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spinal anatomy 2 > quiz questions test 1 > Flashcards

quiz questions test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

which mammals do not have seven cervical verebrae?

A

the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and the three toed sloth

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2
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic variation

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3
Q

which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A

1) gender variation or sexual dimorphism
2) ontogenetic variation
3) geographic or population based variation
4) idiosyncratic variation

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4
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 cm or 28 inches

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5
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 cm or 5 in

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6
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 cm or 11 in

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7
Q

based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

58 cm or 23 in

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8
Q

distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel;

locomotion is movement to a new site/location

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9
Q

what organ(s) are specifically associated with the horzontal axis fo the skull?

A

1) the eye

2) the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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10
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular
thoracic - triangular
lumbar- reniform

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11
Q

what is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

1) superior epiphyseal plate

2) inferior epiphyseal plate

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12
Q

what are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7-9 years - appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years - formation fo the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years - formation of the epiphyseal rim

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13
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each regin of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar posterior

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14
Q

what is the name given to the abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

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15
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of lamnae seen on x-ray?

A

shingling

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16
Q

what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - articular pillar
thoracic - pars interarticularis
lumbar - pars interarticularis

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17
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral
thoracic - posterolateral
lumbar - lateral

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18
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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19
Q

what wil cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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20
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed by the articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

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21
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical inververtebral foramen?

A

1) inferior articular process/post-zygap.
2) superior articular process/ the pre-zygap.
3) the capsular ligament
4) the ligamentum flavum

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22
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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23
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

1) the vertebral body of the segment above
2) the vertebral body of the segment below
3) the intervertebral disc
4) the posterior longitudinal ligament

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24
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

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25
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle

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26
Q

What is the name given to the union of all vertebral foramina into an apparent vertical cylinder?

A

the vertebral canal or spinal canal

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27
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

1) spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinallis
2) proximal part of the peripheral nerve system
3) the meninges

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28
Q

what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular
thoracic - oval
lumbar - trangular
sacrum - triangular

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29
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cored/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

dura mater - tough mother
arachnoid mother - spider mother
pia mater - tender or delicate mother

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30
Q

name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis

A

epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

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31
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

1) anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
2) anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
3) basivertebral vein
4) recurrent meningeal sinus vertebral nerve
5) posterior longitudinal ligament
6) Hoffmann ligament

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32
Q

what are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

1) osseous artery
2) anterior spinal canal artery
3) posterior spinal canal artery
4) anterior medullary feeder arteries
5) posterior medullary feeder arteries
6) neural artery

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33
Q

which vessel will supply the dorsal/posteior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior distal radicular artery

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34
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

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35
Q

the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris is calld what?

A

filum terminale internum

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36
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A 
C3-T1 = the cervical enlargement
T9-T12 = the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement
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37
Q

what is a generic cord level of origin = vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

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38
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

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39
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

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40
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

1) median anterior spinal artery
2) right and left posterior spinal arteries
3) 3 communicating arteries

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41
Q

waht is th ename given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

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42
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

1) spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
2) the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

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43
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior

height by a few millimeters

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44
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

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45
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip - posterior groove articulation?

A

amphiarthrosis syndesmosis

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46
Q

what is the joint classification for the uncinate process - lateral groove articulation?

A

modified diarthrosis sellar

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47
Q

what is the joint classification ofr the spongy bone - intervertebral disc articulation?

A

amphiarthrosis symphysis

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48
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A
  1. 5 on top
    5 on bottom
49
Q

what is the name given to the uncinate process- lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

50
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

longus colli muscle

51
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral;

45 degrees

52
Q

what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical

A

ligamentum flavum

53
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple

A

C5/C6

54
Q

List in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

1) costal element
2) anterior tubercle
3) costotransverse bar
4) posterior tubercle
5) true transverse process

55
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

1) anterior scalene
2) longus capitis
3) Longus colli
4) anterior intertransverse muscles

56
Q

what muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

1) middle scalene

2) posterior intertransverse muscles

57
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60* anterolaterally from migsagittal plane

15* inferiorly from the horizontal plane

58
Q

what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

59
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

1) vertebral artery
2) vertebral venous plexus
3) postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fiber

60
Q

what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of the cervical zygapophyses?

A

1) semispinalis capitis
2) multifidis
3) rotator longus

61
Q

what muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

1) longissimus capitis
2) longissimus cervicis
3) semispinalis capitis
4) semispinalis cervicis
5) multifidis
6) rotators

62
Q

the greatest range of flexion-extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

63
Q

what motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

A

1) lateral bending

2) axial rotation

64
Q

ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6 couple

65
Q

what are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

1) ability to heal
2) ability to remodel under stressors
3) ability to age

66
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

67
Q

what part of the skull is derived from the endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

68
Q

which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

69
Q

what are the examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

70
Q

what are the examples of pneumatic bone?

A

1) frontal
2) ethmoid
3) maxilla
4) sphenoid
5) temporal

71
Q

what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

72
Q

what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

1) tubercle
2) protuberance
3) trochanter
4) tuber/tuberosity
5) malleolus

73
Q

what is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

74
Q

what is the definition of an osseous meatus?

A

a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone

75
Q

what is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

76
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

77
Q

what are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

1) neurocranium
2) splanchnocranium aka facial skeleton
3) auditory ossicles

78
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

1) atypical ribs
2) true ribs
3) costa verae
4) vertebrosternal ribs

79
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

1) typical ribs
2) false ribs
3) costa spuriae
4) vertebrochondral ribs

80
Q

what are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints?

A

1) suture
2) gomphosis
3) schindylesis
4) syndesmosis

81
Q

what are the sutura vera?

A

true sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification

82
Q

what are the sutura notha?

A

false sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

83
Q

what are examples of a permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

84
Q

what are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posteior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

85
Q

which example of an amphiarthrosis symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

86
Q

what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

1) located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule
2) resemble ruffini endings
3) most numberous in the cervical zygapophyses
4) monitor the joint “at rest”

87
Q

what are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

A

1) they resemble Pacinian corpuscles
2) located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule
3) most numerous in the cervical spine
4) monitor the joint during normal range of motion.

88
Q

what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A

1) resemble Golgi tendon organs
2) present in collarteral and intrinsic ligaments
3) not initially observed along the vertebral column
4) monitor extreme joint motion

89
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

1) synovial villi
2) articular fat pads, haversian glands, and synovial menisci
3) interarticular discs

90
Q

what are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

1) articular
2) vaginal
3) bursal

91
Q

what is the specific fucntion of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

92
Q

what are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

water
cells
collagen type 2 fibers
proteoglycan gel

93
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

94
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly; a time dependent property

95
Q

what is weeping theory?

A

weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film.

96
Q

what is boosted theory?

A

boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid.

97
Q

what is boundary theory?

A

boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed.

98
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

yellow-white
viscous
slightly alkaline
tastes salty

99
Q

what are the classifications of diarthroses based on the number of articulating surfaces?

A

simple
compound
complex

100
Q

what is a complex diarthrosis?

A

the articulating surfaces are spearated by an articular disc or meniscus

101
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

102
Q

what morphological classificatoins of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

1) diarthrosis ginglymus

2) diarthrosis trochoid

103
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

1) diarthrosis bicondylar
2) diarthrosis condylar
3) diarthrosis ellipsoidal
4) diarthrosis sellar

104
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis arthrodia joints?

A

1) most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
2) intercarpal, carpometacarpal, and intermetacarpal joints of the hand
3) intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal, and intermetatarsal joints of the foot

105
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis ginglymus joints?

A

humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes

106
Q

what are the examples of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

107
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis sellar joints?

A

1) carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
2) talocrural joint of the ankle
3) calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

108
Q

what are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

A

1) cervical
2) petrous
3) cavernous
4) cerebral

109
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

1) deep cervical artery
2) highest (superior) intercostal artery
3) posterior intercostal artery
4) subcostal artery

110
Q

what vessels form the retromandibular vein?

A

superficial temporal and internal maxillary vein

111
Q

what is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?

A

remove excess plasma proteins from hte interstitial space and prevent edema

112
Q

what characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

A

1) they begin as blind-ended sacs
2) they have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries
3) they are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries
4) they are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries

113
Q

what are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system?

A

right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

114
Q

what parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

1) right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall
2) right upper extremity
3) right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver

115
Q

what is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

A

L2 from the cisterna chyli

116
Q

what are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

A

the tonsils and peyer’s patches of the small intestine

117
Q

what is the function of lymph nodules?

A

perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line and to aid in the immune response

118
Q

what is the function of lymph nodes?

A

they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they do participate in the immune response

spinal anatomy 2 (5 decks)

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