Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuroscience > Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which technique would you use to ask whether the occipital lobe is necessary for vision?

  • Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  • Electroencephalography (EEG)
  • fMRI or EEG
  • Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
A

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

(The correct choice is TMS because this method allows us to ask causal questions - you can temporarily disrupt the functioning of the occipital lobe and measure whether someone can still see you.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which technique would you use to ask whether individuals diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder show a delay in processing basic components of a face compared to typically developing individuals?

  • Electroencephalography (EEG)
  • Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  • Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

(The correct answer is EEG - specifically, you could present images of different facial expressions and measure the brain’s response (event-related potentials). EEG has great temporal resolution, so you could address whether the brain responded more slowly in individuals diagnosed with ASD vs controls.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The BOLD response, which is acquired during fMRI, is a measurement of:

  • Electrical potentials of a population of neurons
  • Blood flow in the brain
  • Subthreshold changes in potential within neurons
  • Oxygenation level of the blood
A

Oxygenation level of the blood

(BOLD stands for blood oxygenation level-dependent signal. More oxygenated blood will be sent to a region of the brain that is ‘working’ during a task and the BOLD signal will be stronger in this activated area than in regions uninvolved in the task.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The most important ion for establishing resting potential of a neuron is…

  • Potassium (K+)
  • Calcium (Ca2+)
  • Chloride (Cl-)
  • Sodium (Na+)
A

Potassium (K+)

(The membrane is permeable to potassium because there are channels that allow this ion to flow freely in and out of the neuron at all times)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The active force that helps maintain resting membrane potential is…

  • The sodium-potassium pump
  • Permeability
  • Electrostatic pressure
  • Diffusion
A

The sodium-potassium pump

(This pump moves sodium and potassium against their concentration gradients. It is ACTIVE because the neuron must expend energy for the pump to work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In one example of an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), ____ channels open and this ion enters the neuron, causing _____

  • Sodium; depolarization
  • Sodium; hyperpolarization
  • Chloride; depolarization
  • Chloride; hyperpolarization
A

Sodium; depolarization

(Sodium is a positive cation. At rest, there is more sodium outside the neuron than inside, so when sodium channels open, it will enter the cell based on diffusion. It will also enter the cell based on electrostatic pressure, as the inside of the neuron is negative, relative to the outside. This will cause depolarization - the membrane potential is less negative than it is at resting state.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You feel thirsty and reach for your water bottle. Two regions of the brain associated with processing this feeling and initiating this movement are:

  • frontal cortex
  • thalamus
  • temporal cortex
  • hypothalamus
A
  • Frontal cortex
  • Hypothalamus

(The correct choices are the hypothalamus (think: the 4 F’s - thirst goes along with feeding) and the frontal cortex, which houses the primary motor cortex that is important for initiating actions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You see your a woman in the grocery store and recognize that she is your friend. Two regions of the brain important for processing visual information and face recognition are:

  • Parietal lobe
  • Frontal lobe
  • Occipital lobe
  • Temporal lobe
A
  • Occipital lobe
  • Temporal lobe

(: The correct answers are occipital lobe - this is where primary visual processing occurs, and temporal lobe - there is a specific area called the fusiform face area that is important for face recognition. This region wasn’t mentioned in lecture, but we did cover the importance of temporal lobe structures in face processing.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You slice through the brain, parallel to the ear. Your slice is along the _________ plane.

  • horizontal
  • transportal
  • saggital
  • coronal
A

Saggital

The saggital plane moves from the lateral to medial part of the brain and then out laterally again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A drug that binds to the same location as a neurotransmitter, regardless of what effect is has at the binding site is…

A

Competitive

exogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A drug that binds to a receptor site but does not activate the receptor is known as a _____ and has low ______. To counteract the effect of this drug, neurons could ________.

A
  • Antagonist
  • Efficacy
  • Upregulate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When Drug A and Drug B are at a synapse in equal concentration, Drug A is bound to more receptor molecules. Drug A has a higher ______ than Drug B.

A

affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug A binds to a different site on a receptor than a neurotransmitter, but has the same effect as the NT. This makes it a ________.

A

noncompetitive agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which choice ranks methods in terms of their spatial resolution, from best spatial resolution to worst spatial resolution?
A. EEG, intracellular recording, fMRI, TMS
B. fMRI, intracellular recording, EEG, TMS
C. intracellular recording, fMRI, TMS, EEG
D. EEG, fMRI, TMS, intracellular recording

A

Intracellular recording, fMRI, TMS, EEG

(The correct answer is ‘intracellular recording, fMRI, TMS, EEG’ - the best spatial resolution comes from measuring directly from one neuron (intracellular), with the best noninvasive technique being fMRI. TMS and EEG are close, but TMS wins out over EEG.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
In order to measure subthreshold activity within a neuron (i.e., electrical events within a neuron, rather than messaging between neurons), you would need to use:
 A. Optogenetics
 B. Autoradiography
 C. Electroencephalography
 D. Intracellular recording
A

Intracellular recording

(The correct answer is ‘Intracellular recording’ - this is the only method listed that measures electrical events within a neuron - EEG will also measure electrical potential, but from populations of neurons.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following techniques can temporarily activate/disrupt neurons? Select all that apply.
A. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
B. ablations
C. functional magnetic resonance imagining
D. optogenetics
E. in situ hybridization
F. electrophysiology

A
  • transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
  • optogenetics

(The correct answers are TMS and optogenetics. These methods can be used to directly ‘turn on’ a set of neurons.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An ablation study with non-human animals is analogous to what in humans?
A. accidental or purposeful damage to a brain area
B. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
C. electroencephalography (EEG)
D. functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)

A

accidental or purposeful damage to a brain area

(The correct answer is ‘accidental or purposeful damage to a brain area’. An ablation involves destroying part of the brain and then studying how this affect behavior. In humans, the only reason you would have this type of damage happen is if it was an accident (as was the case with Phineas Gage) or on purpose (as was the elective surgery undergone by H.M.))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is true about event-related potentials?
A. An ERP with a longer latency is related to fairly automatic response to a stimulus, whereas an ERP with a shorter latency is related to more effortful processing of a stimulus
B. An ERP with a higher amplitude is related to fairly automatic response to a stimulus, whereas an ERP with a lower amplitude is related to more effortful processing of a stimulus
C. An ERP with a short latency is related to fairly automatic response to a stimulus, whereas an ERP with a longer latency is related to more effortful processing of a stimulus
D. An ERP with a lower amplitude is related to fairly automatic response to a stimulus, whereas an ERP with a higher amplitude is related to more effortful processing of a stimulus

A

An ERP with a short latency is related to fairly automatic response to a stimulus, whereas an ERP with a longer latency is related to more effortful processing of a stimulus

(The correct answer is ‘An ERP with a short latency is related to fairly automatic response to a stimulus, whereas an ERP with a longer latency is related to more effortful processing of a stimulus’. Latency is the amount of time after a stimulus was presented that a response from the brain occurs. The more automatic that response, the quicker it will occur. Amplitude is about how big the response is (i.e., how many neurons are sending messages))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
You want to visualize the location of neurons in the brain expressing a particular type of protein channel. Which of the following methods should you use?
 A. Electrophysiology
 B. Autoradiography
 C. Optogenetics
 D. Chemofluorisis
A

Autoradiography

(The correct answer is ‘Autoradiography’ - this is the only method listed that allows you to look at something structural, and in particular it tags proteins so they can be visualized. Optogenetics and electrophysiology are both methods that allow researchers to study neuronal communication, and chemofluorisis is a term I made up.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If the researcher wanted to determine whether a brain region was necessary for word processing, she should use ___________________________.

A. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
B. functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
C. electroencephalography (EEG)
D. ablation

A

transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

(The correct answer is ‘transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)’ - TMS is the only method listed that can answer causal questions in humans. fMRI would help you understand regions involved in a process, but wouldn’t show those regions were necessary.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A researcher is interested in whether individuals diagnosed with dyslexia are slower to process words than typically developing individuals. Based on what you learned in module 1, she should use _______________________ to study this question.
A. autoradiography
B. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
C. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
D. electroencephalography (EEG/ERPs)

A

electroencephalography (EEG/ERPs)

(The correct answer is ‘electroencephalography (EEG/ERPs)’ - this question is about timing of processing. EEG has the best temporal resolution of these methods.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

You are trying to study a specific set of neurons that release dopamine within the motivation and reward pathway deep in the brain. In order to do your study, you need must directly activate individual neurons. Which of the following methods should you use?
A. Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)
B. Microdialysis
C. In situ hybridization
D. Optogenetics

A

Optogenetics

(The correct answer is ‘Optogenetics’. Optogenetics and TMS are the only methods listed that can stimulate electrical activity in the brain. However, because the question asks about a deep brain structure, and TMS can only be used on surface structures, optogenetics is the correct answer.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following techniques is easiest to use with infants and young children?
A. electroencephalography (EEG)
B. functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
C. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D. ablations

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
You are interested in how the brain regions involved in processing emotional faces. During an fMRI session, you present highly expressive emotional faces versus neutral faces. The independent variable is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the dependent variable is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. type of face; neural activity
 B. type of face; BOLD response
 C. BOLD response; type of face
 D. neural activity; type of face
A

type of face; BOLD response

(The correct answer is ‘type of face; BOLD response’. The IV is what is being manipulated by a researcher, so in this case, it is the two types of faces that you are showng in the scanner. You are measuring the BOLD response, which is an indirect measure of neural activity, but more directly a measure of the relative level of oxygenated blood in particular regions of the brain.)

25
Q

Which of the following is true about neurons?
A. Neurons typically have multiple cell bodies
B. Neurons typically have one axon
C. Neurons typically have one dendritic spine
D. Neurons typically innervate one postsynaptic cell

A

Neurons typically have one axon

(The correct answer is ‘Neurons typically have one axon’. Although some neurons have two branches of an axon, most neurons only have one. It is also much more common to have multiple dendrites by which neurons get input from other cells , we don’t see neurons with multiple cell bodies, and neurons generally talk to multiple other neurons.)

26
Q 
The larger a neuron, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. more likely it is to be unmyelinated
 B. more likely it is to be an interneuron
 C. more likely it is to have two axons
 D. more complex its inputs and outputs
A

more complex its inputs and outputs

(The correct answer is ‘more complex its inputs and outputs’ - this was covered in the second lecture. Neurons can vary in size, shape and function, and typically in larger neurons, we see more arborization and communication with other neurons.)

27
Q 
John feels really hungry and goes to find something to eat. The region of the brain most responsible for the feeling of hunger is the:
 A. hippocampus
 B. parietal lobe
 C. hypothalamus
 D. frontal lobe
 E. thalamus
A

Hypothalamus

(The correct answer is ‘hypothalamus’. This is the brain region associated with the 4 F’s - feeding, fighting, fleeing, and… mating.)

28
Q 
Sophie used to be great at learning, but now she can’t commit to memory simple facts. What part of her brain is most likely damaged?
 A. hippocampus
 B. occipital lobe
 C. parietal lobe
 D. hypothalamus
 E. cerebellum
A

Hippocampus

(The correct answer is ‘hippocampus’. This is the part of the brain that was removed in HM’s surgery, and we know a lot about memory systems from studying this structure.)

29
Q 
Mark has difficulty sitting up straight in class and coordinating his feet while walking. Which brain region is most likely damaged?
 A. cerebellum
 B. thalamus
 C. hippocampus
 D. temporal lobe
 E. occipital lobe
A

Cerebellum

(The correct answer is ‘cerebellum’ - the cerebellum is important for postural control and repetitive movements like walking, swimming, biking.)

30
Q 
Karen picks up her cat and pets him, feeling how soft his fur is. The two lobes most involved in this scenario are:
 A. parietal lobe, temporal lobe
 B. frontal lobe, parietal lobe
 C. frontal lobe, occipital lobe
 D. parietal lobe, occipital lobe
A

frontal lobe, parietal lobe

(The correct answer is ‘frontal lobe, parietal lobe’ - the frontal lobe is where executive control of voluntary motor functions is housed, and the parietal lobe includes the somatosensory strip, which allows us to process information related to our sense of touch.)

31
Q 
Check all of the structural and functional terms associated with (c)
 A. input zone	
 B. conduction zone	
 C. integration zone	
 D. output zone	
 E. axon	
 F. axon hillock	
 G. myelin	
 H. axon terminal/synaptic bouton	
 I. dendrites
A
  • Conduction zone
  • Axon
  • Myelin

(The correct answers are ‘axon, myelin, conduction zone’. The axon is the part of the neuron in which the electrical signal (action potential) is propagated, and known as the conduction zone. This axon is coated in myelin, glial cells acting as insulation to help the message move more quickly down the axon.)

32
Q 
Check all of the structural and functional terms associated with (b)
 A. input zone	
 B. conduction zone	
 C. integration zone	
 D. output zone	
 E. axon	
 F. axon hillock	
 G. myelin	
 H. axon terminal/synaptic bouton	
 I. dendrites
A
  • Integration zone
  • Axon hillock

(The correct answers are ‘axon hillock and integration zone’ - this is the part of the neuron that integrates the messages coming to the neuron via the dendrites from other neurons. This is also the place from which action potentials are initiated.)

33
Q 
Check all of the structural and functional terms associated with (a)
 A. input zone	
 B. conduction zone	
 C. integration zone	
 D. output zone	
 E. axon	
 F. axon hillock	
 G. myelin	
 H. axon terminal/synaptic bouton	
 I. dendrites
A
  • Input zone
  • Dendrites

(The correct answers are ‘input zone and dendrites’ - the dendrites are the ‘ears’ of the neuron, taking in messages from other neurons, this also means this is the input zone, where a neuron receives messages from neighboring neurons.)

34
Q 
Check all of the structural and functional terms associated with (d)
 A. input zone	
 B. conduction zone	
 C. integration zone	
 D. output zone	
 E. axon	
 F. axon hillock	
 G. myelin	
 H. axon terminal/synaptic bouton	
 I. dendrites
A
  • Output zone
  • Axon terminal/synaptic bouton

(The correct answers are ‘axon terminal/synaptic bouton and output zone’ - this is where neurotransmitters are released into the synapse and signal to neighboring neurons. You can think of this area as the ‘mouth’ of the neuron, communicating a message to others.)

35
Q 
This is a viewpoint of the brain in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ plane.
 A. Horizontal
 B. Coronal
 C. Medial
 D. Sagittal
A

Saggital

(he correct answer is ‘sagittal’ - sagittal cuts are made from ear-to-ear, slicing down through the top of the brain, parallel to the ear.)

36
Q 
Region B is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ relative to region A.
 A. posterior
 B. superior
 C. anterior
 D. inferior
A

Posterior

(The correct answer is ‘posterior’ - region A is towards the front of the brain, compared to region B which is towards the back of the brain.)

37
Q

Which of the following could result from damage to region B?
A. Deficits in visual processing
B. Deficits in attentional processing
C. Deficits in higher order cognitive processing
D. Deficits in auditory processing

A

Deficits in visual processing

(The correct answer is ‘deficits in visual processing’ - region B is towards the very back of the brain in the occipital lobe, which is responsible for primary visual processing.)

38
Q

Which process is NOT involved in chemical synaptic transmission?
A. Influx of calcium at the presynaptic membrane
B. Electrical conduction across the synaptic cleft
C. Release of neurotransmitters from vesicles
D. Reuptake

A

Electrical conduction across the synaptic cleft

(The correct answer is ‘Electrical conduction across the synaptic cleft’ - the electrical part of neuronal signaling is the action potential. To ‘talk’ to the next neuron in line, chemical transmission occurs. Neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic neuron and bing to receptor on the postsynaptic neuron, after an influx in Ca2+ at the axon terminal. Chemical signaling ends through either reuptake or degradation.)

39
Q

Refractory periods are important because they:
A. keep the action potential moving in one direction, and not ‘spreading’ back up to the cell body
B. keep the neuron depolarized so the action potential travels faster
C. regulate chemical transmission by controlling the release of neurotransmitters
D. work to restore the resting membrane potential after an action potential has occurred

A

keep the action potential moving in one direction, and not ‘spreading’ back up to the cell body

(The correct answer is ‘keep the action potential moving in one direction, and not ‘spreading’ back up to the cell body’ - it is important that voltage-gated Na+ channels either cannot open or are less likely to open after a flip in polarization has occurred because if they could respond to the membrane being at -40mV too quickly, the AP would spread back to the cell body and the AP would continue indefinitely.)

40
Q 
Action potentials generally are not propagated along dendrites because they have:
 A. few ligand-gated channels
 B. few mitochondria
 C. few voltage-gated sodium channels
 D. electrostatic pressure
A

few voltage-gated sodium channels

(The correct answer is ‘few voltage-gated sodium channels’ - APs are initiated because of a flood of Na+ coming into a neuron through voltage-gated Na+ channels, which open when threshold is reached. These channels are concentrated at the axon hillock, and not the dendrites, which is why we don’t see APs initiated in dendritic spines.)

41
Q 
Resting membrane potential ranges from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. -85 to -25 mV
 B. -50 to -90 mV
 C. +50 to +90 mV
 D. +25 to +85 mV
A

-50 to -90 mV

(The correct answer is ‘-50 to -90mV’ - on average, the resting membrane potential is -65mV which falls in this range. The membrane potential is negative, relative to the outside of the neuron. -40 mV is threshold (an AP will fire if you reach this point), so this cannot be included in the range.)

42
Q

Whether a synapse is excitatory or inhibitory (i.e., whether an EPSP or IPSP will be initiated in the postsynaptic neuron) is determined by the
A. events that are initiated when a neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on the postsynaptic neuron (i.e., the identity of the receptor matters most)
B. number of action potentials arriving at the synaptic bouton (axon terminal).
C. binding of a neurotransmitter to a receptor on the postsynaptic neuron (i.e., the identity of the NT matters most)
D. sensitivity of the postsynaptic membrane.

A

events that are initiated when a neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on the postsynaptic neuron (i.e., the identity of the receptor matters most)

(The correct answer is ‘events that are initiated when a neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on the postsynaptic neuron.’ - NTs can cause different postsynaptic reactions at different neurons, depending on the characteristics of the channel the NT binds to.)

43
Q

The sodium-potassium pump is an example of an active transport system because:
A. Any movement of ions across the membrane is an example of an active transport system
B. The neuron must expend energy for the transport mechanism to work
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b); the sodium-potassium pump is not an example of an active transport system

A

The neuron must expend energy for the transport mechanism to work

(The correct answer is ‘The neuron must expend energy for the transport mechanism to work’ - of the three forces that act to maintain resting membrane potential, the sodium-potassium pump is the only active force. By definition, and active force is one that requires energy from the cell to be carried out. The pump works by using ATP.)

44
Q

Which of the following is not important for maintaining the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A. Diffusion
B. Electrostatic pressure
C. Sodium-potassium pumps
D. None of the above (all of these forces are important for maintaining resting membrane potential)

A

None of the above (all of these forces are important for maintaining resting membrane potential)

(The correct answer is ‘None of the above (all of these forces are important for maintaining resting membrane potential)’ - the other choices are the three forces that act to maintain resting membrane potential.)

45
Q 
A neuron will fire an action potential when the membrane potential \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. hyperpolarizes, +40 mV
 B. depolarizes, -40 mV
 C. hyperpolarizes, -40 mV
 D. depolarizes, +40 mV
A

depolarizes, -40 mV

(The correct answer is ‘depolarizes, -40 mV’ - depolarization occurs when the membrane potential inside the neuron becomes relatively less negative compared to the charge outside the neuron. This will happen due to EPSPs and if a neuron hits -40mV, voltage-gated K+ channels will open and an AP will be initiated.)

46
Q 
When a neuron is at rest, K+ ions want to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the neuron, based on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. exit; diffusion
 B. exit; electrostatic pressure
 C. both (a) and (b)
 D. neither (a) nor (b)
A

exit; diffusion

(The correct answer is ‘exit; diffusion’ - there is a higher concentration of K+ inside the neuron than outside of the neuron, so based on diffusion, K+ wants to move down its concentration gradient, which means leaving the neuron. Based on electrostatic pressure, K+ wants to move into the neuron because it is a positive ion, and the inside of a neuron at rest is relatively more negative than the outside.)

47
Q 
Which ion is a cell membrane selectively permeable to? (the ion that can get in or out while a neuron is at rest, based on passive forces acting on it)
 A. sodium (Na+)
 B. chloride (Cl-)
 C. potassium (K+)
 D. calcium (Ca2+)
A

potassium (K+)

(The correct answer is ‘potassium’ - no other ion can move across the membrane at rest unless and active force is at work (e.g., sodium can be moved, but only via the sodium potassium pump))

48
Q

Myelination increases the speed at which an action potential is propagated because:
A. It increases the diameter of the axon
B. It changes the permeability of the neuron, and therefore raises the resting membrane potential
C. It prevents Na+ from leaving the neuron, maintaining depolarization
D. It prevents K+ from leaving the neuron, maintaining depolarization

A

It prevents K+ from leaving the neuron, maintaining depolarization

(The correct answer is ‘It prevents K+ from leaving the neuron, maintaining depolarization’ - when the neuron is briefly more positive inside than outside, K+ wants to leave based on both passive forces, and more of it can leave where voltage-gated K+ channels have opened. Myelin insulates the axon so not as much K+ leaves, maintaining depolarization and increasing the speed at which the AP moves because it doesn’t need to be repropagated as often.)

49
Q 
The presynaptic neuron fires an action potential and the action potential is propagated down the axon, but no neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. You reason that there must be something inhibiting \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ voltage-gated ion channels from opening at the axon terminal.
 A. Ca2+ (calcium)
 B. K+ (potassium) and Na+ (sodium)
 C. Cl- (chloride)
 D. Na+ (sodium)
A

Ca2+ (calcium)

(The correct answer is ‘Ca2+’ - when the AP reaches the axon terminal, voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and the influx of Ca2+ causes vesicles to fuse to the membrane and dump neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. So, if an AP is happening, but no NTs are released, the culprit from this list would be Ca2+.)

50
Q

Ionotropic and metabotropic receptors differ because,
A. Ionotropic receptors are coupled to g-proteins and metabotropic receptors are not
B. Ionotropic receptors can amplify a message, whereas metabotropic receptors cannot
C. When a neurotransmitter binds to an ionotropic receptor, an EPSP will occur; when a neurotransmitter binds to a metabotropic receptor, an IPSP will occur
D. Ionotropic receptors are fast-acting receptors and metabotropic receptors are slow-acting

A

Ionotropic receptors are fast-acting receptors and metabotropic receptors are slow-acting

(The correct answer is ‘Ionotropic receptors are fast-acting receptors and metabotropic receptors are slow-acting’ - inotropic receptors open as soon as a NT binds, which is not true of metabotropic receptors. Metabotropic receptors are also known as g-coupled receptors and can amplify a message. IPSPs and EPSPs can happen at either type of receptor.)

51
Q

Which of the following is not a specific criterion for classifying a substance as a neurotransmitter?
A. Existence of specific receptors for the substance on the postsynaptic membrane
B. Ability of the substance to travel long distances between the site of origin and target area
C. Existence of the substance in the presynaptic terminal
D. Release of the substance when nerve impulses reach the terminal ending

A

Ability of the substance to travel long distances between the site of origin and target area

(The correct answer is ‘Ability of the substance to travel long distances between the site of origin and target area’ - Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft and act on postsynaptic neurons which are proximal to this location.)

52
Q

Which of the following is true of both acetylcholine and serotonin?
A. the core of each system is small and deep in the brain
B. many neurons in the core system project to +100,000 postsynaptic neurons all over the brain
C. both neurotransmitter systems are implicated in motor control
D. (a) and (b)
E. all of the above

A

(a) and (b)

(The correct answer is ‘(a) and (b)’ - (c) is incorrect because ACh is implicated in motor control but 5-HT is not. But both are diffuse modulatory systems (making them similar to DA and NE as well, and different from GABA and Glu))

53
Q 
James is trying to diet, but when he sees a giant piece of chocolate cake, he finds it impossible to resist and eats the whole thing. If you had to guess, which neurotransmitter system is activated during this experience in James’ brain?
 A. Dopaminergic
 B. Noradrenergic
 C. Serotonergic
 D. both (a) and (b)
A

Dopaminergic

(The correct answer is ‘Dopaminergic’ - the DA system is strongly involved in reward/motivation systems and related to addictive behavior. The chocolate cake is something that James finds rewarding and he has difficulty sticking to his diet.)

54
Q 
Tom is having problems regulating his sleep, has lost an interest in having sex, and feels down about his life. If you had to guess, which neurotransmitter system is dysregulated in Tom’s brain?
 A. Noradrenergic
 B. Cholinergic
 C. Dopaminergic
 D. Serotonergic
A

Serotonergic

(The correct answer is ‘Serotonergic’ - this transmitter system is implicated in mood and sleep, and is the most likely culprit in this scenario.)

55
Q 
Henry has been taking the same dose of a drug for a year. He has found that the drug seems to have less of an effect than it did when he first started taking it. If the drug Henry was taking is an antagonist, Henry is experiencing the effects of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ because of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. metabolic tolerance; upregulation
 B. functional tolerance; upregulation
 C. functional tolerance; downregulation
 D. metabolic tolerance; downregulation
A

functional tolerance; upregulation

(The correct answer is ‘functional tolerance; upregulation’ - functional tolerance occurs when something has changed at the level of synaptic signaling that lessens the ability of a drug to have an impact. For an antagonist, the brain will upregulate the number of receptors available on the postsynaptic membrane. This means that even with the drug bound to many receptors, there are still plenty of receptors available on which the endogenous NT can act.)

56
Q

Drug A has higher efficacy at a binding site than Drug B. Which of the following is true?
A. Drug A will bind to receptors more strongly than Drug B
B. Drug A will have a weaker effect than Drug B
C. Drug A will bind to receptors less strongly than Drug B
D. Drug A will have a stronger effect than Drug B

A

Drug A will have a stronger effect than Drug B

(The correct answer is ‘Drug A will have a stronger effect than Drug B’ - efficacy is all about the likelihood the receptor will be activated when bound to by a substance. If Drug A has higher efficacy, it will cause a stronger postsynaptic effect than Drug B.)

57
Q 
The discovery that the brain contains specific receptors for manufactured opiate drugs, such as morphine, implies that the body must make an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ substance to interact with the same receptors.
 A. excitatory
 B. endogenous
 C. exogenous
 D. inhibitory
A

endogenous

(The correct answer is ‘endogenous’ - drugs co-opt aspects of normal neural functioning/communication to have an effect on the brain. This means that if a drug acts at a particular receptor site, there must be an endogenous substance that ALSO acts at that site.)

58
Q 
Which of the following lists routes of drug administration from slowest to fastest acting?
 A. ingestion, inhalation, injection
 B. inhalation, injection, ingestion
 C. inhalation, ingestion, injection
 D. ingestion, injection, inhalation
A

ingestion, inhalation, injection

(The correct answer is ‘ingestion, inhalation, injection’ - these are ordered based on how quickly they can enter the bloodstream. Ingestion will be slowest because of absorption through the gut, injection will be fastest because you can inject directly into the blood stream.)

Neuroscience (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions