Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2024 - Élo - Qbank > Quiz 58 > Flashcards

Quiz 58 Flashcards

1
Q

What is seen on EEG in CJD?

A

Periodic biphasic or triphasic sharp wave complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disease do you seen intracellular alpha-synuclein inclusion bodies?

A

These are Lewy bodies; Parkinson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Loss of pigmented neurons in the substantia nigra is seen in what disease?

A

Parkinson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sharp-bordered, eosinophilic inclusions (Negri bodeis) are seen in what disease?

A

Rabies encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What disease do you see intracellular accumulations of hyperphosphorylated tau?

A

Alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Arteriovenous fistula does what to the venous return curve and the cardiac output curve?

A

Venous return curve is shifted to the right; the cardiac output curve does not change (ie the contractility has not changed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is ingested in infant botulism?

A

Spores from Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adult botulinum is due to ingestion of what?

A

Toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of C. Botulinum?

A

Gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Botulinum toxin inhibits the release of what?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What “cancers” are seen in MEN2A?

A

Pheochromocytoma, parathyroid hyperplasia, medullary thyroid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What mutation is associated with MEN2A?

A

RET mutation - becomes a proto-oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does RET encode for? What diseases are seen when RET is mutation?

A

RET encodes for a tyrosine kinase; mutations are seen in MEN2A and MEN2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What characteristics are seen in MEN2B?

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma (RET mutation), pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas and marfanoid habitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What cancer is associated with BCL-2 oncogene?

A

Follicular lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

14;18 translocation results in what? What cancer is this seen in?

A

Results in BCL-2; seen in follicular lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What translocation is seen in follicular lymphoma?

A

14;18 resulting in BCL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What translocation is seen in Burkitt lymphoma?

A

8;14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What caners are associated with HER2 mutations?

A

Breast, ovarian and gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mutation in HER2 results in what?

A

Gene amplification event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What cancer is L-myc associated with?

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What characteristics are seen in MEN1?

A

Parathyroid tumor, pituitary tumor (prolactinoma or GH usually), pancreatic endocrine tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What mutation is seen in MEN1?

A

Mutation in MEN1 - menin; a tumor suppressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, and mucosal neuromas with marfanoid habitus is seen in what disease?

A

MEN2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Parathyroid tumors, medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytomas are seen in what disease?

A

MEN2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a leading cause of myocarditis in latin American?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Chagas disease?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon and megaesophagus due to Trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi causes what disease?

A

Chagas disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is trypanosomoa cruzi transmitted?

A

Reduviid bug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does the reduviid bug transmit?

A

T. Cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Patient from Latin America presents with SOB, palpitations and pulmonary congestion and cardiomegaly on CXR, what do you think is the cause?

A

Infection with T. Cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an early (acute) sign of infection with T cruzi?

A

Romana sign - unilateral periorbital swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What transmits Yersinia pestis?

A

Flea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does yersinia pestis cause?

A

Bubonic plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What transmits Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does Rickettsia prowazekii cause?

A

Epidemic typhus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the rash from Rickettsia prowazekii look like?

A

Rash on trunk that spreads out, sparing the palms and and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In VW disease, what two lab findings stay normal, what two increase?

A

Platelet count and PT stay normal; PTT and bleeding time increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Abnormal response to ristocetin that corrects with normal plasma is seen in what disease?

A

VW disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What factor is decreased in Hemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Factor VIII deficiency results in what abnormal lab(s) finding?

A

Increased PTT; PT, bleeding time, and plt count all normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What do labs show in DIC?

A

Low platelets and fibrinogen, increased BT, PT, PTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

D-dimer is a specific test for what?

A

Fibrin degradation products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What symptoms are seen in Zenker diverticulum?

A

Symptoms of halitosis, dysphagia, change in voice, obstruction of the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Zenker diverticulum?

A

False diverticulum; herniation of mucosa at a point of weakness at the junction of the pharynx and esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is seen in the urine in a patient with a pheochromocytoma?

A

Vanillylmandelic acid and homovanillic acid

47
Q

Pheochromocytomas can be a part of what hereditary syndrome that also can cause renal cell carcinoma?

A

Van Hippel-Lindau syndrome

48
Q

What characteristics are seen in von Hippel-Lindau disease?

A

Hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, bilateral RCC, pheochromocytoma

49
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for vHL?

50
Q

What is the mutation that causes vHL disease?

A

Mutation in VHL - Tumor suppressor gene

51
Q

What function does the VHL gene serve?

A

Inhibits hypoxia inducible factor 1a

52
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

Unconscious adoption of behavior opposite to that which would reflect true feelings and intentions

53
Q

If someone is manifesting the opposite of how they feel - eg feel love but show hate (“girls have cooties”), this is an example of what defense mechanism?

A

Reaction formation

54
Q

Obsessive-compulsive behaviors often exhibit what type of defense mechanism?

A

Undoing - reversing the unacceptable

55
Q

Taking an unacceptable impulse and making it into an acceptable channel (eg art, literature, mentoring) is an example of what type of defense mechanism?

A

Sublimation

56
Q

A man who wants to cheat on his wife accuses his wife of being unfaithful is an example of what defense?

A

Projection

57
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots are seen in what disease?

58
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of NF1?

59
Q

What chromosome is responsible for NF1?

60
Q

What characteristics are seen in NF type 1?

A

Cafe-au-lait spots, lisch nodules, pheochromocytoma, cutaneous neurofibromas, optic gliomas

61
Q

What chromosome is responsible for NF2?

62
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for NF2?

63
Q

What findings are associated with NF2?

A

Bilateral acoustic schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, ependymomas

64
Q

What connects the left pulmonary artery to the aortic arch?

A

Ductus arteriosus

65
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus causes blood to flow in what direction?

A

Left to right - from aorta into left pulmonary artery

66
Q

What type of murmur is heard with PDA? Where is it best heard?

A

Machine like, LUSB

67
Q

During fetal circulation, what direction is blood flowing through the ductus arteriosus?

A

From left pulm. Artery to aorta

68
Q

Treatment with tPA can cause a change in what lab(s)?

A

PT and PTT will be prolonged

69
Q

What is the most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

GBS - strep agalactiae

70
Q

What is the second most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

71
Q

What is the third most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

72
Q

Why should a mother avoid delicatessen foods?

A

Help prevent neonate from being infected with Listeria monocytogenes

73
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of listeria?

A

Gram positive rod

74
Q

Mutation in CDH1 results in what type of cancer?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma; infiltrating lobular breast cancer

75
Q

What does the gene CDH1 code for?

A

E-cadherin

76
Q

Mosaic pattern of newly formed woven bone is specific for what disease?

A

Pagent disease of bone

77
Q

What affect does Paget’s disease have on the heart?

A

Can cause high output cardiac failure

78
Q

What cancer are patients with Paget’s disease predisposed to?

A

Osteosarcoma

79
Q

What region of the bone does Ewing sarcoma occur?

A

Mainly diaphysis of long bones

80
Q

What is seen on xray of a Ewing sarcoma?

A

“Onion skin effect”

81
Q

What translocation is characteristic of Ewing sarcoma?

82
Q

What type of cells are seen in Ewing sarcoma? (Describe appearance)

A

Anaplastic small blue malignant tumor cells

83
Q

Intracytoplasmic granules of eosinophils contain what?

A

Crystalline cores that have major basic protein

84
Q

What function does major basic protein serve?

A

Destroy parasites and contributes to epithelial damage during asthma

85
Q

What anticonvulsants induce the CYP450 system?

A

Phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturate

86
Q

What antibiotic induces the CYP450 system?

87
Q

What virus(es) can reverse transcribe?

A

Retroviruses (HIV) and hepadnaviruses (HBV)

88
Q

What arteries make up the circle of willis?

A

Anterior cerebral, anterior communicating, internal carotid, posterior cerebral, posterior communicating

89
Q

Opening snap can be heard on what heart murmur?

A

Mitral stenosis

90
Q

Exposure to vinyl chloride increases risk for wha?

A

Hepatic angiosarcoma

91
Q

What predisposing factor is seen in hepatic angiosarcoma?

A

Exposure to vinyl chloride; also exposure to arsenic is another risk factor

92
Q

Exposure to benzene increases risk for what cancer?

93
Q

What type of HSR is rheumatic fever?

94
Q

What region of the stomach is affected by H. Pylori infection?

95
Q

What is seen on biopsy of the stomach in H. Pylori infection?

A

Chronic inflammation with lymphocytic infiltration of the mucosa

96
Q

Type B gastritis is caused from what?

97
Q

Type A gastritis is caused from what?

A

Autoimmunity to parietal cells

98
Q

Autoimmune gastritis affects what region of the stomach?

A

Fundus and the body

99
Q

Chronic alcohol use is associated with what type of gastritis?

A

Acute erosive

100
Q

Cushing ulcer causes what?

A

Acute erosive gastritis

101
Q

What is HbS?

A

Type of Hgb seen in sickle cell anemia - point mutation of 6th aa of beta-globin chain

102
Q

A substitution of glutamic acid with valine results in what type of Hgb? What disease?

A

HbS; sickle cell anemia

103
Q

How many alpha globin chains are there?

104
Q

Two alpha globin gene mutations causes what?

A

Thalassemia trait

105
Q

Three alpha globin gene mutations result in what?

A

Hb H disease

106
Q

Four alpha globin gene mutations results in what?

A

Hgb Bart disease

107
Q

What is the result of Hb Barts?

A

Incompatible with life - causes hydrops fetalis

108
Q

What muscles are affected first in DMD?

A

LE proximal muscles - glutes and quads

109
Q

What anterior pituitary hormones are inhibited by somatostatin?

A

Growth hormone and TSH

110
Q

What cells release testosterone in the male? What hormone acts on these cells to promote testosterone release?

A

LH acts on Leydig cells

111
Q

Hyperplastic gastropathy characterized by enlarged rugal folds is seen in what disease?

A

Menetrier disease

112
Q

Menetrier disease leads to loss of what macromolecule?

A

Protein; “protein-losing gastroenteropathy”

113
Q

What hormones are most important to replace in pituitary apoplexy?

A

Glucocorticoids an thyroid hormone

2024 - Élo - Qbank (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions