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FOM Final Knowledge Exam > Quiz 4 Material > Flashcards

Quiz 4 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What cells of the mucosa of the stomach contain secretory granules primarily in the basal cytoplasm?

A

enterendocrine cells

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2
Q

What type of papillae would you find near the tip or sides of the tongue?

A

fungiform papillae

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3
Q

What hormone stimulates release of pancreatic hormones from acinar cells?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

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4
Q

What is the function of secretin?

A

To stimulate the centroacinar cells and intercalated ducts of the pancreas to secrete a bicarbonate-rich fluid to protect the pancreas and keep zymogens inactive

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5
Q

What cells are responsible for releasing secretin?

A

enteroendocrine cells

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6
Q

Which gastric cells secrete somatostatin?

A

D cells

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7
Q

What is the main effect of somatostatin released by D cells of the stomach?

A

To act in a paracrine manner, reducing secretions from nearby cells

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8
Q

Bilious vomiting and a “double-bubble” gastric sign are an indication of what pathology in a newborn?

A

duodenal atresia

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9
Q

Which bud of the pancreas rotates during formation of the gut tube organs?

A

the ventral bud

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10
Q

What does the vitelline duct connect during fetal life?

A

the midgut and the yolk sac

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11
Q

What is the main pathology of pancreas divisium?

A

the ventral and dorsal ducts fail to fuse; both persist

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12
Q

What is the rule of 2’s as it applies to Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

2% of population, 2% are symptomatic, usually children < 2, 2x more likely in males, 2 ft proximal to IC valve, < 2in, 2 types of mucosal lining

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13
Q

What does the acronym SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

Suprarenal glands, Aorta, Duodenum (2nd-4th part), Pancreas, Ureter, Colon (ascending & descending), Kidneys, Esophagus, Rectum

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14
Q

What spinal cord level is responsible for sympathetic innervation of the adrenal glands? Which nerve is this?

A

T12; the least splanchnic nerve

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15
Q

What structure is represented by the letter E?

A

Aorta

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16
Q

What structure is represented by the letter F?

A

Inferior Vena Cava

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17
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for the rate limiting step of glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase 1

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18
Q

The conversion of 1 glucose molecule to 2 pyruvate molecules yields what net products?

A

2 ATP and 2 NADH

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19
Q

Why do RBCs have to rely on anaerobic glycolysis?

A

They lack mitochondria

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20
Q

What is the chemical pathology of hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

a mutation in the gene encoding aldolase B

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21
Q

Aldolase B interferes with the body’s ability to metabolize what?

A

fructose

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22
Q

In a patient with G6PD deficiency, what three main conditions may trigger hemolytic anemia?

A

treatment with oxidant drugs, fava beans, and severe infections

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23
Q

What is the role of hexokinase/gluckokinase in glycolysis?

A

To trap glucose inside cells by converting it to G6P

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24
Q

What is the general purpose of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

To reduce glutathione, which acts as a potent antioxidant

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25
Q

How is G6PD deficiency linked to lower levels of glutathione?

A

G6PD is responsible for a reaction that regenerates NADPH from NADP+. NADPH is then used to reduce glutathione

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26
Q

What is marasmus?

A

Insufficient protein and energy intake, leading to muscle wasting

27
Q

What is kwashiorkor?

A

Insufficient protein intake with normal energy intake. Leads to edema, often presenting with a swollen belly

28
Q

What is Achalasia?

A

Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax

29
Q

What is the primary cause of Achalasia?

A

loss of enteric ganglion cells

30
Q

What is significant about the appearance of Achalasia on the CT scan of a barium swallow?

A
31
Q

What is aspiration pneumonia?

A

the aspiration of food or saliva into lungs

32
Q

Where are M1 muscarinic cholinergic receptors found?

A

CNS; we don’t care about ‘em

33
Q

Where are M2 muscarinic cholinergic receptors found?

A

the heart

34
Q

Where are M3 muscarinic cholinergic receptors found?

A

Everywhere but the heart and CNS

35
Q

Where are Nm nicotinic cholinergic receptors found?

A

skeletal muscle

36
Q

Where are Nn nicotinic cholinergic receptors found?

A

postganglionic neuronal cell bodies (adrenal chromaffin cells)

37
Q

What are the 3 major catecholamines?

A

DA, NE, and EPI

38
Q

Where are a1 adrenergic receptors found?

A

Vasculature, GI sphincters, internal urethral sphincter, and pupillary muscle

39
Q

Where are a2 adrenergic receptors found?

A

NE (norepinephrine) nerve terminals

40
Q

Where are b1 adrenergic receptors found?

A

the heart and JG cells of kidney

41
Q

Where are b2 adrenergic receptors found?

A

bronchial smooth muscle, systemic vasculature, detrusor muscle, ciliary body (more aqueous humor), and liver (more glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis)

42
Q

What is the preference of NE and EPI for beta adrenergic receptors?

A

b1 -> NE
b2 -> EPI

43
Q

What are chylomicrons?

A

Large, triglyceride-rich lipoprotein particles

44
Q

What enzyme does insulin activate in order to distribute/store dietary fats?

A

lipoprotein lipase

45
Q

Which section of the bowel is associated with ability to absorb vitamin b12 (cobalmin)?

A

ileum

46
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis is commonly seen in patients with what GI disorder?

A

celiac disease

47
Q

Esophageal varices and caput medusa (periumbilical veins) are associated with what vascular condition?

A

portal hypertension

48
Q

Why can increased renal vein pressure help differentiate between liver cirrhosis and RVHF?

A

The renal veins are not connected to the portal system, thus an increased pressure indicates a systemic problem originating in the heart rather than a hepatic portal system problem

49
Q

Microscopically, in what zone of the liver would congestion first become evident?

A

Zone 3

50
Q

What stomach condition is pictured here?

A

leiomyoma

51
Q

Why does destruction of sympathetic/parasympathetic nerve tracts to the gut not usually manifest as life-threatening?

A

the enteric nervous system and its connections function autonomously

52
Q

Between inversion, duplication, robertsonian translocation or a 10Mb deletion which would be most likely to cause disease?

A

a 10Mb deletion

53
Q

Would you use amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling to detect anencephaly and alpha-feto protein levels?

A

amniocentesis

54
Q

What may be detected by alpha-fetoprotein levels?

A

presence of Down syndrome or neural tube defects like spina bifida

55
Q

What complications could be expected from fructokinase deficiency?

A

fructose in the urine

56
Q

Serious cases of cystic fibrosis can have what affect on pancreatic function?

A

Inability to release pancreatic enzymes

57
Q

How do levels of NEFA and triacylglycerol lipases differ between diabetics and normal patients?

A

Insulin typically inhibits triacylglycerol lipases and NEFA, so diabetics will have higher levels of both

58
Q

Agonism of a2 adrenergic receptors results in what effect on NE release?

A

attenutation of NE effects

59
Q

Autonomic innervation of the lacrimal glands is provided by what type of adrenergic/cholinergic receptor?

A

muscarinic cholinergic (M3)

60
Q

Autonomic innervation of the lacrimal, nasopalatal, salivary, and sweat glands is provided by what type of receptor?

A

muscarinic cholinergic (M3)

61
Q

What are two clinical signs of possible G6PD deficiency?

A

Onset of anemia and hyperbillirubinemia in reponse to intense fasting/ingesting an oxidative substance

62
Q

Elevated levels of AMP can allosterically activate what enzyme in glycolysis?

A

PFK1

63
Q

Which two adrenergic/cholinergic receptors are have an effect on systemic vasculature OR systemic arterioles?

A

a1- systemic vasculature (constriction)
b2- systemic arterioles (dilation)

FOM Final Knowledge Exam (6 decks)

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