Quiz 51 Flashcards

1
Q

Incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct results in what?

A

Meckel diverticulum

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2
Q

Rathke’s pouch develops into what?

A

Anterior pituitary

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3
Q

What tumor arises from epithelial nests derived from Rathke’s pouch?

A

Craniopharyngioma

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4
Q

What does gross examination of a craniopharyngioma appear like?

A

Partly cystic mass filled with dark brown oily fluid

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5
Q

Histologically, what is seen in a craniopharyngioma?

A

Tumors derived from dental epithelium

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6
Q

What is the MOA of ropinirole?

A

Dopamine receptor agonist

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7
Q

What is the MOA of selegiline?

A

Inhibits MOA-B

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8
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

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9
Q

What is defective in Wilson’s disease?

A

ATP7B - copper transporter

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10
Q

What chromosome is responsible for Wilson’s disease?

A

Chromosome 13

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11
Q

What is seen on eye examination of a patient with Wilson’s disease?

A

Kayser-Fleischer ring

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12
Q

How can one observe Kayser-Fleischer rings?

A

Slit-lamp examination

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13
Q

Name 5 AEs of valproic acid.

A

Teratogen (neural tube defects), alopecia, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia

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14
Q

What are schuffner’s dots?

A

Red granules in erythrocytes - indicative of malarial infection

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15
Q

What anti-malarial drug can cause worsening of psoriasis?

A

Chloroquine

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16
Q

What anti-malarial drug can cause retinopathy?

A

Chloroquine

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17
Q

What is seen on joint aspiration of gout?

A

Monosodium urate crystals

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18
Q

What is the appearance of monosodium urate crystals?

A

Needle shaped; negatively birefringent (blue when perpendicular)

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19
Q

What is the function of the interosseous muscles? What innervates them?

A

Abduction and adduction of the digits; innervated by the ulnar nerve

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20
Q

Ulnar deviation results when what nerve is injured?

A

Median nerve

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21
Q

What innervates oppenens pollicis? What is it’s action?

A

Median nerve; opposition of the thumb

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22
Q

What is seen on EEG of a patient with CJD?

A

Triphasic spikes

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23
Q

What can be found on lumbar puncture of a patient with CJD?

A

14-3-3 protein

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24
Q

What is a cause of relative polycythemia?

A

Increased RBC count due to decreased plasma volume (eg dehydration)

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25
Q

What are some causes of secondary absolute polycythemia?

A

Hypoxia (due to congenital heart disease, pulmonary disease, or high altitude) or ectopic EPO production ( RCC)

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26
Q

What is the term for the bulls eye rash or target seen in Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans

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27
Q

Why is doxycycline used over other efficacious agents in treating Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline is effective in treating anaplasma phagocytophilum, a common coinfectious agent

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28
Q

What is the function of adductor pollicis? What innervates it?

A

Adduction of the thumb; ulnar nerve

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29
Q

The median nerve innervates what three muscles of the thenar eminence?

A

Flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis

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30
Q

What is the function of the 1st and 2nd lumbricals? What is their innervation?

A

Flexion at the MCP joint and extension at the interphalangeal joint; median nerve

31
Q

Damage to 1st and 2nd lumbricals results in what hand formation?

A

Median claw hand

32
Q

How does V2 exit the skull?

A

Foramen rotundum

33
Q

What go through the carotid canal on the skull?

A

Internal carotid a. And carotid sympathetic n.

34
Q

How does the mandibular nerve exit the skull?

A

Foramen ovale

35
Q

What travels through the optic canal?

A

CN II and ophthalmic artery

36
Q

What goes through the superior orbital fissure in the skull?

A

CN III, IV, VI, ophthalmic nerve (V1)

37
Q

What goes through the foramen spinosum?

A

Middle meningeal artery

38
Q

What goes through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI

39
Q

What structure produces aqueous humor?

A

Ciliary body

40
Q

What are astrocytes derived from?

A

Neuroectoderm

41
Q

What are schwann cells derived from?

A

Neural crest cells

42
Q

What are ependymal cells derived from?

A

Neuroectoderm

43
Q

What are oligodendroglia cells derived from?

A

Neuroectoderm

44
Q

What are the DRG derived from?

A

Neural crest

45
Q

Name the virus families with segmented genomes.

A

Bunyaviridae, Orthomyxoviridae, Reoviridae, Arenaviridae

46
Q

What cells release somatostatin?

A

D cells

47
Q

What cells release gastrin?

A

G cells

48
Q

What structure in the brain is affected by Parkinson disease?

A

Substantia nigra

49
Q

Where is the substantia nigra located in the brain?

A

Midbrain (“mickey mouse”)

50
Q

What neurotransmitter is affected in Parkinson disease?

A

Dopamine - decreased

51
Q

What is the histologic hallmarks of Parkinson disease?

A

Loss of pigmented dopaminergic neurons form substantia nigra and Lewy bodies (intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions)

52
Q

What disease are granulovacuolar degeneration and Hiran bodies found in?

A

Alzheimer disease

53
Q

When does when see Negri bodies? Where are they found?

A

Rabbies; found in Purkinje neurons and hippocampal pyramidal neurons

54
Q

What disease are neurofibrillary tangles found in?

A

Alzheimer disease

55
Q

What regions of the brain are affected by Pick Disease?

A

Frontotemporal regions

56
Q

What neurotransmitter is important for the induction of REM sleep?

A

ACh

57
Q

What are the affects of dopamine on sleep?

A

Produces arousal and wakefulness; dopamine levels rise with waking

58
Q

What is the importance of NE in sleep?

A

NE is lower during REM

59
Q

What neurotransmitter helps initiate sleep?

A

Serotonin

60
Q

What neurotransmitter is high during REM?

A

Ach

61
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

Hyperplasia of the stratum spinosum of the epidermis; thickened, hyperpigmented zones of the skin

62
Q

What structure does the mandibular nerve pass through?

A

Foramen ovale

63
Q

What is the MOA of gemfibrozil?

A

Atdivate proliferator-activated receptor-alpha – increases the expression of lipoprotein lipases

64
Q

What are AEs of fibrates?

A

Gallstones and muscle toxicity

65
Q

How long does it take to reach steady state of a drug?

A

Four to five half lives

66
Q

What percentage of steady state is reached in one half life?

A

50%

67
Q

What percentage of steady state is reached in 3 half lives?

A

87.5%

68
Q

If a drug has a half life of 6 hours, how long does it take to reach 75% of steady-state?

A

Takes 2 half lives to reach 75% of steady-state; therefore 12 hours

69
Q

Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone located?

A

Area postrema in the floor of the fourth ventricle

70
Q

What is the MOA of metoclopramide?

A

Dopamine antagonist

71
Q

Clawing of the entire hand is from what type of brachial plexus injury?

A

Lower trunk lesion

72
Q

What is Klumpke paralysis?

A

Damage to lower trunk of brachial plexus

73
Q

Why is there an issue when a woman with PKU becomes pregnant?

A

PKU results in higher levels of phenylalanine, which can cross the placenta and act as a teratogen to the fetus