
a. Cancer prevention
b. Macronutrient metabolism
c. Muscle contraction
d. Hydration

A

b. Macronutrient metabolism

18
Q

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
Select one:
a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
b. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
d. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

A

a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

19
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:
a. 3 or 4 sets
b. 5 or 6 sets
c. 7 to 8 sets
d. 1 or 2 sets

A

a. 3 or 4 sets

20
Q

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Select one:
a. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.
b. Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
c. Type I fibers are “fast twitch.”
d. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers.

A

b. Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

21
Q

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Select one:
a. Iliopsoas
b. Multifidus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major

A

b. Multifidus

22
Q

Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Select one:
a. Performance supplement
b. Macromineral
c. Vitamin
d. Trace mineral

A

d. Trace mineral

23
Q

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Select one:
a. Alveolar sacs
b. Trachea
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Bronchioles

A

a. Alveolar sacs

24
Q

Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Select one:
a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
b. Thermic effect of food (TEF)
c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
d. Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)

A

c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

25
Q

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?
Select one:
a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
b. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight
c. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight
d. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight

A

a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

26
Q

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:
a. Lack of fatty acids
b. Lack of pyruvate
c. Depletion of phosphocreatine
d. Free hydrogen ions

A

d. Free hydrogen ions

27
Q

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Select one:
a. Altered bone shape through the spine
b. Altered bone shape through the lower extremity
c. Improper muscle balance in the spine
d. Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity

A

a. Altered bone shape through the spine

28
Q

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Select one:
a. Short-term contractions
b. Decreased oxygen delivery
c. Slow to fatigue
d. Fewer capillaries

A

c. Slow to fatigue

29
Q

What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
Select one:
a. Shoulder pain
b. Low-back pain
c. Leg pain
d. Neck pain

A

c. Leg pain

30
Q

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Neural adaptations
d. Muscle atrophy

A

c. Neural adaptations

31
Q

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Rhomboids
c. Upper trapezius
d. Sternocleidomastoid

A

d. Sternocleidomastoid

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